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[Mar.-2018-New] Where Can I Get IBM 000-004 Dumps?

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2018 IBM 000-004 Dumps (All 188 Q&As) From Pass4itsure 1-24

1. What is the first step that should be performed after setting up a new IBM Tivoli Storage Manager server?
A. prepare
B. storage manager database backup
C. process to return local scratch tapes to the library
D. cron job to back up the Tivoli Storage Manager file system
000-004 exam Answer:B

2. Using the administrative command line on the client machine, query the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (Tivoli Storage Manager) server and save the output to be used for a report later. What must a Tivoli Storage Manager administrator with Operator authority do in order for this output to be redirected for reports?
A. Add > filename to the command.
B. Set the Admin authority to System and create a file output.
C. Create a report in the ISC and direct it to outfile=”outputname”.
D. Issue Query Systeminfo and from the DOS prompt select file output.
Answer:A

3. Which type of device class is supported by random access storage?
A. Disk
B. Tape
C. Virtual
D. GenericTape
000-004 dumps Answer:A

4. Which command will add a new volume to the library, which is in the entry/exit ports of the library?
A. checkin libvolume libname volname search=no status=scratch
B. checkin libvolume libname volname search=no status=scratch waitt=0
C. checkin libvolume libname search=yes status=scratch checklabel=yes
D. checkin libvolume libname search=bulk status=scratch checklabel=barcode
Answer:D

5. What is the term for automatic data movement that frees up space on tape volumes by consolidating active data from fragmented tape volumes onto a single volume?
A. migration
B. collocation
C. reclamation
D. aggregation
000-004 pdf Answer:C

6. Which command must be used to define a schedule that archives specific files quarterly on the last Friday of the month?
A. DEFINE SCHEDULE command with SCHEDSTYLE=ENHANCED parameter
B. DEFINE SCHEDULE command with SCHEDSTYLE=ADVANCED parameter
C. DEFINE CLIENTACTION command with SCHEDSTYLE=ENHANCED parameter
D. DEFINE CLIENTACTION command with SCHEDSTYLE=ADVANCED parameter
Answer:A

7. A customer has a 3584 library with 1000 tape volumes. All of the tape volumes are in IBM Tivoli Storage Manager library inventory with private and scratch status. Now the customer wants to know the total number of ‘Private’ volumes by SQL command. What is the correct SQL statement for an automatic count?
A. SELECT * FROM volumes WHERE status=’Private’
B. SELECT * FROM libvolumes WHERE status=’Private’
C. SELECT COUNT(*) FROM volumes WHERE status=’Private’
D. SELECT COUNT(*) FROM libvolumes WHERE status=’Private’
000-004 vce Answer:D

8. A new server-to-server environment is being set up. One server is called Source and the other Target. With the define server command, the servers will be defined in one step to these two servers. But only one server is defined. On one side, there is no server definition for the issuing server to find. How can this problem be solved?
A. On the Source server, DEFINE SERVER SOURCE …
B. Set on Source and on Target server, SET CROSSDEFINE ON.
C. Set on both servers the IP address, IP port, and the server password.
D. On the Target server, DEFINE SERVER SOURCE … CROSSDEFINE=YES.
Answer:D

9. Additional LTO4 tape drives should be added to the LTO library that has LTO2 drives, what must be done to ensure that the LTO4 drives are used for off-site tapes?
A. Define additional tape drives and path to additional tape drives.
B. Define device class for LTO4, tape drive, and update copypool.
C. Remove LTO device class, and define new LTO4 device class, tape drives, and path.
D. Define the new library, the library path, device class for LTO4, new tape drives to library, path of new drives to IBM Tivoli Storage Manager server, and update storage pool to use new device class LTO4 for off-site copypool and/or primary pools that are sent off-site.
000-004 exam Answer: D

10. A customer wants to copy the file, my data/schedule.doc, retain it for 365 days, and maintain its default backup retention for 30 days. Which IBM Tivoli Storage Manager action should be performed?
A. archive
B. image backup
C. open file backup
D. incremental backup
Answer: A

11. Which statement is true about IBM Tivoli Storage Manager selective backup?
A. It causes the server to update the date and time of the last archive.
B. It expires backup versions of files that are deleted from the workstation.
C. It rebinds backup versions to a management class if the management class has not changed.
D. It backs up directory and file entries even if their size, modification timestamp, or permissions have not changed.
Answer: D

12. Which three operating systems support journal-based backups? (Choose three.)
A. AIX
B. Solaris
C. HP-UX
D. Linux Redhat
E. Windows 2003 Server
F. Windows 2008 Server
000-004 dumps Answer:AEF

13. Whenever using the backup-archive client interface to perform Network Data Management Protocol backups or restores, you are asked to authenticate yourself as an IBM Tivoli Storage Manager administrator before the operation begins. What is the minimal level of authority the administrator ID must have to complete this?
A. system authority
B. system authority for the NAS node
C. client owner authority for the NAS node
D. analyst authority for the backup-archive client server
Answer:C

14. The same backup operation can be performed with a server interface. For example, from the administrative command line client, back up the file system named /vol/vol1 on a NAS file server named NAS1, by entering the following command: backup node nas1 /vol/vol1 What is the minimal level of authority required to perform this operation?
A. storage authority
B. system authority for the NAS node
C. client owner authority for the NAS node
D. analyst authority for the backup-archive client server
000-004 pdf Answer: C

15. In order to back up a NAS device to an IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (Tivoli Storage Manager) native storage pool, set the destination storage pool in the copy group to point to the desired native storage pool. The destination storage pool provides the information about the library and drives used for backup and restore. When backing up a NAS file server to Tivoli Storage Manager native pools, the TOCDESTINATION may be the same as the destination of the NDMP data. What is required for this to
happen?
A. Define a new copygroup for the TOC.
B. Define a new device class for the TOC.
C. Define a copygroup with the TOCDestination parameter.
D. Define a device class, by using the TOCDestination parameter.
Answer: C

16. What is the latest and fastest backup method for a large customer to use Network Data Management Protocol (NDMP) for the large filer?
A. the NetAppSnapMirror to Tape
B. the traditional NDMP for full backup
C. a flash-copy with SnapMirror directly to Tape
D. a block-level copy with SnapMirror directly to Tape
000-004 vce Answer: D

17. A Network Data Management Protocol (NDMP) installation is growing fast with a large filer. For these large IBM Tivoli Storage Manager nodes, a faster backup method must be implemented. Which method should be considered?
A. NDMP full
B. SnapMirror to Tape
C. NDMP differential backup
D. Incremental backup with NDMP
Answer: B

18. The Network Data Management Protocol filers must be backed up. All definitions are complete and the access to the tape environment is working properly. The backup command is not performing optimally. To allow the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager client a backup from a NetApp filer, some additional options for the backup command are required to get optimal performance. Which option should be used?
A. TYPE = BACKUP | SNAPDisk
B. TYPE = BACKUPImage | SNAPMirror
C. TYPE = BACKUPFilespace | SNAPCopy
D. TYPE = BACKUPFiller | SNAPMultiple
Answer: B

19. Which command starts the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager administrative command line interface?
A. dsmc
B. dsmadmc
C. tsmadmin
D. dsm admin
000-004 exam Answer: B

20. What are two valid options when starting the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager administrative command line interface? (Choose two.)
A. -clientmode
B. -adminmode
C. – mountmode
D. – servermode
E. – consolemode
Answer:CE

21. The exhibit represents a simple routed network. Node 7 is a Windows 2000 Professional machine that establishes a TCP communication with Node 10, a Windows 2003 Server. The routers are Cisco 2500 series running IOS 11.2. While working at Node 10, you run a packet capture. Packets received by Node 10, and sent from Node 7 will reveal which of the following combination of source IP and source Physical addresses:
A. Source IP address 10.0.10.115, Source Physical address for Node 7
B. Source IP address 50.0.50.1, Source Physical address for Node 7
C. Source IP address for Router D’s Int E0, Source Physical address for Node 7
D. Source IP address 10.0.10.115, Source Physical address Router D’s Int E0
E. Source IP addresses for both Nodes 7 and Router D’s Int E0, Source Physical address for both Nodes 7 and Router D’s Int E0.
000-004 dumps Answer:D

22. You have implemented an IPSec policy, using only AH. You are analyzing your network traffic in Network Monitor, which of the following statements are true about your network traffic?
A. You will not be able to view the data in the packets, as it is encrypted.
B. You will not be able to identify the upper layer protocol.
C. You will be able to view the unencrypted data in the packets.
D. You will be able to identify the encryption algorithm in use.
E. You will not be able to view the packet header.
Answer: C

23. In order to perform promiscuous mode captures using the Wireshark capture tool on a Windows Server 2003 machine, what must first be installed?
A. IPv4 stack
B. IPv6 stack
C. WinPcap
D. Nothing, it will capture by default
E. At least two network adapters
000-004 pdf Answer: C

24. You are configuring the rules on your firewall, and need to take into consideration that some clients in
the network are using automatic addressing. What is the IP address range reserved for internal use for
APIPA in Microsoft networks?
A. 169.254.0.0 /4
B. 169.254.0.0 /16
C. 169.254.0.0 /8
D. 169.254.0.0 /0
E. 168.255.0.0 /16
Answer: B
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[Oct.-2017-New] Prepare For the Latest IBM C4040-252 Dumps Exams Certification Are Based On The Real Exam Video Study

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What’s New in theIBM C4040-252 dumps? “Power Systems with POWER8 Enterprise Technical Sales Skills V1” is the name of IBM C4040-252 exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real IBM exam. Prepare for the latest IBM C4040-252 dumps exams certification are based on the real exam video study. Pass4itsure IBM C4040-252 dumps exam questions answers are updated (58 Q&As) are verified by experts.

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Exam Code: C4040-252
Exam Name: Power Systems with POWER8 Enterprise Technical Sales Skills V1
Q&As: 58

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2017 IBM C4040-252 Dumps (All 58 Q&As) From Pass4itsure:

QUESTION: 40
Which of the following statements is false?
A. Service-orientation is a design paradigm that must be applied on an enterprise-wide
basis in order to be successful.
B. Service-orientation is a design paradigm comprised of a set of design principles.
C. Service-orientation is an evolutionary design paradigm that has been influenced by
older, established IT paradigms and platforms.
D. Service-orientation is applied to logic in order to create service-oriented logic.
C4040-252 exam 
Answer: A
QUESTION: 41
When an organization cannot implement a single enterprise service inventory, it has the
option to organize collections of services into multiple service inventories referred to as
.
A. domain service inventories
B. sub-inventories
C. sectional service inventories
D. service inventory subsets
Answer: A
QUESTION: 42
A part of a service contract that is commonly standardized is the .
A. data model

B. service agent
C. service registry
D. data agent
C4040-252 dumps 
Answer: A
QUESTION: 43
Service-oriented computing advocates a concept based on the creation of a service layer
with standardized and unified endpoints (service contracts) while allowing individual
service implementations to remain disparate and independently governed. This concept is
known as:
A. interoperability
B. transformation
C. federation
D. isolation
Answer: C
QUESTION: 44
Service-oriented computing aims to increase an organization’s responsiveness by
allowing it to adapt to change more efficiently and effectively. This is known as:
A. organizational diversity
B. organizational agility
C. organizational federation
D. organizational interoperability
C4040-252 pdf 
Answer: B
QUESTION: 45
One of the fundamental characteristics of service-oriented architecture is:
A. business-driven
B. integration-centric
C. inventory-neutral
D. silo-driven
Answer: A
QUESTION: 46
By applying a strategic scope to the technology architecture, it can be kept
in constant synch with how the business evolves over time.
A. consistently decreasing
B. middleware-centric
C. vendor-driven
D. None of the above answers correctly complete this sentence.
C4040-252 vce 
Answer: D
QUESTION: 47
Why is it recommended to establish a service-oriented architectural model that is vendor
neutral?
A. Because a vendor-neutral architectural model provides you with the opportunity to
fully leverage and form dependencies on proprietary (vendor-specific) vendor features.
B. Because a vendor-neutral architectural model provides you with the opportunity to
build service-oriented solutions only with open source technologies, thereby avoiding the
use of vendor technologies altogether.
C. Because a vendor-neutral architectural model provides you with the freedom to
diversify its implementation by leveraging multiple vendor technologies as required.
D. A vendor-neutral service-oriented architectural model is not recommended.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 48
Which two are valid configurations of an interface? (Choose two.) A. [edit interfaces]
lo0 { unit 0
{ family inet
{
address 192.168.20.1/32;
}
}
}
A. [edit interfaces]
lo0 { unit 0
{ family inet
{
address 192.168.20.1/24;
}
}
}
B. [edit interfaces]
fe-0/0/0
{ unit 0
{ family inet
{
address 10.1.20.1/32;
}
}
}

C. [edit interfaces]
C4040-252 exam
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 49
Which logical unit number must be configured on an interface using PPP encapsulation?
A. unit 0
B. unit 1
C. unit 100
D. unit 255
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 50
Which statement is true about configuring a back-to-back connection frame-relay on
Juniper Routers?
A. Both DTE and DCE will send keep-alives by default so no special configuration is required.
B. The circuit is negotiated automatically so no special configuration is required.
C. All equipment is by defaultDTE, one side should be set to DCE.
D. All equipment is by defaultDCE, one side should be set to DTE.
C4040-252 dumps 
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 51
Which two media types support asynchronous transfer mode? (Choose two.)
A. T3
B. SONET
C. Gigabit-Ethernet
D. EIA/TIA-232 serial
Answer: A,B
QUESTION NO: 52
Which user authentication methods are available in JUNOS?
A. MD5 and SHA
B. RADIUS and TACACS only
C. Local User Database
D. Local user Database, RADIUS, and TACACS+
C4040-252 pdf 
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 53
A router has been configured with the settings shown below:
[edit]
[email protected]# show system authentication-order authentication-order [ radius tacplus ];
The router also has a local database that contains the user lab with password lab123. What
would happen if both the RADIUS and the TACACS servers are not accessible?
A. The user lab will not be able to login.
B. The user lab will be authenticated against the local database and will be able to login.
C. The user lab will receive an error message indicating the router is unable to authenticate
due to the authentication servers not responding.
D. The user will be able to login only if tries to login as the root user.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 54
A router has been configured with the authentication order settings shown below:
[edit]
[email protected]# show system authentication-order authentication-order [ radius tacplus password
];
The router also has a local database that contains the user lab with password lab123.
What would happen if both the RADIUS and the TACACS servers respond with a reject for
user lab?
A. The user lab will not be able to login.
B. The user lab will be authenticated against the local database and will be able to login.
C. The user will be able to login only if tries to login as the root user.
D. The user lab will receive an error message indicating the username and password
provided could not be found on the radius and tacacs servers.
C4040-252 vce 
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 55
You have been asked to configure a login class which will permit its users to view and edit the configuration. The class should only allow the configuration of the interfaces and firewall heirarchies. Which configuration correctly accomplishes this?
A. accept-commands “(configure)”;
accept-configuration “(interfaces|firewall)”;
deny-configuration “(groups)”;
B. permissions[ clear network reset view ];
allow-commands “(configure)”;
allow-configuration “(interfaces) | (firewall)”;
deny-configuration “(groups)”;
C. permissions[ clear network reset view ];
permit-commands “(configure)”;
permit-configuration “(interfaces) | (firewall)”;
deny-configuration “(groups)”;
D. permissions[ clear network reset view ];
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 56
How are the commands a user is allowed to enter defined in JUNOS?
A. Permissions are configured individually for each user.
B. Users are associated with user classes, and each class defines the permissions for
entering commands.
C. There are four default classes with different permissions and you can only use these four.
D. Permissions are associated with each user ID.
C4040-252 exam 
Answer: B

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