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[Apr.-2018-New] Latest Release Microsoft 70-346 Dumps Microsoft Office 365 Exam Test Video Training 268Q&As 15-35

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2018 Microsoft 70-346 Dumps (All 268 Q&As) From Pass4itsure 15-35

QUESTION 15
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. You prepare to install Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS). You need to open the correct port between the AD FS proxy server and the AD FS federation server. Which port should you open?
A. TCP 80
B. TCP 135
C. TCP 389
D. TCP 443
E. TCP 636
F. TCP 1723
70-346 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
Contoso uses Office 365 for collaboration services. You implement single sign-on (SSO) with Office 365 by using Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS). You need to implement Windows Azure multi-factor authentication. Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. On the AD FS federation server, run PhoneFactorAgentSetup.exe.
B. On the AD FS Federation server, run WindowsAzureSDK-x64.exe.
C. On the AD FS Federation server, run the Windows PowerShell cmdlet Register- AdfsAuthenticationProvider.
D. On the AD FS Federation server, run FsConfigWizard.exe.
E. Run the Active Directory Domains and Trusts MMC snap-in. Register Windows Azure Multi-Factor Authentication Server as an additional authentication provider.
F. Run the Windows Azure Multi-Factor Authentication Server Authentication Configuration Wizard.
Correct Answer: BCF

QUESTION 17
An organization with an Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain migrates to Office 365. You need to manage Office 365 from a domain-joined Windows Server 2012 Core server. Which three components should you install? Each answer presents part of the solution.
A. Azure Active Directory module for Windows PowerShell
B. Microsoft .NET Framework 3.5
C. Microsoft Office 365 Integration Module for Windows Small Business Server 2011 Essentials
D. Microsoft .NET Framework 4.0
E. Microsoft Online Services Sign-in Assistant
F. Rights Management module for Windows PowerShell
70-346 dumps Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 18
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. You must use Windows PowerShell to manage cloud identities in Office 365. You must use a computer that runs Windows 8 to perform the management tasks. You need to ensure that the Windows 8 computer has the necessary software installed. What should you install first?
A. Microsoft Office 365 Best Practices Analyzer for Windows PowerShell
B. Windows PowerShell 4.0
C. Remote Server Administration Tools for Windows
D. Microsoft Online Services Sign-in Assistant
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 19
Your company has an Office 365 subscription. The network contains an Active Directory domain. You configure single sign-on for all users. You need to verify that single sign-on functions for the users who access Office 365 from the Internet. What should you run?
A. the Get-MSOLFederationProperty cmdlet
B. the Test-OrganizationRelationship cmdlet
C. the Microsoft Remote Connectivity Analyzer
D. the Microsoft Exchange Server Deployment Assistant
70-346 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details provided in the question apply only to that question. A company has an Office 365 tenant that has an Enterprise E1 subscription. You synchronize disabled user accounts from an Active Directory Domain Services environment. You need to enable the user accounts in Office 365. Which Windows PowerShell cmdlet should you run?
A. Set-MsolUser
B. Redo-MsolProvisionUser
C. Set-MsolUserLicense
D. Set-MsolUserPrincipalName
E. Convert-MsolFederatedUser
F. Set-MailUser
G. Set-LinkedUser
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. Employees do not have local administrative privileges on client computers. The company has the following client computer software: Windows 7 and Windows 8 32-bit and 64-bit Office 2007, Office 2010, and Office 2013. When accessing the corporate Microsoft SharePoint 2010 site, some users are unable to display SharePoint lists in the Datasheet view. You need to ensure that all users can display SharePoint lists in the Datasheet view. What should you do?
A. Upgrade to the latest version of Office 365 ProPlus.
B. Force a reinstallation of Office by using Group Policy and specifying a network location.
C. Uninstall the 64-bit version of Office and then install the 32-bit version of Office.
D. Upgrade all Office 2007 and Office 2010 versions to Office 2013.
70-346 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
You have an Office 365 subscription.
Several users report that they fail to connect to Microsoft Skype for Business Online by using the Skype for Business 2016 client. You verify that you can connect to Skype for Business Online successfully from your computer. You need to identify what prevents the users from connecting to Skype for Business Online. Solution: You use the Microsoft Remote Connectivity Analyzer. Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23
Your company uses Office 365. You need to prevent users from initiating remote wipes of mobile devices by using the Office 365 portal. What should you modify?
A. the Outlook Web App mailbox policy
B. the Exchange ActiveSync device policy
C. the default role assignment policy
D. the Exchange ActiveSync Access settings
70-346 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 24
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. You have a server that runs Windows Server 2012. You plan to install an Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) web app proxy server. You need to install and configure the required roles.
What role should you install and configure?
A. Web Server (IIS)
B. Network Policy and Access Service
C. Application Server
D. Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS)
E. Remote Access
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 25
A company deploys an Office 365 tenant. You need to enable multi-factor authentication for Office 365. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
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70-346 dumps Correct Answer:
70-346 dumps
QUESTION 26
An organization prepares to migrate to Office 365. The organization has one domain controller named NYC-DC1 and one server named NYC-DS that is designated as the directory synchronization computer. The organization has the following servers:
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You plan to upgrade the servers to support directory synchronization. You must upgrade each server to meet only the minimum requirements by using the least amount of administrative effort. You need to ensure that you can use the Windows Azure Active Directory Sync tool to synchronize the local Active Directory with Office 365. What should you do? Select the correct action from each list in the answer area.
Hot Area:
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QUESTION 27
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. User1 leaves the company. You must delete the account for User1. In the table below, identify when each type of data will be deleted. Make only one selection in each column. Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:
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QUESTION 28
A company is deploying an Office 365 tenant. You need to deploy a Windows Server 2012 R2 federation server farm. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
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70-346 pdf Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 29
You are the Office 365 administrator for Contoso, Ltd. User1 is unable to sign in. You need to change the password for User1 and ensure that the user is prompted to reset her password the next time she signs in.
How should you complete the relevant Windows PowerShell command? To answer, drag the appropriate Windows PowerShell segments to the correct location or locations. Each Windows PowerShell segment may be used once, more than
once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:
70-346 dumps

QUESTION 30
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. You audit the Windows Azure Active Directory Rights Management configuration for the company. You need to view a log of the recent administrative commands performed against the Microsoft Rights Management Service. Which three Windows PowerShell cmdlets should you run in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate cmdlets from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
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70-346 vce Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 31
Fabrikam has the Office 365 Enterprise E3 plan. You must add the domain name fabrikam.com to the Office 365 tenant. You need to confirm ownership of the domain. Which DNS record types should you use? To answer, drag the appropriate DNS record type to the correct location or locations in the answer area. Each DNS record type may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 32
A company plans to use Office 365 to provide email services to employees. The company obtains a custom domain name to use with Office 365. You need to add the domain name to Office 365. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
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70-346 exam Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 33
Fabrikam Inc. plans to use the domain fabrikam.com for Office 365 user identities, email addresses. Session Initiation Protocol (SIP) addresses, and a public-facing home page. Single sign-on (SSO) between Office 365 and the on-premises Active Directory is NOT required. You need to configure the Office 365 plan. Which four Windows PowerShell cmdlets should you run in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
70-346 dumps

QUESTION 34
OverView
Fabrikam, inc is a financial services organization. Fabrikam recently purchased another financial services organization named Contoso, Ltd. Fabrikam has 2000 users. Contoso has 500 users. Windows 10 and office 2016 are deployed to all computers.
Physical Location:
Fabrikam has an office in the United States. Contoso has an office in the United Kingdom. The offices connect to each other by using a WAN link. Each office also connects directly to the internet.
Existing Environment:
Active Directory:
The network Fabrikam contains an Active Directory forest. The Active Directory environment of Contoso was migrated to the Active Directory forest of Fabrikam. The forest contains three domains named fabrikam.com,contractor.fabrikam.com, and contoso.com. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2008 R2. All contractors outsourced by fabrikam use the user principal name (UPN) suffix of contractor.fabrikam.com. If fabrikam hires the contractor as a permanenet employee, the UPN suffix changes to fabrikam.com. Network
The network has the following configurations:
* External IP address for the United States office: 192.168.1.100
* External IP address for the United Kingdom office: 192.168.2.100
* Internal IP address range for the United States office: 10.0.1.0/24
* Internal IP address range for the United Kingdom office : 10.0.2.0/24
Active Directory Federation Services (ADFS)
AD FS and web Application Proxies are deployed to support an app for the sales department. The app is accessed from the Microsoft Azure Portal.
Office 365 Tenant
You have an Office 365 subscription that has the following configurations:
* Organization name: Fabrikam Financial Services.
* Vanity domain: Fabrikamfinancialservices.onmicrosoft.com
* Microsoft SharePoint domain: Fabrikamfinancialservices .sharepoint.com
* Additional domain added to the subscription: Contoso.com and fabrikam.com
Requirements:
Planned Changes:
* Deploy Azure AD connect.
* Move mailboxes from Microsoft Exchange 2016 to Exchange Online.
* Deploy Azure multi-factor authentication for devices that connect from untrusted networks only.
* Customize the AD FS sign-in webpage to include the Fabrikam logo, a helpdesk phone number, and a sign=in description.
* Once all of the Fabrikam users are replicated to Azure Active Directory (Azure AD), assign an E3 license to all of the users in the United States office.
Technical Requirements:
Contoso identifies the following technical requirements:
* When a device connects from an untrusted network to, ensure that users must type a verification code generated from a mobile app.
* Ensure that all users can access office 365 services from a web browser by using either a UPN or their primary SMTP email address.
* After Azure AD connect is deployed, change the UPN suffix if all the users in the Contoso sales department to fabrikam.com.
* Ensure that administrator are notified when the health information of Exchange Online changes.
* User Office 365 reports to review previous tasks performed in Office 365.
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the sonic scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals. You need to configure the Office 365 subscription 1o ensure that Active Directory users on conned to Office 365 resources by using single sign-on (SSO). Solution: You run Convert-MsolFederatedUser for all users. Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 35
OverView
Fabrikam, inc is a financial services organization.
Fabrikam recently purchased another financial services organization named Contoso, Ltd. Fabrikam has 2000 users. Contoso has 500 users. Windows 10 and office 2016 are deployed to all computers.
Physical Location:
Fabrikam has an office in the United States. Contoso has an office in the United Kingdom. The offices connect to each other by using a WAN link. Each office also connects directly to the internet.
Existing Environment:
Active Directory:
The network Fabrikam contains an Active Directory forest. The Active Directory environment of Contoso was migrated to the Active Directory forest of Fabrikam. The forest contains three domains named fabrikam.com,contractor.fabrikam.com, and contoso.com. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2008 R2. All contractors outsourced by fabrikam use the user principal name (UPN) suffix of contractor.fabrikam.com. If fabrikam hires the contractor as a permanenet employee, the UPN suffix changes to fabrikam.com.
Network
The network has the following configurations:
* External IP address for the United States office: 192.168.1.100
* External IP address for the United Kingdom office: 192.168.2.100
* Internal IP address range for the United States office: 10.0.1.0/24
* Internal IP address range for the United Kingdom office : 10.0.2.0/24
Active Directory Federation Services (ADFS)
AD FS and web Application Proxies are deployed to support an app for the sales department. The app is accessed from the Microsoft Azure Portal. Office 365 Tenant
You have an Office 365 subscription that has the following configurations:
* Organization name: Fabrikam Financial Services.
* Vanity domain: Fabrikamfinancialservices.onmicrosoft.com
* Microsoft SharePoint domain: Fabrikamfinancialservices .sharepoint.com
* Additional domain added to the subscription: Contoso.com and fabrikam.com
70-346 dumps Requirements:
Planned Changes:
* Deploy Azure AD connect.
* Move mailboxes from Microsoft Exchange 2016 to Exchange Online.
* Deploy Azure multi-factor authentication for devices that connect from untrusted networks only.
* Customize the AD FS sign-in webpage to include the Fabrikam logo, a helpdesk phone number, and a sign=in description.
* Once all of the Fabrikam users are replicated to Azure Active Directory (Azure AD), assign an E3 license to all of the users in the United States office.
Technical Requirements:
Contoso identifies the following technical requirements:
* When a device connects from an untrusted network to https://outlook.office.com, ensure that users must type a verification code generated from a mobile app.
* Ensure that all users can access office 365 services from a web browser by using either a UPN or their primary SMTP email address.
* After Azure AD connect is deployed, change the UPN suffix if all the users in the Contoso sales department to fabrikam.com.
* Ensure that administrator are notified when the health information of Exchange Online changes.
* User Office 365 reports to review previous tasks performed in Office 365.
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
You need to identify which report must be used to view previous tasks performed in Office 365. Which type of report should you use for each task? To answer, drag the appropriate reports to the correct tasks. Each report may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view
content.
Select and Place:
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[Dec.-2017-New] Best Ways to Prepare Helpful Microsoft MCSA 70-764 Dumps Exam Actual Questions Administering a SQL Database Infrastructure

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QUESTION NO: 58
You are serving as a consultant for a golf course in your city. The owners of the course are concerned about the clickthrough rate of their Google sponsored link ad. You tell the clients that their ad is actually performing well based on the clickthrough rate.Which of the following statements, according to Google, is an indicator that an ad group is performing very well?
A. A CTR over one percent on Google is very good.
B. A CTR over two percent on Google is very good.
C. A CTR over ten percent on Google is very good.
D. A CTR over fifty percent on Google is very good.
70-764 exam Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 59
When a Google AdWords user targets a language for his business, there are three choices as part of the targeting. Which of the following is NOT a language targeting choice in Google AdWords?
A. Single language
B. Domain origination
C. Multiple languages
D. Combine with location targeting
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 60
All Google AdWords are reviewed for the content and compliance with Google policy. If an advertiser creates an advertisement that is deemed to be adult in nature, which one of the following statements would not apply to the advertiser?
A. Adult ads won’t appear for search queries that aren’t considered adult in nature, even if the query is used as a keyword in the campaign.
B. Google does not accept adult ads.
C. Adult ads won’t appear for search queries that aren’t considered adult in nature, even if the query is used as a keyword in the campaign.
D. Non-family and adult ads won’t appear on some sites and products in the Google Network that choose to accept only family safe ads.
70-764 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 61
What tool must you use to create a rich media ad format?
A. Display Ad Builder
B. Google Tools
C. Google Pack
D. Campaign builder
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 62
Ned has created a website that includes a pop-up window for new visitors when they visit his site. The pop-up window offers 25 percent off a purchase for one day only. Will Google AdWords have a problem with Ned’s site?
A. Yes, because Google AdWords prohibits pop-up windows for visitors to websites.
B. No, as long as Ned’s site isn’t selling anything against Google’s content policy.
C. No, because the pop-up window offers a discount to Ned’s website visitors.
D. Yes, because the pop-up window offers a coupon that’s good for one day only.
70-764 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 63
Nancy is reviewed her billing summary for her Google AdWords account. There is a line item in the billing summary titled ‘Adjustment – Click Quality’. What does this line item mean?
A. Nancy has been credited for clicks on her ad that were deemed invalid clicks.
B. Nancy has been credited for clicks on her ad that took longer than five seconds to resolve.
C. Nancy has been credited for clicks on her, for Google incurred cost overruns for displaying her ad beyond her given budget.
D. Nancy has been credited for clicks on her ad that didn’t take visitors to her domain.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 64
You are a consultant for a wedding photographer, and you’re helping her with her Google AdWords account. The photographer doesn’t understand why her ad for the Google Network hasn’t started generating traffic yet. You explain that the ad has just been created, and that there are three qualifications for the ad to go live. Which of the following is NOT one of the three qualifications for an ad to go live on the Google Network?
A. The ad must meet the partner requirements.
B. The ad must be opted into the Google Network.
C. The ad must be reviewed and approved.
D. The ad must be prepaid for thirty days.
70-764 vce Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 65
Which of the following statements is true about CPM ads in the Google Content Network?
A. CPM ads always occupy the entire ad space on a web page in the Google Content Network.
B. CPM ads require text only in the Google Content Network.
C. CPM ads are not allowed in the Google Content Network.
D. CPM ads require prepayment to participate in the Google Content Network.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 66
Terri has created a website for her web design business. Through her SEO efforts and good web content, her site has reached the top position in Google’s organic search results for certain keywords. On her site, she has added the phrase ‘Recommended by Google’ in the header. She does not, however, use this phrase in her Google AdWords ads. Is this a problem according to Google AdWords policies?
A. No, Terri’s site is recommended by Google as she’s on the top, in search results on certain keywords.
B. No, Terri can add this info to her site as long as she doesn’t put this phrase in her Google AdWords advertisements.
C. Yes, Google doesn’t allow ads or sites to add such language that may mislead readers to believe her site is directly affiliated with Google.
D. Yes, Terri must add this phrase to her Google AdWords advertisements too.
70-764 exam Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 67
Eddy is managing his company’s AdWords along with Jon and Fred, using Google AdWords Editor. Jon wants to know how many accounts can be edited at once, since he’s many accounts to edit. What should Eddy tell Jon?
A. The AdWords Editor allows you to edit up to five accounts at once.
B. The AdWords Editor allows you to edit up to five accounts at once if you synch with the Google AdWords My Client Center.
C. The AdWords Editor allows you to edit only one account at a time.
D. The AdWords Editor allows you to edit up to 100 accounts at once.
Answer: C
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QUESTION 1
You need a component that can combine form controls together with the possibility to expand and collapse them. Which component should you choose?
A. sub-grid
B. section
C. Quick View form
D. tab
MB2-707 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2
You need to delete a custom Public View from the System View area in Microsoft Dynamics CRM so that the Public View does not appear to any users. Which two preliminary actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Ensure that the view is included in an unmanaged solution.
B. Verity that a different default view is set
C. Verify that all dependencies are removed from the view.
D. Ensure that the view was created by you.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 3
You are configuring user access in Microsoft Dynamics CRM. You need each account to have a unique group of people who have write permissions to the account. What should you do?
A. Have Dynamics CRM automatically create access teams for each record, and manually share the account with the appropriate
B. Create an owner team, and assign the accounts to the owner team.
C. Create an access team template, and add to the account form a sub-grid that references the access team template.
D. Manually create an access team record for each account and assign the account to the access team.
MB2-707 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4
You create a custom entity named Ocean. It has the plural name of Oceans. What are three system views for this custom entity? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. Ocean Lookup View
B. Ocean Advanced Find View
C. Ocean Associated View
D. My inactive Oceans
E. My active Oceans
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 5
A user from the sales team is transitioning into the service department. The user has both Sales Representative and Customer Service Representative security roles. The user\’s default pane and default dashboard need to be set. What should you do?
A. Change the user\’s Business Unit to Customer Service, and then have the user set the default pane and dashboard in the user options.
B. Locate the user\’s desired pane and dashboard in the Default Solution components, and set it as the default.
C. Recommend that the user set the default pane in the user options, open the desired dashboard, and set the dashboard as the default
D. Locate the user\’s desired dashboard, and enable security roles for it. Assign the Sales Representative role to the dashboard.
MB2-707 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6
You need to create a solution file to import into another environment. What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Create a managed solution file by exporting an unmanaged solution as Managed Solution.
B. Create an unmanaged solution file by exporting an unmanaged solution as Unmanaged Solution.
C. Create a managed solution file by exporting a managed solution as Managed Solution.
D. Create an unmanaged solution file by exporting a managed solution as Unmanaged Solution.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 7
A System View\’s email address is truncated. You need to resolve this issue by editing the view. What should you do?
A. Select Configure Columns. In the columns list change Increase the Width of the Email Address field.

B. Remove the Email Address field. Use Add Columns to add the column back to the view. Enter the column width at the prompt,
C. Select the Email Address field. Click and drag the right edge of the column to resize it to the desired width.
D. Select the Email Address field. Click Change Properties, and select a new width for the column.
MB2-707 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
You are creating new custom entities and attributes in Microsoft Dynamics CRM. Which two Data Types support Rollup fields? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Option Set
B. Whole Number
C. Date and Time
D. Lookup
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 9
You are a Microsoft Dynamics CRM consultant for a small business. Your client asks you to create a custom entity named Event Type. This entity needs to support business process flows, notes, document management and offline capability for Dynamics CRM for Outlook. Which two custom entity options in you solution cannot be disabled after they are enabled? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Offline capability for Dynamics CRM for Outlook
B. Document management
C. Notes
D. Business process flows
MB2-707 exam Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 10
You want users to be able to access a custom entity from Microsoft Dynamics CRM for Tablets.Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.
A. Add the entity to at least one SiteMap area.
B. Create a new form to Mobile.

C. Enable the CRM for Tablets check box.
D. In Managed Properties, set New forms can be created to Yes.
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 11
You create a personal dashboard and want to make it available to a group of other Microsoft Dynamics CRM users. What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Share the dashboard with each of the users.
B. Give the users a common security role, and grant the security role permission to the dashboard.
C. Add the dashboard to a solution, and import it as a system dashboard.
D. Save a copy of the dashboard, and assign the dashboard to a team that contains the users.
MB2-707 dumps Correct Answer: AD

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Exam Code: 70-243
Exam Name: Administering and Deploying System Center 2012 Configuration Manager
Q&As: 157

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QUESTION 22
Your network contains an Active Directory forest. The forest contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment. The environment contains one primary site.
You need to unsure that the members of a group named Group1 are allowed to deploy applications to desktop computers. The solution must minimize the number of permissions assigned to Group1. What should you do?
A. Assign the Application Administrator security role to Group1. Create a new collection that contains all of the desktop computers. Add Group1 to the local Administrators group on each desktop computer.
B. Add the Application Deployment Manager security role to Group1. Create a new collection that contains all of the desktop computers. Add Group1 to the local Administrators group on each desktop computer.
C. Assign the Application Deployment Manager security role to Group1.Create a new collection that contains all of the desktop computers. Scope Group1 to the new collection.
D. Assign the Application Administrator security role to Group1. Create a new collection that contains all of the desktop computers. Scope Group1 to the new collection.

70-243 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 23
Your network contains a single Active Directory domain. You plan to deploy System Center 2012 Configuration Manager. The hierarchy will have a Central Administration site and five primary sites. You need to ensure that you can target user groups for software distribution. The solution must minimize network traffic. Which Configuration Manager discovery method should you use?
A. Active Directory User Discovery on the primary sites
B. Active Directory User Discovery on the primary sites and Active Directory Group Discovery on every site
C. Active Directory User Discovery on the Central Administration site and Active Directory Group Discovery on the primary sites
D. Active Directory User Discovery and Active Directory Group Discovery on the Central Administration site
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 24
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment. The Configuration Manager databases are located on a remote server that runs Microsoft SQL Server. You need to ensure that you can restore the Central Administration site.
What should you do?
A. From the Configuration Manager console, enable the Backup Site Server maintenance task and set a schedule.
B. From Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio, create a maintenance plan for the site databases.
C. From Task Scheduler, create a scheduled task that runs smssqlbkup.exe.
D. From Windows Server Backup, schedule a full system backup.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 25
Your network contains a single Active Directory forest named contoso.com. Contoso.com contains three System Center 2012 Configuration Manager sites and one System Center Configuration Manager 2007 site. You need to ensure that you can transfer objects from Configuration Manager 2007 to Configuration Manager 2012.
What should you do?
A. Assign the computer account of the Central Administration site server permission to the Configuration Manager 2007 site. Assign the computer account of the Central Administration site server permissions to the Microsoft SQL Server database instance.
B. Extend the Active Directory schema and assign the Central Administration site server permissions to the System\System Management container.
C. Connect the Configuration Manager 2007 primary site as a child primary site of the Configuration Manager 2012 primary site.
D. Connect the Configuration Manager 2012 primary site as a child primary site of the Configuration Manager 2007 primary site.

70-243 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 26
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment. The environment contains a primary site server named Server1 and a server named Server2 that runs Microsoft SQL Server 2008 R2. Server2 contains the Configuration Manager database. Server2 fails. You install SQL Server 2008 R2 on a new server. You name the server Server3. You need to restore the Configuration Manager database to Server3. What should you do?
A. Register the Service Principal Name (SPN) for the SQL Server service account of Server3. From Server1, run the Configuration Manager 2012 Setup Wizard.
B. From Server3, run Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio, and then restore the backed up SQL Server database and log files.
C. From Server3, run Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio, and then attach the backed up SQL Server database and log files.
D. Register the Service Principal Name (SPN) for the SQL Server service account of Server3. From Server1, run the Site Repair Wizard.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 27
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment. The environment contains a single primary site. The primary site has a distribution point and a management point. You need to recommend a communication solution that meets the following requirements: Communication between the client computers in the research department and the management point must use HTTPS. Communication between all of the other client computers and the management point must be able to use HTTP.
Minimize the number of site systems. What should you do?
A. Configure the existing management point to use HTTPS. Configure the research department computers always to um HTTPS.
B. Create a now primary child site and configure the site to use native mode. Assign all of the research department computers to the new site.
C. Install a new management point and configure the management point always to use HTTPS. Configure the research department computers always to use HTTPS.
D. Install a new management point and configure Windows Firewall to block abound TCP port  80. Configure the research department computes always to use HTTPS.
70-243 pdf Correct Answer: C

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Exam Code: 70-480
Exam Name: Programming in HTML5 with JavaScript and CSS3
Q&As: 205

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Question No : 12 – (Topic 1)  You are modifying an existing web page. The page is being optimized for accessibility. The current page contains the following HTML.70-480 dumps
Standards-compliant screen readers must be able to identify the links contained within the
navigation structure automatically.
You need to create the navigation link structure in the page.
With which container tags should you wrap the existing markup?
A. <navmap> </navmap>
B. <div id=”nav”> </div>
C. <nav> </nav>
D. <map> </map>
70-480 exam Answer: C
Reference:
Question No : 13 HOTSPOT – (Topic 1) You are developing an airline reservation website by using HTML5 and JavaScript. A page on the site allows users to enter departure and destination airport information and search for tickets. You have the following requirements: Users must be able to save information in the application about their favorite destination airport. The airport information must be displayed in the destination text box whenever the user returns to the page. You need to develop the site to meet the requirements. Which lines of code should you use? (To answer, select the appropriate options from the drop-down lists in the answer area.) 70-480 dumps

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Answer:
70-480 dumps

Question No : 14 HOTSPOT – (Topic 1)  You are developing an HTML5 web application for displaying encyclopedia entries. Each encyclopedia entry has an associated image that is referred to in the entry. You need to display the image by using the correct semantic markup. What should you do? (To answer, select the appropriate options from the drop-down list in the answer area.)70-480 dumps

70-480 dumps

70-480 dumps Answer:
70-480 dumps

Question No : 15 – (Topic 1) You are creating a JavaScript object that represents a customer. You need to extend the Customer object by adding the GetCommission() method.  You need to ensure that all future instances of the Customer object implement the GetCommission() method. Which code segment should you use? 70-480 dumps

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: D
15.Given the command line java Pass2 and:
15. public class Pass2 {
16. public void main(String [] args) {
17. int x = 6;
18. Pass2 p = new Pass2();
19. p.doStuff(x);
20. System.out.print(” main x = ” + x);
21. }
22.
23. void doStuff(int x) {
24. System.out.print(” doStuff x = ” + x++);
25. }
26. }
What is the result?
A. doStuff x = 6 main x = 6
B. Compilation fails.

C. doStuff x = 6 main x = 7
D. An exception is thrown at runtime.
E. doStuff x = 7 main x = 6
F. doStuff x = 7 main x = 7
Answer: D
16.Given:
13. public static void search(List<String> list) {
14. list.clear();
15. list.add(“b”);
16. list.add(“a”);
17. list.add(“c”);
18. System.out.println(Collections.binarySearch(list, “a”));
19. }
What is the result of calling search with a valid List implementation?
A. 0
B. The result is undefined.
C. a
D. 2
E. 1
F. c G. b
70-480 pdf Answer: B
17.Click the Exhibit button. Given:
ClassA a = new ClassA();
a.methodA();
What is the result?

A. The code runs with no output.
B. Compilation fails.
C. An exception is thrown at runtime.
D. ClassC is displayed.
Answer: C
18.Given:
11. public static void test(String str) {
12. int check = 4;
13. if (check = str.length()) {
14. System.out.print(str.charAt(check -= 1) +”, “);
15. } else {
16. System.out.print(str.charAt(0) + “, “);
17. }
18. }
and the invocation:
21. test(“four”);
22. test(“tee”);
23. test(“to”);
What is the result?
A. An exception is thrown at runtime.
B. r, e, o,
C. Compilation fails.
D. r, t, t,
70-480 vce Answer: C
19.A JavaBeans component has the following field:

11. private boolean enabled;
Which two pairs of method declarations follow the JavaBeans standard for accessing this field?
(Choose two.)
A. public boolean setEnabled( boolean enabled )
public boolean getEnabled()
B. public void setEnabled( boolean enabled )
public void isEnabled()
C. public void setEnabled( boolean enabled )
public boolean getEnabled()
D. public void setEnabled( boolean enabled )
public boolean isEnabled()
Answer: C,D
20.Given:
11. public void genNumbers() {
12. ArrayList numbers = new ArrayList();
13. for (int i=0; i<10; i++) {
14. int value = i * ((int) Math.random());
15. Integer intObj = new Integer(value);
16. numbers.add(intObj);
17. }
18. System.out.println(numbers);
19. }
Which line of code marks the earliest point that an object referenced by intObj becomes a candidate for garbage collection?
A. Line 19
B. The object is NOT a candidate for garbage collection.
C. Line 17
D. Line 16
E. Line 18
70-480 exam Answer: A
21.Given:
11. String test = “This is a test”;
12. String[] tokens = test.split(“\s”);
13. System.out.println(tokens.length);
What is the result?
A. An exception is thrown at runtime.
B. 1
C. 4
D. Compilation fails.
E. 0
Answer: D

22.Given:
12. System.out.format(“Pi is approximately %d.”, Math.PI);
What is the result?
A. An exception is thrown at runtime.
B. Pi is approximately 3.
C. Pi is approximately 3.141593.
D. Compilation fails.
70-480 dumps Answer: A
23.DRAG DROP
Click the Task button.

24.Given:
11. static class A {
12. void process() throws Exception { throw new Exception(); }
13. }
14. static class B extends A {
15. void process() { System.out.println(“B “); }
16. }
17. public static void main(String[] args) {
18. A a = new B();
19. a.process();
20. }
What is the result?
A. Compilation fails because of an error in line 19.
B. An exception is thrown at runtime.
C. B
D. Compilation fails because of an error in line 18.
E. Compilation fails because of an error in line 15.
F. The code runs with no output.
70-480 pdf Answer: A
25.Given:
1. interface A { public void aMethod(); }
2. interface B { public void bMethod(); }
3. interface C extends A,B { public void cMethod(); }

4. class D implements B {
5. public void bMethod(){}
6. }
7. class E extends D implements C {
8. public void aMethod(){}
9. public void bMethod(){}
10. public void cMethod(){}
11. }
What is the result?
A. If you define D e = new E(), then e.bMethod() invokes the version of bMethod() defined in Line 5.
B. If you define D e = (D)(new E()), then e.bMethod() invokes the version of bMethod() defined in Line 5.
C. Compilation fails because of an error in line 9.
D. If you define D e = (D)(new E()), then e.bMethod() invokes the version of bMethod() defined in Line 9.
E. Compilation fails because of an error in line 3.
F. Compilation fails because of an error in line 7.
Answer: D
26.Click the Exhibit button.
What is the output of the program shown in the exhibit?
A. 300-300-100-100-100
B. 300-300-300-100-100
C. 300-300-300-300-100
D. 300-100-100-100-100
70-480 vce Answer: A

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Exam Code: 70-412
Exam Name: Configuring Advanced Windows Server 2012 Services
Q&As: 424

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QUESTION 17
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the Active Directory Cer- tificate Services server role installed and is configured as an enterprise certification authority (CA). You need to ensure that all of the users in the domain are issued a certificate that can be used for the following purposes:
Email security
Client authentication
Encrypting File System (EFS)
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution.Choose two.)
A. From a Group Policy, configure the Certificate Services Client Auto-Enrollment settings.
B. From a Group Policy, configure the Certificate Services Client Certificate Enrollment Pol- icy settings.
C. Modify the properties of the User certificate template, and then publish the template.
D. Duplicate the User certificate template, and then publish the template.
E. From a Group Policy, configure the Automatic Certificate Request Settings settings.
70-412 exam 
Correct Answer: AD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The default user template supports all of the requirements EXCEPT auto enroll as shown below:

70-412 dumps

However a duplicated template from users has the ability to autoenroll:
70-412 dumps

The Automatic Certificate Request Settings GPO setting is only available to Computer, not user.
70-412 dumps

QUESTION 18
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server3 that runs 70-412 dumps Windows Server 2012 R2 and has the DHCP Server server role installed. DHCP is configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
70-412 dumps

You need to ensure that only Scope1, Scope3, and Scope5 assign the same DNS servers to DHCP
clients. The solution must minimize administrative effort.
What should you do?
A. Create a superscope and scope-level policies.
B. Configure the Scope Options.
C. Create a superscope and a filter.
D. Configure the Server Options.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Any DHCP scope options can be configured for assignment to DHCP clients, such as DNS server.
Reference: Configuring a DHCP Scope

QUESTION 19
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server
named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and has the DNS Server server role in- stalled.
Server1 has a zone named contoso.com. The zone is configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit
button.)

70-412 dumps

You need to assign a user named User1 permission to add and delete records from the contoso.- com zone only. What should you do first?
A. Enable the Advanced view from DNS Manager.
B. Add User1 to the DnsUpdateProxy group.
C. Run the New Delegation Wizard.
D. Configure the zone to be Active Directory-integrated.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Secure dynamic updates are only supported or configurable for resource records in zones that are stored in Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS).
Note: To modify security for a resource record
1. Open DNS Manager.
2. In the console tree, click the applicable zone.
3. In the details pane, click the record that you want to view.
4. On the Action menu, click Properties.
5. On the Security tab, modify the list of member users or groups that are allowed to securely up- date the
applicable record and reset their permissions as needed.
Reference: 70-412 pdf Modify Security for a Resource Record
QUESTION 20
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and has the DHCP Server server role installed. An administrator installs the IP Address Management (IPAM) Server feature on a server named Server2.The administrator configures IPAM by using Group Policy based provisioning and starts server discovery.
You plan to create Group Policies for IPAM provisioning. You need to identify which Group Policy object (GPO) name prefix must be used for IPAM Group Policies.
What should you do on Server2?
A. From Server Manager, review the IPAM overview.
B. Run the ipamgc.exe tool.
C. From Task Scheduler, review the IPAM tasks.
D. Run the Get-IpamConfiguration cmdlet.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Example:
70-412 dumps

QUESTION: 21
Scenario
Additional Information
During the initiation stage the Project Manager met with the Marketing Director to
find out more about the requirements of the promotional calendar and recorded the
following 70-412 vce notes:
There has been a reduction in the order numbers at the MNO Manufacturing due in
part to the increased marketing activities of its competitors. 10% of customers
have not re-ordered in this financial year and staff morale is poor. A number of
skilled staff have left as a result and replacement staff have not been recruited due
to the reduced operation. If the project is successful, a recruitment campaign will
be required to fill the existing staff vacancies and there may be a requirement for
additional staff. Operational costs are likely to increase because skilled staff are
expensive and difficult to find.
In financial terms, there were a total of 1,500 orders in the last financial year, each
with an average profit of £2k. The Marketing department believes that sending a
promotional calendar to our current and prospective customers would increase
orders by at least 10% with a minimum of 10 further orders from the list of
prospective customers within 12 months from the date of distribution.
The Marketing Director will be funding the project from the business marketing
budget. She believes that the effect of a good company image portrayed by a
successful calendar would last into a second year. She has forecast the same
increase in orders for a second year and predicts that the annual employee
satisfaction survey will show a measurable improvement in staff morale.
A number of alternatives were explored, including:
• 20% discount for all repeat customers – not cost-effective and very short
term
• A promotional calendar as a free Christmas gift – would target current and
prospective customers and the benefits would last into a second year
• A series of television and press advertisements• was too expensive
• A direct mail shot to all customers – benefit would be short term

• Creation of an internet website – would not suit all customers
The calendar is seen as the favored option, as long as the company’s competitors do
not increase their marketing activity. Whilst the 70-412 exam Marketing department wants a very high quality, glossy product, the project management team must be aware of the cost this will incur.
Which 2 statements should be recorded under the Costs heading?
A. The MNO marketing budget this year is £120k.
B. The project will be funded from the business marketing budget
C. 10 further orders with an average profit of £2k will deliver a benefit of £20k in
the first year.
D. The new company logo is estimated to cost £4k.
E. Project costs are estimated to be a total of £26.5k.
Answer: B, E
QUESTION: 22
Scenario
Additional Information
During the initiation stage the Project Manager met with the Marketing Director to
find out more about the requirements of the promotional calendar and recorded the
following notes:
There has been a reduction in the order numbers at the MNO Manufacturing due in
part to the increased marketing activities of its competitors. 10% of customers
have not re-ordered in this financial year and staff morale is poor. A number of
skilled staff have left as a result and replacement staff have not been recruited due
to the reduced operation. If the project is successful, a recruitment campaign will
be required to fill the existing staff vacancies and there may be a 70-412 dumps requirement for
additional staff. Operational costs are likely to increase because skilled staff are
expensive and difficult to find.
In financial terms, there were a total of 1,500 orders in the last financial year, each
with an average profit of £2k. The Marketing department believes that sending a
promotional calendar to our current and prospective customers would increase
orders by at least 10% with a minimum of 10 further orders from the list of
prospective customers within 12 months from the date of distribution.
The Marketing Director will be funding the project from the business marketing
budget. She believes that the effect of a good company image portrayed by a
successful calendar would last into a second year. She has forecast the same
increase in orders for a second year and predicts that the annual employee
satisfaction survey will show a measurable improvement in staff morale.
A number of alternatives were explored, including:
• 20% discount for all repeat customers – not cost-effective and very short
term

• A promotional calendar as a free Christmas gift – would target current and
prospective customers and the benefits would last into a second year
• A series of television and press advertisements• was too expensive
• A direct mail shot to all customers – benefit would be short term
• Creation of an internet website – would not suit all customers
The calendar is seen as the favored option, as long as the company’s competitors do
not increase their marketing activity. Whilst the Marketing department wants a
very high quality, glossy product, the project management team must be aware of
the cost this will incur. Which 2 statements correctly define a Business Case risk which should be recorded under the Major risks heading?
A. Operational costs will increase as a result of the recruitment campaign.
B. The prepared calendar pack is to be delivered to the printers by the first week in
December.
C. If the calendar quality is poor customers will not use it, creating the reverse
effect and reducing orders further.
D. If any competitors launch a calendar at the same time this will reduce the impact
of the MNO calendar and benefits will be reduced.
E. Staff morale will improve as a result of the promotional calendar.
70-412 pdf 
Answer: C, D

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Exam Code: 70-696
Exam Name: Administering System Center Configuration Manager and Intune
Updated: Sep 21, 2017
Q&As: 86

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QUESTION 5
You need to meet the inventory 70-696 exam requirements.
What should you do? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:
70-696 dumps

QUESTION 6
You need to meet the application requirements of App4.
What should you do first?
A. Create a Mobile Device Security Policy.
B. Upload App4 to Windows Intune.
C. Set the Mobile Devices Management Authority.
D. Install the Windows Intune client software.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
You need to identify on which computers the usage of App2 will be metered.
Which computers should you identify? In the 70-696 dumps table below, identify on which computers the usage of App2 will be metered. Make only one selection in each row.
Hot Area: 70-696 dumps

Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 8
You manage a deployment of Microsoft System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager.
All client computers have the Configuration Manager client installed.
Users are members of the local Administrators group on their respective computer.
You are preparing the documentation for the support staff to remediate client issues.
You need to identify which issues will be resolved by auto-remediation.
Which three issues should you identify? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. The WMI service was stopped by a user.
B. The WMI service was disabled by a user.

C. The SMS Agent Host service was removed by a user.
D. The Configuration Manager scheduled tasks were deleted by a user.
E. The Configuration Manager scheduled tasks were disabled by a user.
F. The SMS Agent Host service was stopped by a user.
Correct Answer: ABF

QUESTION NO: 9
A customer has a SAS-based storage environment with a SAS domain and some standalone
servers, each with multiple built-in SAS disks. The implementation includes direct routing, table
routing and subtractive routing. What is table routing?
A. routing along multiple parallel connections
B. routing along a physical point-to-point connection
C. routing between devices connected to an edge expander
D. routing between devices connected to different edge expanders
70-696 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 10
You have recently upgraded a tape drive on a older switch to operate at 120MB/s from 80MB/s.
Prior to purchasing the tape drives, you tested server dumps to a disk array across multiple ports
and saw speeds exceeding 150MB/s. With the new tape drive, you have not seen any dump
speed exceed 100MB/s. What is the most likely cause?
A. The new tape drive has logged into the fabric as a storage initiator.
B. The switch only has 1Gb/s ports.
C. You have not yet reset the switch port buffer credits.
D. The tape drive has logged in as an iSCSI device.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 11
You have an existing disk subsystem with 16 drives that provides volumes for six Windows hosts on 2Gb/s links. You decide to add another 16 drive tray to double the number of raw hard drives in order to support five (5) new UNIX servers. The average server throughput is 20 MB/s. The disk subsystem is dual ported and configured active-passive. What is likely to occur?
A. The zone configuration on the fabric will control the traffic flow to the disk subsystem.
B. The added server demand on the disk subsystem will saturate the ports.
C. The disk subsystem will notice the extra servers and go active-active to support the load.
D. The Windows systems will receive precedence as they were registered first on the disk subsystem.
70-696 vce Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 12
You are about to allocate storage to a host that includes adding new paths, devices, and zones to the configuration. What must be done prior to making any changes to the configuration? (Choose two.)
A. create new zones
B. activate change tracking
C. activate the new zone set
D. backup the configuration
E. copy the active zone set
Answer: D,E
QUESTION NO: 13
You are installing a x8 PCI-E HBA into a server and notice that you only have a x16 slot available.
What is the impact of this action?
A. The HBA will negotiate and use x16 lanes.
B. The slot must be reconfigured for x8 support.
C. The HBA cannot be installed into a x16 slot.
D. The slot will negotiate to support the x8 HBA.
70-696 exam Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 14
What concept can reduce the number of ports required for ISLs?
A. zoning
B. locality
C. trunking
D. routing
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 15
Which two (2) processes occur during a fabric merge? (Choose two.)
A. TOV negotiation
B. zone set passing
C. FSPF trunk negotiation
D. name server communication
E. subordinate switch negotiation
70-696 dumps Answer: B,D
QUESTION NO: 16
In a multiple switch fabric, how should the error detection (E_D_TOV) and resource allocation
(R_A_TOV) time out values be set?
A. according to the number of switches in the fabric
B. as a multiple of the number of ports on the switch
C. the same on all N_Ports and switches in the fabric
D. double the values set on the core switch
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 070-347
Exam Name: Enabling Office 365 Services
Updated: Sep 03, 2017
Q&As: 219

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Microsoft exam 70-347 dumps topics:

  • Manage clients and end-user devices (20–25%)
  • Provision SharePoint Online site collections (20–25%)
  • Configure Exchange Online and Lync Online for end users (25–30%)
  • Plan for Exchange Online and Lync Online (25–30%)

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4.HOTSPOT
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. You manage an on-premises Microsoft Exchange Server 2003 environment that has 500 users and an externally-hosted Exchange environment that has 500 users. The hosted Exchange environment does not allow Outlook Anywhere connectivity. You do not have administrative access to all mailboxes in the hosted environment. You plan to migrate and consolidate both environments into Office 365. You have the following 070-347 exam migration requirements:
– Migrate on-premises mailboxes in batches by department.
– Migrate email, calendar, and contact items from the on-premises environment.
– Migrate only email from the hosted environment.
In the table below, identify the migration type that must be used for each environment. Make only one selection in each column. Each correct selection is worth one point.
070-347 dumps

5.HOTSPOT
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company’s Microsoft Exchange Online environment. The company recently subscribed to the Office 365 Enterprise El plan. The company wants to filter email messages based on the following criteria:
– Reverse DNS lookup
– Sender open proxy test
– HELO/EHLO analysis
– Analysis of spam confidence level (SCL) ratings on email messages from a specific sender You need to filter all email messages. How should you complete the relevant Windows PowerShell script? To answer, select the appropriate command segment from each list in the answer area.

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6.Your company is planning to migrate to Microsoft Exchange Online. The company employs 5,000 people, each with a mailbox currently located on Exchange Server 2000. The company has the following migration requirements:
– Move mailboxes in batches.
– Do not migrate calendar or contact items.
– Provide migration status reports to administrators.
You need to select the appropriate migration strategy.
Which migration strategy should you use?
A. Staged migration
B. Cutover migration
C. IMAP migration
D. Hybrid migration
Answer: C
7.You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. The company has established the following new 070-347 dumps requirements:
– Members of the legal team must be able to conduct eDiscovery searches.
– Employees must be notified when they send email messages that contain confidential information.You need to configure the environment. Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Configure journaling to a Microsoft Exchange Online mailbox for all mailboxes.
B. Add the members of the legal team to the Discovery Management role group.

C. Create a Data Loss Prevention policy.
D. Place all executive mailboxes on In-Place Hold for 365 days and use In-Place eDiscovery for mailbox
searches.
E. Enable Microsoft Exchange Online Archiving for the executive mailboxes.
F. Place all executive mailboxes on Retention Hold.
Answer: B, C

8. Which WebLogic technology is defined in a cluster as an “exactly-once” service?
A. RMI
B. JMS
C. JNDI
D. EJBs
E. Servlets
Answer: B
9. You want your application to pass control to another resource. Which tag can you use to accomplish
this?
A. jsp:plugin B.
jsp:forward C.
jsp:include D.
jsp:useBean
E. jsp:fallback
070-347 pdf Answer: B
10. To manipulate XML-defined data in an application, which tool is directly supported by Workshop?
A. JAX-B
B. Castor
C. XMLBeans
D. None of these
E. DOM/SAX-based parsing
Answer: C
11. Web application contains a logout servlet. The servlet should call which method? (Assume that out is the output stream to the browser and session is the HttpSession .)
A. out.clear()
B. out.flush()

C. session.flush()
D. session.clear()
E. session.invalidate()
070-347 vce Answer: E
12. Within a portal project, where are user-properties sets stored?
A. None of these
B. In the Web project
C. In a Schema project
D. In a Datasync project
E. In the Web user interface project
Answer: D
13. You want your application to pass control to another resource and then return control to the calling JSP. Which tag can you use?
A. jsp:plugin B.
jsp:include C.
jsp:forward
D. jsp:useBean
E. jsp:fallback
070-347 exam Answer: B
14. When Workshop generates a Session Bean, it creates a template for which method?
A. ejbFind()
B. None of these
C. ejbCreate()
D. onMessage()
E. setMessageContext()
Answer: C

15. On a WebLogic system, you successfully deployed an application that uses a conversational Web
service. You ported it to another WebLogic system, on which the application fails. There appears to be a race condition. What is most likely cause of the problem?
A. The application was not re-built.
B. The application was incorrectly deployed.
C. Parts of the application were not ported to the new system.
D. Temporary and supporting files specific to the original system were ported to the new system
E. WebLogic Workshop must perform invocations on conversational Web services serially, and the
<ejb-concurrency-strategy> has not been set appropriately for the persistent store.
070-347 dumps Answer: E
16. Which statement correctly compares a Parallel node to Event Choice node?
A. More than one branch of a Parallel node can be executed; this is not true of an Event Choice node.
B. If the Parallel node specifies an OR join condition, there is no difference between the two node types.
C. If the Parallel node specifies an AND join condition, there is no difference between the two node types.
D. If the Event Choice node specifies an OR join condition, there is no difference between the two node types.
E. A Parallel Node must have exactly two branches; an Event Choice node can have an unlimited number
of branches.
Answer: A
17. Which of these is a direct result of starting a server in Production mode?
A. Multi-processor platforms are supported.
B. Users must be authenticated before deploying applications.
C. Only users in the Administration Group can access the server.
D. Applications CANNOT be deployed in exploded directory format.
E. The administration server can be part of a WebLogic Server cluster.
070-347 pdf Answer: B

18.It has come to your attention that some host on the web has tried to do some reconnaissance on your network and send a VRFY command to try and steal user names. What type of attack was used against your network?
A. SMTP attack
B. Web browser attack
C. IMAP attack
D. IP Spoofing E.
Account scan
Answer: A
19.What technology is being employed to resist SYN floods by having each side of the connection attempt create its own sequence number (This sequence number contains a synopsis of the connection so that if/when the connection attempt is finalized the fist part of the attempt can be re-created from the sequence number)?
A. SYN cookie
B. SYN floodgate
C. SYN gate
D. SYN damn
E. SYN flood break
070-347 exam Answer: A
20.The main reason you have been hired at a company is to bring the network security of the
organization up to current standards. A high priority is to have a full security audit of the network
as soon as possible. You have chosen an Independent Audit and are describing it to your coworkers.
Which of the following best describes an Independent Audit?
A. An independent audit is usually conducted by external or outside resources and may be a review or audit of detailed audit logs.
B. The independent audit is usually done by the current network administrators who ensure the security measures are up to international standards.
C. The independent audit is typically done by an internal team who ensures the security measures are up to international standards.
D. The independent audit is usually done by internal resources to examine the current daily and on-going activities within a network system for compliance with an established security policy.
E. The independent audit is typically done by a contracted outside team of security experts who check for policy compliance.
Answer: A
21.The main reason you have been hired at a company is to bring the network security of the
 organization up to current standards. A high priority is to have a full security audit of the network as soon as possible. You have chosen an Operational Audit and are describing it to your coworkers. Which of the following best describes an 070-347 dumps Operational audit?
A. This type of audit is typically done by a contracted external team of security experts who check for policy compliance.
B. This type of audit is usually done by internal resources to examine the current daily and on-going activities within a network
system for compliance with an established security policy.
C. This type of audit is typically done by an internal team who ensures the security measures are up to international standards.
D. This type of audit is usually done by the current network administrators who ensure the security measures are up to international standards.
E. This type of audit is usually conducted by external resources and may be a review or audit of detailed audit logs.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 70-488
Exam Name: Developing Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013 Core Solutions
Updated: Aug 27, 2017
Q&As: 131

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QUESTION 22
A\Batch 1
You need to automate the backup of a site 70-488 exam collection.
What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Back up to a network folder.
B. Set the LockStatus of the site collection to Adding content prevented
C. Back up to a local folder and then move the backup to a network folder.
D. Use Central Administration to perform the backup.
E. Use Windows PowerShell to perform the backup.
Correct Answer: AD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 23
You need to add code at line UA09 to create the custom role.
How should you complete the relevant code? (To answer, select the appropriate code segment
from each drop-down list in the answer area.)

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Correct Answer:

70-488 dumps

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 24
You need to add code at line CT11 to create the content types.
How should you complete the 70-488 dumps relevant code? (To answer, drag the appropriate code segments to

the correct location or locations in the answer area. Each code segment may be used once, more
than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view
content.)
Select and Place:
70-488 dumps

Correct Answer:

70-488 dumps

QUESTION 25
You need to create the required site columns.
How should you complete the relevant code? (To answer, select the appropriate code segment
from each drop-down list in the answer area.)

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Correct Answer:

70-488 dumps

Explanation
QUESTION 26
SIF resolution is
A. 144 lines.
B. 240 lines.
C. 96 lines.
D. 288 lines.
E. 480 lines.
70-488 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 27
Which ISDN service is capable of delivering 56K or 64K Constant Bit Rate circuits?
A. Circuit Switched Data
B. Low Speed Packet Switching
C. High Speed Packet Switching
D. Circuit Switched Video
E. Circuit Switched Voice
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 28
Which of the following correctly describes the purpose of an Acoustic Echo Canceller (AEC)?
A. An AEC reduces the room loudspeaker contribution to the local microphone sent to the far-end.
B. An AEC provides a means to reduce room noise sent to the far-end.
C. An AEC provides compensation for room acoustics to improve microphone sensitivity and gain.
D. An AEC provides a means to reduce room reverberation as heard by the far-end.
E. An AEC provides compensation for room acoustics to better allow the reduction of echo returned to the
far-end.
70-488 vce Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 29
How many “Groups of Blocks” are used to create the Full CIF resolution?
A. 3
B. 12
C. 48
D. 10
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 30
Which H.263 Annex is used to implement 60 / 50 Fields per Second Intra Video -Sync Operation?
A. Annex W
B. Annex F
C. Annex Q
D. Annex P
E. Annex N
70-488 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 31
Select three of the following networks types that are “Full Duplex”.
A. Ethernet Switch interfaces
B. Ethernet BUS cable interfaces
C. ISDN B-Channels
D. One Coaxial Cable
E. S/T Reference point
F. Ethernet HUB interfaces
Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 32
Which of the following most accurately 70-488 dumps defines white balance?
A. A feature that splits the signal between the red, green, and blue components to make white
B. The amount of white pixels that appear in a video frame
C. A feature that adjusts the signal between the red, green, and blue components that yield white video
signals.
D. A feature that eliminates noises distributed uniformly over the frequency spectrum
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 33
Which of the following is the channel used to carry the signaling for H.320 Terminals?
A. Initial Channel
B. Bearer Channel
C. Data Channel
D. Audio Channel
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 34
Which of the following are the Audio and Video Multiplexing, Transport, and Control / Communications
procedures for H.320?
A. H.221 / H.242
B. H.221 / H.241
C. H.224 / H.244
D. H.225 / H.245
70-488 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 35
Which ITU-T Standard describes the MCU or Video Bridge for Audio Visual Terminals?
A. H.241
B. H.231
C. H.242
D. G.711
E. 722
F. H.230
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 36
Digital Access Cross-Connect Systems are used for Networks that are
A. Packet Network Routers.

B. Ethernet Switches.
C. Dedicated Digital Channel Time Division Multiplexing Networks.
D. Switched Digital Channel Multiplexing Networks.
70-488 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 37
UDP Media Channels are identified by
A. 32 bit Source Port Number and 32 bit Destination Port Number.
B. 48 bit MCU Number and the 32 bit Gateway Number.
C. V35 Port and RS449 Port.
D. None of the other alternatives apply..
E. 16 bit Source Port Number and 16 bit Destination Port Number.
F. 32 bit Address or Signaling Port and ISDN Port Number.
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 38
The scope of H.225 Standard describes
A. video and audio coders for H.323.
B. the Coding Operation details for video and audio.
C. channel bandwidth sub-division.
D. the means by which audio, video, data, and control are associated, coded, and channelized for
transport between H.320 equipment on a channel network.
E. the means by which audio, video, data, and control are associated, coded, and packetized for transport
between H.323 equipment on a packet-based network.
70-488 exam Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 39
The T.127 and T.128 ITU-T Standards are used for which two functions?
A. Video and Audio Switching and Routing.
B. Scan Converter Application
C. Sharing Windows Applications
D. White Boarding Application
E. Multipoint File Transfer Application
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 40
What are the termination impedance and the signal level for PAL 70-488 dumps video?
A. 75 Ohms and 1Vpp
B. 50 Ohms and 2Vrms
C. 75 Ohms and 1Vrms
D. 50 Ohms and 1Vpp
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 41
Clocking Hierarchy for Channel Networks from the Public Network to the customer premise station
equipment is as follows:
A. Master Clock / Nodal Clock / Local Clock / Recovered Clock

B. Master Clock / Nodal Clock / Recovered Clock / Local Clock
C. Master Clock / Local Clock / Recovered Clock / Nodal Clock
D. Recovered Clock / Nodal Clock / Master Clock
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 42
E1 trunks are capable of supporting up to
A. 5 – 384,000 bit per second connections.
B. 7 – 384,000 bit per second connections.
C. 6 – 384,000 bit per second connections.
D. 4 – 384,000 bit per second connections.
70-488 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 43
Which of the following best describes 64,000 bits per second?
A. DS0
B. CEPT1
C. DS1
D. DS3
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 44
Gatekeeper messages for registration and admission that are successful will always have the Generic
structure as:
(Note – “XX” – is a variable value that represents specific Gatekeeper names)
A. RequestXX, DenyXXC
B. RequestXX, ReplyXX
C. XXRequest, XXConfirm
D. XXRequest, XXAcnowledged
E. XXRequest, XXReply
70-488 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 45
Which test equipment is used to verify ISDN Q.931 messages?
A. Break out Box
B. Protocol Analyzer
C. Bit Error Rate Test set
D. Distortion Analyzer
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 46
Which of the following describe video dynamics as processed through a videoconference system?
A. Codecs have more restrictive limits than cameras, and the best way to accurately assess the video
quality sent to the far-end is to view a video scene fully coded and then decoded.
B. Codecs have the same limits as cameras and therefore will not change the perceived qualities of the
video as rendered by the cameras.
C. Cameras react to light the same as ones eye and video monitors accurately render the video

information so what one sees by eye is what the far-end sees.
D. Cameras have limits to the range of light levels which can be accommodated and tend to process the
darker regions further toward black than what ones eye sees.
70-488 exam Correct Answer: AD

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Exam Code: 070-461
Exam Name: Querying Microsoft SQL Server 2012
Updated: Aug 23, 2017
Q&As: 164

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1. Q1 In economic theory, which of the following statements best describes what is available and what is
wanted? (2 marks)
A. Time and motion
B. Supply and demand
C. Research and development
D. Input and output
070-461 exam Answer: B
2. Q2 Which of the following relationships best describes a small change in demand as a result of a large
change in price? (2 marks)
A. Inelastic
B. Explicit
C. Implicit
D. Elastic
Answer: A
3. Q3 Which of the following best describes the pricing policy known as ‘promotional pricing’ ?(2 marks)
A. A high price aimed at quick recovery of costs
B. A price in line with that being charged by competitors
C. A temporary price reduction to increase sales in the short term
D. A low price set to gain a large share of the market.
070-461 dumps Answer: C
4. Q4 Which of the following is the most likely consequence of government decreasing interest rates? (2
marks)
A. People spend more
B. People spend less
C. The economy slows down
D. The cost of borrowing goes up
Answer: A
5. Q5 Which of the following best defines the economic term ‘budget surplus’?(2 marks)
A. Government expenditure equalling government revenue
B. Government revenues creating government expenditure
C. Government expenditure exceeding government revenue
D. Government revenue exceeding government expenditure
070-461 pdf Answer: D
6. Q6 Which of the following best describes the ‘4Ps’ of marketin (2 marks)
A. Promotion, Performance, Price, Place
B. Product, Price, Promotion, Place
C. Price, Placement, Product, Place
D. Performance, Product, Planning, Production
Answer: B
7. Q7 Which of the following describes people leaving one job and moving to another?(2 marks)
A. Structural unemployment
B. Frictional unemployment
C. Migrational unemployment
D. Cyclical unemployment
070-461 vce Answer: D
8. Q8 Which of the following best defines the term ‘monetary policy’? (2 marks)
A. The control of taxation
B. The control over the amount of money in circulation and the cost of borrowing
C. The control of numbers of people unemployed compared to those employed D.
The control of wealth distribution
Answer: B
9. Q9 Which of the following best defines the term ‘equilibrium price’?(2 marks)

A. The price at which the level of demand in a market exceeds the level of supply
B. The price at which all commodities are of equal value in a market
C. The price at which the level of supply in a market exceeds the level of demand
D. The price at which the level of supply in a market matches the level of demand.
070-461 exam Answer: D
10. Q10 Which of the following is a category of economic system? (2 marks)
A. Thriving economy
B. Balanced economy
C. Planned economy
D. Declining economy
Answer: C
11. Q1 Which of the following statements is correct about the relationship between supply and
demand? (2 marks)
A. When the price of a product is high, the quantity demanded will be high and the quantity supplied will
be low
B. When the price of a product is low, the quantity demanded will be low and the quantity supplied will be
high
C. When the price of a product is high, the quantity demanded will be low and suppliers will be more
willing to supply products
D. When the price of a product is low, the quantity demanded will be high and suppliers will be less willing
to supply products.
070-461 dumps Answer: C
12. Q2 Which of the following best defines the term ‘Exchange rate’?(2 marks)
A. The amount of business transacted between one country and another during a year
B. The speed with which a company receives payment for goods or services sold
C. The extent of barter transactions in a particular country
D. The value of one country??Oscurrency measured against that of another.

Answer: D
13. Q3. Which of the following types of unemployment describes people leaving one job and moving to
another? (2 marks)
A. Cyclical B.
Frictional C.
Moving
D. Structural
070-461 pdf Answer: A
14. Q4 Which of the following headings would appear in the current account of a country’s alance
of payments? (2 marks)
A. Transactions in goods and services
B. Transactions in external assets and liabilities
C. Transactions in large sums of money
D. Transactions in stocks and shares
Answer: A
15. Q5 Which of the following best describes the pricing policy known as ‘penetation’ pricing? (2 marks)
A. A price in line with that being charged by competitors
B. A high price aimed at a quick recovery of costs
C. A low price set to gain a large share of the market
D. A temporary price reduction to increase sales in the short-term
070-461 vce Answer: C
16. Q6 ‘Fiscal’ poicy is government policy controlling which of the following? (2 marks)
A. Inflation
B. Unemployment
C. Taxation
D. Wages

Answer: C
17. Q7 Which of the following best describes the economic term ‘budget deficit’? (2 marks)
A. Government revenues exceeding government expenditure
B. Government expenditure equalling government revenue C.
Government revenues creating government expenditure D.
Government expenditure exceeding government revenue
070-461 exam Answer: D
18. Q8 Which of the following promotional methods can be described as ‘below the line’?(2 marks)
A. Radio commercials
B. Sales leaflets and brochures
C. Internet banners
D. Cinema advertising
Answer: B
19. Q9 A ‘balance of payments’ is the record of which of the following during a year? (2 marks)
A. A country’s moneary import and export transactions
B. Exchange rate movements
C. All payments made by a government department
D. All revenue from taxes received by a government
070-461 dumps Answer: A
20. Q10 A PEST analysis is conducted on which of the following environments of a company? (2
marks)
A. External
B. Internal
C. Historical
D. Political
Answer: A
21. Which two are characterics of synchronous data replication? (Choose two.)
A. More cost effective
B. Increased data protection
C. Acknowledgement of data
D. Supports longer distances
070-461 pdf Answer: BC
22. What are the default read and write community strings for the McDATA Eclipse SAN Router? (Choose
two.)
A. public
B. Modify
C. private
D. password
E. Password
Answer:AC
23. What type of optics are supported on the Eclipse 2640 SAN Router?
A. ST
B. SC
C. XFP
D. SFP-LC
070-461 vce Answer: D
24. Which management interface allows you to create a single uploadable, modifiable configuration file?
A. SNMP
B. Element Manager
C. SANvergence Manager
D. Command Line Interface
Answer: D

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