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Aruba Certified Switching Professional (ACSP) V1 Exams Include:

HPE6-A45 :Implementing Aruba Campus Switching solutions
HPE6-A73 :Aruba Certified Switching Professional

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Latest HP HPE6-A73 exam exercise questions 1-13 online

QUESTION 1
An administrator is replacing the current access switches with AOS-CX switches. The access layer switches must
authenticate user and networking devices connecting to them. Some devices support no form of authentication, and
some support 802.1X. Some ports have a VoIP phone and a PC connected to the same port, where the PC is
connected to the data port of the phone and the phone\\’s LAN port is connected to the switch.
Which statement is correct about this situation?
A. 802.1X must be configured to work in fallback mode
B. Device fingerprinting is required for authentication
C. The client-limit setting for port access needs to be changed
D. Device mode should be implemented
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
A network engineer is examining NAE graphs from the Dashboard but notices that the time shown in the graph does not
represent the current time. The engineer verifies that the AOS-CX switch is configured for NTP and is successfully
synchronized. What should be done to fix this issue?
A. Ensure the engineer\\’s web browser is configured for the same timezone as the AOS-CX switch
B. Ensure the engineer\\’s PC is synchronized to the same NTP server as the AOS-CX switch
C. Ensure NetEdit and the AOS-CX switch are synchronized to the same NTP server
D. Enable trust settings for the AOS-CX switch\\’s SSL certificate
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
A network administrator is attempting to troubleshoot a connectivity issue between a group of users and a particular
server. The administrator needs to examine the packets over a period of time from their desktop; however, the
administrator is not directly connected to the AOS-CX switch involved with the traffic flow.
What is correct regarding the ERSPAN session that needs to be established on an AOS-CX switch? (Choose two.)
A. On the source AOS-CX switch, the destination specified is the switch to which the administrator\\’s desktop is
connected
B. On the source AOS-CX switch, the destination specified is the administrator\\’s desktop
C. The encapsulation protocol used is GRE
D. The encapsulation protocol used is VXLAN
E. The encapsulation protocol is UDP
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 4
An administrator is concerned about the security of the control plane connection between an AOS-CX switch and an
Aruba Mobility Controller (MC) when implementing user-based tunneling. How should the administrator protect this
traffic?
A. IPSec with a digital certificate
B. GRE with a pre-shared key
C. PAPI with an MD5 pre-shared key
D. IPSec with a pre-shared key
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 5
A company has just purchased AOS-CX switches. The company has a free and open-source AAA solution. The
the company wants to implement access control on the Ethernet ports of the AOS-CX switches.
Which security features can the company implement given the equipment that they are using?
A. Port-based tunneling
B. Device fingerprinting
C. Local user roles
D. Downloadable user roles
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
How should a network administrator add NAE scripts and implement NAE agents that will run on an AOSCX switch?
A. Use the web interface of the NetEdit server
B. Use the web interface of the AOS-CX switch
C. Use the web interface of Aruba Central
D. Use the CLI of the AOS-CX switch
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
An administrator wants to leverage always-on PoE on AOS-CX switches. Which statement is correct regarding this
feature?
A. Provides up to 60W of power per port
B. Supports all AOS-CX switches
C. Provides surge protection for PoE and non-PoE ports
D. Requires NetEdit to implement
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Examine the configuration performed on newly deployed AOS-CX switches:

HPE6-A73 exam questions-q8

After performing this configuration, the administrator notices that the switch ports always remain in the EAP-start state.
What should the administrator do to fix this problem?
A. Define the server group cppm
B. Set the ports to client-mode
C. Create and assign a local user role to the ports
D. Enable change of authorization (CoA)
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
A network administrator needs to replace an antiquated access layer solution with a modular solution involving AOS-CX
switches. The administrator wants to leverage virtual switching technologies. The solution needs to support highavailability with dual-control planes.
Which solution should the administrator implement?
A. AOS-CX 8325
B. AOS-CX 6300
C. AOS-CX 6400
D. AOS-CX 8400
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
An AOS-CX switch is configured to implement downloadable user roles. Examine the AOS-CX switch output: Based on
this output, what is the state of the user\\’s access?

HPE6-A73 exam questions-q10

A. No downloadable user role exists
B. MAC authentication has passed, but 802.1X authentication is in progress
C. The RADIUS request timed out to the AAA server
D. The port should be configured for 802.1X
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Examine the attached diagram.

HPE6-A73 exam questions-q11

The two PCs are located in VLAN 11 (10.1.11.0/24). Which example defines how to implement active gateway on the
VSX core for VLAN 11?
A. interface vlan 11 active-gateway ip 10.1.11.1 active-gateway mac 02:02:00:00:01:00
B. interface lag 254 active-gateway vlan 11 ip 10.1.11.1 active-gateway vlan 11 mac 02:02:00:00:01:00
C. interface lag 254 active-gateway ip 10.1.11.1 active-gateway mac 02:02:00:00:01:00
D. vsx vrrp group 1
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
An administrator is implementing a multicast solution in a multi-VLAN network. Which statement is true about the
configuration of the switches in the network?
A. IGMP snooping must be enabled on all interfaces on a switch to intelligently forward traffic
B. IGMP requires join and leave messages to graft and prune multicast streams between switches
C. IGMP must be enabled on all routed interfaces where multicast traffic will traverse
D. IGMP must be enabled on all interfaces where multicast sources and receivers are connected
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
A network engineer is having a problem adding a custom-written script to an AOS-CX switch\\’s NAE GUI. The script
was written in Python and was successfully added on other AOS-CX switches. The engineer examines the following
items from the CLI of the switch:

HPE6-A73 exam questions-q13

What should the engineer perform to fix this issue?
A. Install the script\\’s signature before installing the new script
B. Ensure the engineer\\’s desktop and the AOS-CX switch are synchronized to the same NTP server
C. Enable trust settings for the AOS-CX switch\\’s SSL certificate
D. Remove a script that is no longer used before installing the new script
Correct Answer: D

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[2021.6] Free Test | Latest HP HPE6-A72 Exam Practice Questions

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QUESTION 1
Which two options are correct regarding the IEEE 802.11ax standard? (Choose two.)
A. allows transmissions of up to 4.8Gbps
B. is an emerging satellite connection standard to allow wireless access anywhere in the world
C. operates only in the 5GHz similar to 802.11ac
D. operates in both the 2.4GHz and 5GHz radios bands
E. is the first WLAN standard to no longer use electromagnetic signals to transmit data
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.

HPE6-A72 exam questions-q2

Traffic is failing between Core-1 and Host-B. IP addressing has correctly been applied, and all interfaces are attached to
the vrf GREEN.
Which configuration will correct the issue?
A. Core-2(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0/0 10.1.1.1 vrf GREEN Host-B: assign the default-gateway address 10.1.20.181
B. Core-1(config)# ip route 10.1.20.0/24 10.1.1.2 vrf GREEN Host-B: assign the default-gateway address 10.1.20.181
C. Core-1(config)# ip route 10.1.20.0/24 10.1.1.2 vrf GREEN Host-B: assign the default-gateway address 10.1.20.1
D. Host-B: assign the default-gateway address 10.1.20.181
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
HOTSPOT
Click on the colored box that corresponds with the line that best represents Broadcast traffic flow.
Hot Area:

HPE6-A72 exam questions-q3

QUESTION 4
Which two commands will save the running-config so that changes will be loaded automatically on the next reboot?
(Choose two.)
A. write memory
B. save
C. copy config config1 config startup-config
D. copy running-config startup-config
E. copy running-config checkpoint boot-config
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 5
What are two methods for remotely managing an Aruba AOS-CX switch? (Choose two.)
A. SNMPv2c
B. HTTPS
C. USB-C console
D. Telnet
E. SSH
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit

HPE6-A72 exam questions-q6

What is true regarding VLAN 50 according to the diagram above?
A. VLAN 50 is part of a switched virtual interface (SVI) that was never routed causing it to be down.
B. Since VLAN 50 has not been assigned to any enabled physical port, the status is down.
C. VLAN 50 is assigned only to Trunk ports which is why no ports are listed under interfaces.
D. VLAN 50 was never added to the vlan-database and therefore is in a down state.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which statement is correct regarding powering an Aruba Access Point?
A. PoE or PoE+ is only used with Ethernet that is carried over multi-mode fiber cabling.
B. Using switchports for this reason is unnecessary, because Aruba Access Points typically use an AC to DC power
adapter to draw power.
C. PoE or PoE+ enabled switchports are rarely used given concerns about causing electrical interference, with the data
also carried over Ethernet cabling.
D. Most administrators use PoE or PoE+ enabled switchports to provide both Ethernet connectivity and power to the
AP.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which two types of routes can be found in the IP routing table of an Aruba AOS-CX switch? (Choose two.)
A. Local
B. EIGRP
C. BGP
D. ISIS
E. RIPng
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit

HPE6-A72 exam questions-q9

The above output is the result of issuing the command show system resource utilization.
What command should be used to enable terminal output line by line or page by page?
A. The command page
B. The command terminal length 30
C. The command more
D. The command less
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
What is the binary conversion of the hexadecimal value 0x2001?
A. 0010 0001
B. 0002 0000 0000 0001
C. 0011 0000 0000 0001
D. 0010 0000 0000 0001
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
What connectivity commands are available on AOS-CX switches? (Choose two.)
A. netstatus
B. traceroute
C. ping
D. pathping
E. tracert
Correct Answer: BC

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QUESTION 1
Which IBM Cloud offering brings IBM zLinux capabilities into the cloud?
A. VMware vCenter Server
B. Bare Metal Server
C. Hyper Protect Virtual Server
D. Power Systems Virtual Server
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.ibm.com/blogs/systems/the-best-of-ibm-z-and-linuxone-in-the-public-and-privatecloud/


QUESTION 2
What is a key feature of Virtual Private Cloud?
A. It is deployed on-premises for increased security
B. Applications are automatically deployed across three zones
C. To run an isolated environment within the public cloud
D. Network traffic between VSIs on the private network is charged for
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://cloud.ibm.com/docs/vpc-on-classic?topic=vpc-on-classic-about


QUESTION 3
What is one reason to choose a Single Cloud Environment over a Multicloud Environment?
A. The shared security responsibilities between the Cloud provider and the Cloud consumer is easier to define in a
Single Cloud Environment
B. Vendor lock-in policies are negotiable
C. A Single Cloud Environment is always more cost effective in comparison to Multicloud
D. The risk of vendor lock in is reduced with a Single Cloud Environment
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.stratoscale.com/blog/it-leadership/cloud-clouds-choose-single-multi-cloudapproach/

QUESTION 4
Which statement describes the IBM Cloud Pak for Multicloud Management?
A. It helps deploy on your choice of clouds, with low-code tools for business users and real-time performance visibility
for business managers. Customers can migrate their runtimes without application changes or data migration, and
automate at scale without vendor lock-in.
B. It helps to provide consistent visibility, automation, and governance across a range of hybrid and multi cloud
capabilities such as event management, infrastructure management, application management, multi-cluster
management, edge management and integration with existing tools and processes.
C. It helps to unify and simplify the collection, organization and analysis of information. Enterprises can turn data into
insights through an integrated cloud-native architecture. It is extensible, easily customized to unique client information
and AI landscapes through an integrated catalog of IBM, open source and third-party microservices add-ons.
D. It helps support the speed, flexibility, security and scale required for all of your digital integration transformation
initiatives, and comes pre-integrated with a set of capabilities including API lifecycle, application and data integration,
messaging and events, high speed transfer and security.
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.ibm.com/cloud/garage/dte/tutorial/multi-cluster-management/


QUESTION 5
Which VPC component would have a Front End Listener and Back End Pool?
A. A Floating IP
B. An Access Control List
C. A Public Gateway
D. A Load Balancer
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://cloud.ibm.com/docs/vpc?topic=vpc-load-balancers

QUESTION 6
What can be a subject of the IBM Cloud Identity and Access Management policy?
A. Resource Group
B. Service
C. Service Roles
D. Service ID
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://cloud.ibm.com/docs/account?topic=account-iamoverview


QUESTION 7
Which IBM Garage Method for Cloud practice leverages Enterprise Design Thinking?
A. Envision
B. Culture
C. Learn
D. Reason
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.ibm.com/garage/method/


QUESTION 8
An organization is building a cloud native application and wants to use the highest level of cryptographic security
available. Which IBM Cloud service can the organization use for key management?
A. Cloud HSM
B. Hyper Protect Certificate Manager
C. Key Protect
D. Hyper Protect Crypto Services
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.ibm.com/cloud/architecture/architectures/securityArchitecture/security-for-data/

QUESTION 9
When using OpenShift, what is a pre-requisite for converting a single zone cluster into a multi-zone cluster?
A. The cluster must be set up in one of the supported multi-zone locations
B. The cluster must be running on either Virtual Shared or Virtual Dedicated server nodes
C. The cluster configuration must be backed up into an Object Storage bucket in the same zone
D. The cluster must not have any pods active when converted
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://cloud.ibm.com/docs/openshift?topic=openshift-ha_clusters

QUESTION 10
What are the four storage class tiers offered by IBM Cloud Object Storage?
A. Dynamic, Encrypted, Fixed, Hard Coded
B. Dynamic, Vault, Fixed, Configured
C. Standard, Encrypted, Dynamic, Configured
D. Standard, Vault, Cold Vault, Flex
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.ibm.com/in-en/cloud/object-storage/storage-class-tiers-archive


QUESTION 11
Which service provides control of the least resources on the cloud?
A. PaaS
B. SaaS
C. BMaaS
D. VMs
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 12
Which statement is true about a Hybrid Cloud?
A. It is a deployment model that requires the largest capital expense to deploy and to scale
B. It is a platform for applications and infrastructure that is built on two or more components from public cloud, private
cloud and on-premises IT
C. It is a platform for applications and infrastructure for system-z that is built on two or more components from only
public and private cloud
D. It is a collection of cloud resources made up of IaaS and PaaS from a single provider\\’s public cloud
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
What open-source system monitoring and alerting toolkit can be used in IBM Cloud Foundry Enterprise Environment?
A. Kubernetes
B. Sysdig
C. Prometheus
D. Nagios
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://cloud.ibm.com/docs/cloud-foundry?topic=cloud-foundry-monitoring

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QUESTION 1
During a meeting, you learn that your client has an SLA with another business, but that business asks tor
lower RTO and RPO times for data recovery.
Is this a correct statement regarding how HPE solutions can help to comply with this tighter SLA? Solution:
HPE OneView uses templates for its managed server and storage objects, which allows the attachment of
baselines to verify compliancy with pre-defined rules reflecting your SLA objectives.
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 2
Your customer wants to replace an aging tape library with a new data protection solution that Improves their RTO/RPSs.
Their existing platform consists of HPE ProLiant DL380 Gen10 and 8Gb FC connected Nimble Arrays. You recommend
an HPE StoreOnce appliance and Veeam software is this a true statement? Solution: The new HPE storeOnce
appliances can be Direct-Attached lo one or the HPE ProLiant servers
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 3
You need to meet with a customer about replacing their aging EMC Data Domain-based platform with a new solution is
this a tool that you could use to effectively assess current backup deployment? Is this a tool that you could use to
effectively assess current backup deployment? Solution:NinjaStars
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
A customer wants to replace an aging tape-based backup platform using a Grandfather-Father-Son (GFS) rotation
scheme. They are considering replacing the entire solution with public cloud storage as a backup target is this a valid
recommendation for this customer? Solution: Cloud storage is ideal for the Grandfather copies of backup data for longterm data retention Keep an on-premises solution for the \\’Son\\’ copies to guarantee lower RTO and RPO numbers.
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 5
A customer contacts you tor assistance with performance troubleshooting of Ihelr backup environment
because over the last few days they notice Increasing times tor backup completion They see no apparent
reason for this, since the data volume to be backed up did not change unusually compared to the previous
days and weeks.
You also notice that the deduplication ratio, historically steady at about 20:1. is now gradually declining.
Is this a potential cause or the problem?
Solution:There might be a network bottleneck, which could increase backup times Verify the network
traffic.
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 6
You are showing your customer now veeam integrates with HPE storage products, such as HPE Nimble and HPE
3PAR. You show how Veeam can restore in a fast and efficient way from HPE storage snapshots Is this a correct
statement? Solution:The HPE Nimble Storage Replication Adapter (SRA) for VMware must be installed on the host
running VMware
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Is this a reason why your customer might choose the HPE Apollo 4510 systems instead of the HPE Apollo
42O0 system?
Solution: The Apollo 4510 system has a higher density chassis, and so can host more drives with more
backup capacity.
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 8
Does this option describe a valid scenario for using the 3-2-1 data protection rule or the 3-2-1-1-0 data protection rule?
Solution:You Intend to use at least 3 different types of on-premises storage
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 9
A customer wants to discuss their current backup environment While walking to the meeting room, you
pass what me customer tells you is their only computer room You notice they have a mix of Proliant DL
servers, three Synergy frames. Nimble, and a MSL3040 In the racks.
Is this a tool you can use to gather information on the current backup data to size a new solution?
Solution:NinjaProlected+
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Does this topology/implementation comply with the 3-2-1 rule of data protection? Solution:An HPE MSA array creating
local snapshots on the same array Backups are made with Veeam to a local HPE StoreOnce system using MAS shares
Within Veeam a copy fob is active to a Veeam Cloud Connect repository target hosted at a public cloud provider
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 11
Your customer wants compliance with 3-2-1 data protection best practices. You tell the customer about the HPE
StoreOnce repttcatton options to copy backup data to multiple locations is this a valid statement regarding HPE
StoreOnce data mobility? Solution: Replication is only supported when both HPE StoreOnce systems are registered
with HPE infoSight
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 12
You are organizing a Proof-of-Concept (PCX:) for your customer for Ihetr new data protection solution based on
Commvault technology in combination with HPE Nimble Storage and HPE StoreOnce backup targets. The customer
asks you to demonstrate the configuration options for deduplication within the Commvault solution Is this a location
where you can modify the duplication parameters? Solution: Access the Advanced Client Properties screen under
Client Computers.
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 13
You are running a Proof-of-Concept for a customer\\’s new data protection solution based on Veeam and HPE
StoreOnce. You want to demonstrate the source-side deduplication features of the solution, to reduce the volume of
data being sent across the network, is this a parameter that should be set? Solution:\\’\\’Source Side deduplication\\’\\’ in
the Global Deduplication section of the HPE StoreOnce system
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
A customer requires 12 Gb local storage for their VMware boot volumes, which require high- performance read cycles to
enable the operating system to boot quickly. Which drive type provides the most appropriate size and most costeffective way to meet this requirement?
A. Mixed-use SSD
B. Flash media drive
C. SATA nearline
D. SAS midline
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 2
You need to update the firmware on an MSL2024 to version 26.43.51. Which HPE utility do you need to use?
A. OneView Standard
B. Smart Storage Administrator
C. Central Management Console
D. Library and Tape Tools
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 3
DRAG DROP
Match the speed and protocol with the appropriate component.
Select and Place:

hpe0-v14 exam questions-q3

Correct Answer:

hpe0-v14 exam questions-q3-2

Reference: https://buy.hpe.com/us/en/options/transceivers/server-transceivers/hpe-sfp-transceivers/p/7263510 https://itg.buy.hpe.com/emea_europe/en/options/transceivers/server-transceivers/server-transceivers/hpeqsfp28-transceivers/p/1008789459


QUESTION 4
DRAG DROP
A customer is expanding from local storage to a SAN environment for the firt time. They plan to future proof their
environment with a 16 Gb Fibre Channel. They also want to allow for future I/O expansion with new servers. Identify the
correct server and storage to meet the customer requirements.
Select and Place:

hpe0-v14 exam questions-q4

Correct Answer:

hpe0-v14 exam questions-q4-2

 

QUESTION 5
A customer needs to increase the availability and bandwidth of network connectivity to their servers. Which switch
feature meets the customer\\’s needs?
A. Remote direct memory access over Converged Ethernet (RoCE)
B. Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN)
C. Jumbo frames
D. Link Aggregation and Control Protocol (LACP)
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 6
You have configured a port on an HPE FlexFabric 5900 series switch that is connected to a VMware ESXi server to
support multiple VLANs.

hpe0-v14 exam questions-q6

Given the configuration above, what should happen to any of the untagged traffic coming from the VMware ESXi host?
A. The untagged traffic with be dropped.
B. The untagged traffic will be transmitted in vlan 2.
C. The untagged traffic will be transmitted in vlan 50.
D. The untagged traffic will be transmit.ted in vlan 1.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 7
A customer purchased a Nimble HF20 a year ago They are experiencing an issue with a few of their VMware servers in
the RTP Nimble date center and asked that you make a recommendation based on the data in infoSight.

hpe0-v14 exam questions-q7

What should you recommend\\’?
A. Add cache to the array for the RTP Nimble Datacenter.
B. increase the cache size for VMware-DS-Space-NoDeDup
C. increase the datastore size for VMware-DS-Space-NoDeDup.
D. Add another datastore for the RTP Nimble Datacenter
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
DRAG DROP
Match each workload profile description with the corresponding profile. (Select all that apply.)
hpe0-v14 exam questions-q8

 

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.

hpe0-v14 exam questions-q9

An administrator connected a hypervisor to interface Ten-GigabitEthernet1/0/1 in a switch. The administrator created
virtual machines in VLAN 10 and 20 on the hypervisor. VLAN 10 is configured to be tagged, and VLAN 20 is configured
to be untagged on the hypervisor. The administrator found that all the virtual machines in VLAN 20 can communicate
with each other, but not with any virtual machines on VLAN 20 external to the hypervisor. Given the output in the exhibit,
customer needs a new environment to support an ERP system. The sizing information you received shows the
following
A. Permit VLAN 1 on the interface.
B. Configure the PVID of the interface to be VLAN 20.
C. Configure the interface as an access port.
D. Configure the interface as an IRF port.check
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 10
You are installing a combined server and storage solution at a customer location. What must you keep in mind
regarding the typical requirements for the location? (Choose two.)
A. Room temperature must not exceed 35 C (95 F)
B. Rack tie kit should be installed on the rack for proper airflow
C. UPSs should be installed at the top of the rack for top mounted power feed
D. There must be at least a 10 cm (4 in) clearance space at the front and back of the components within the racks
E. Rack doors must be unlocked for easy component removal and maintenance
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 11
A customer has an ESXi server in a branch office They need to perform backups locally. The local backups must be
replicated to the main data center with built-in deduplication What should the customer install at the branch office?
A. StoreOnce 3100
B. StoreOnce VSA
C. MSA 2042
D. Storevirtual VSA
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 12
A customer environment is being managed and monitored with HPE OneView. A review of the OneView log shows that
there have been several trap storm events. Which series of events must take place for OneView to insert a Trap Storm
event entry into the log of system events?
A. SNMP traps from three or more identical hosts have been logged within the past 256 seconds.
B. Four or more identical SNMP traps have been logged within the past 30 seconds.
C. Three or more SNMP trap messages have been logged with increasingly critical variable string values.
D. Four or more ports on the same network switch have reported sequential SNMP trap mesages
Correct Answer: B
https://community.hpe.com/t5/hpe-oneview/snmp-trap-storm-handling/td-p/6763380#.XvfE_ChKiM8


QUESTION 13
A customer needs to provide inventory management, health monitoring, status alerting, and reporting for their ProLiant
servers. Which HPE management offering meets the customer\\’s needs?
A. OneView
B. Insight Remote Support
C. InfoSight
D. Insight Online
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
What is the main function of a Cisco Adaptive Security Appliance (ASA)?
A. A Proxy
B. A Switch
C. A Firewall
D. An Authentication device
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 2
Events and Flows both have multiple different timestamps available to them. Which timestamp is available to both
events and flows?
A. End Time
B. Storage Time
C. First Activity Time
D. Last Activity Time
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://developer.ibm.com/answers/questions/292620/why-do-i-see-different-time-stamps-for-qradar-even/


QUESTION 3
Which three things can be found under the Information menu when right-clicking an IP address? (Choose three.)
A. Asset Profile
B. DNS Lookup
C. Hide Offense
D. WHOIS Lookup
E. Annotation View
F. Username Lookup
Correct Answer: ABD
Reference: https://www.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/en/SS42VS_7.2.6/com.ibm.qradar.doc/c_qradar_ug_asset_rightclick.html

QUESTION 4
An event is happening regularly and frequently; each event indicates the same target username. There is a rule
configured to test for this event which has a rule action to create an offense indexed on the username. What will QRadar
do with the triggered rule assuming no offenses exist for the username and no offenses are closed during this time?
A. Each matching event will be tagged with the Rule name, but only one Offense will be created.
B. Each matching event will cause a new Offense to be created and will be tagged with the Rule name.
C. Events will be tagged with the rule name as long as the Rule Response limiter is satisfied. Only one offense will be
created.
D. Each matching event will be tagged with the Rule name, and an Offense will be created if the event magnitude is
greater than 6.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 5
While on the Offense Summary page, a specific Category of Events associated with the Offense can be investigated.
Where should a Security Analyst click to view them?
A. Click on Events, then filter on Flows
B. Highlight the Category and click the Events icon
C. Scroll down to Categories and view Top 10 Source IPs
D. Right Click on Categories and choose Filter on Network Activity
Correct Answer: B
Reference:
IBM Security QRadar SIEM Users Guide. Page: 42

QUESTION 6
What is the key difference between Rules and Building Blocks in QRadar?
A. Rules have Actions and Responses; Building Blocks do not.
B. The Response Limiter is available on Building Blocks but not on Rules.
C. Building Blocks are built-in to the product; Rules are customized for each deployment.
D. Building Blocks are Rules which are evaluated on both Flows and Events; Rules are evaluated on Offenses of Flows
or Events.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which QRadar component provides Layer 7 visibility within a physical network infrastructure?
A. QRadar Data Node
B. QRadar Flow Analyzer
C. QRadar Flow Collector
D. QRadar VFlow Collector
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.robertrojek.pl/2017/11/09/qradar-appliances-types/


QUESTION 8
What is accessible from the Offenses Tab but is not used to present a sorted list of offenses?
A. Rules
B. Category
C. Source IP
D. Destination IP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which set of information is provided on the asset profile page on the assets tab in addition to ID?
A. Asset Name, MAC Address, Magnitude, Last user
B. IP Address, Asset Name, Vulnerabilities, Services
C. IP Address, Operating System, MAC Address, Services
D. Vulnerabilities, Operative System, Asset Name, Magnitude
Correct Answer: C
Reference:
https://www.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/SS42VS_7.2.1/com.ibm.qradar.doc_7.2.1/c_qradar_ug_asset_sum.html

QUESTION 10
What is the effect of toggling the Global/Local option to Global in a Custom Rule?
A. It allows a rule to compare events and flows in real-time.
B. It allows a rule to analyze the geographic location of the event source.
C. It allows rules to be tracked by the central processor for detection by any Event Processor.
D. It allows a rule to inject new events back into the pipeline to affect and update other incoming events.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Which file type is available for a report format?
A. TXT
B. DOC
C. PDF
D. PowerPoint
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Given the following window:

C2150-612 exam questions-q10

What are the steps to get this window within an offense?
A. Right click on the IP > Information > DNS Lookup
B. Right click on the IP > Information > Reverse DNS
C. Right click on the IP > Information > WHOIS Lookup
D. Right click on the IP > Information > Asset Profile
Correct Answer: A
Reference: http://www-01.ibm.com/support/docview.wss?uid=swg21690480

QUESTION 13
What is the difference between TCP and UDP?
A. They use different port number ranges
B. UDP is connectionless, whereas TCP is connection based
C. TCP is connectionless, whereas UDP is connection based
D. TCP runs on the application layer and UDP uses the Transport layer
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
In order to use Cognos TM1 Connector, which statement is TRUE?
A. Installing the Cognos TM1 API component alone is sufficient.
B. Import the IBM Cognos TM1 certificate and create a property file that stores truststore password
C. Install the Cognos TM1 API component and create a property file that stores truststore password
D. Install the Cognos TM1 API component and import the IBM Cognos TM1 certificate and create a property file that
stores truststore password
Correct Answer: D
Reference:
https://www-01.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/SSZJPZ_11.3.0/com.ibm.swg.im.iis.conn.tm1.usage.doc/topics/tm1_installing_configuring.html


QUESTION 2
Which of the following is the correct schema format for a Time column?
A. record (tField:time[hour:minute:second];)
B. record (tField:nullable time[];)
C. record (tField:time[seconds];)
D. record (tField:time[microseconds];)
Correct Answer: C
Reference:
https://www-01.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/SSZJPZ_11.3.0/com.ibm.swg.im.iis.ds.parjob.dev.doc/topics/r_deeref_Time_Columns.html

QUESTION 3
The APT_SubProcessOperator is used for what purpose?
A. It allows you to incorporate a third-party executable into the framework
B. It provides the capability to break predefined operators into sub-processes
C. It provides the capability to define custom operators at the subprocess level
D. It allows you to incorporate composite operators, which contain more than one operator
Correct Answer: A
Reference:
https://www-01.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/SSZJPZ_11.3.0/com.ibm.swg.im.iis.ds.pxop.dev.doc/topics/creatingopers.html

QUESTION 4
You are experiencing performance issues for a given job. You are assigned the task of understanding what is
happening at run time for that job. What steps should you take to understand the job performance issues? (Choose
two.)
A. Use the resource estimation tool
B. Use the performance analysis tool
C. Replace Join stages by Lookup stages
D. Run the job with $APT_TRACE_RUN set to true
E. Run the job with $APT_DUMP_SCORE set to true
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 5
Which statement about restartable sequence jobs is TRUE?
A. If a restartable sequence aborts, it can be restarted from Director.
B. Choosing “Reset job” from Director will start the job where it left off.
C. Checkpoints are always added to every eligible Job Activity stage in the sequence.
D. There is no way to force a Job Activity stage to return if the sequence got beyond it.
Correct Answer: A
Reference: http://www-01.ibm.com/support/docview.wss?uid=swg1JR46534


QUESTION 6
In order to collect operational metadata, you must do which of the following?
A. Enable “Generate operational metadata” in the Execution tab of the job properties using the Designer client
B. Enable “Generate operational metadata” in the General tab of the project properties using the Director client
C. Enable “Record job performance data” in the General tab of the project properties using the Administrator client
D. Enable “Generate operational metadata” in the General tab of the Job Run Options dialog box in the Director client
Correct Answer: C
Reference:
https://www-01.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/SSZJPZ_11.3.0/com.ibm.swg.im.iis.ds.admin.doc/topics/t_daclref_Capturing_Process_Meta_Data.html

QUESTION 7
For very large records, you may need to set the following environment variable with an appropriate value in order to
allow the job to run successfully:
A. $APT_MONITOR_SIZE
B. $APT_RECORD_COUNTS
C. $APT_DISABLE_COMBINATION
D. $APT_DEFAULT_TRANSPORT_BLOCK_SIZE
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 8
To run multiple copies of the same job within Director, which of the following must be supplied?
A. Job name
B. Invocation ID
C. Parameter values
D. Username and password
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 9
Which restructure stage has a single reject link?
A. Split Vector
B. Column Import
C. Make Subrecord
D. Combine Records
Correct Answer: D
Reference:
http://www-01.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/SSZJPZ_8.5.0/com.ibm.swg.im.iis.ds.parjob.dev.doc/topics/c_deeref_Column_Import_Stage.html

QUESTION 10
By default, how much internal memory does the Sort use per partition?
A. 10MB
B. 20MB
C. 25MB
D. 30MB
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://datastage4u.wordpress.com/2011/04/26/sorting-in-datastage/


QUESTION 11
Which statement about the ISD input stage is NOT TRUE?
A. A job must have zero or one ISD input stages
B. A job with an ISD input stage must have an ISD output stage
C. Buffer size and timeout values can be supplied as job parameters
D. Text over JMS binding is only available if you are using Network Deployment
Correct Answer: D
Reference:
https://www-01.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/SSZJPZ_11.3.0/com.ibm.swg.im.iis.infoservdir.user.doc/topics/t_isd_user_configuring_wisd_input_stage.html

QUESTION 12
Which of the following is NOT a valid use of stage variables?
A. Storing values to be used in both derivations and constraints
B. Storing values that can be referenced by name in downstream stages
C. Storing values from one row to compare with values in the next row read
D. Storing the result on an expression to be used in multiple output columns
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 13
In the Masking Policy Editor in the Data Masking stage of your job, you have specified for a column containing credit
card numbers the Random Replacement masking policy. For the Copy option you have specified “(1,2)(3,4)”. What
changes will be made to a credit card number, such as 6327664369, to mask it?
A. Digits 1 through 2 and digits 3 through 4 will be randomly changed. The rest of the digits will remain the same.
B. Digits 1 through 2 and digits 3 through 4 will remain the same. The rest of the digits will be randomly changed.
C. The 2 digits starting at digit 1 and the 4 digits starting at digit 3 will remain the same. The rest of the digits will be
randomly changed.
D. The 2 digits starting at digit 1 and the 4 digits starting at digit 3 will be randomly changed. The rest of the digits will
remain the same.
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
A guest user connects to an Open Guest SSID on a wireless network and is redirected to a web login page on
ClearPass.
How is the authentication performed?
A. The controller will capture the credentials as they are passed to ClearPass by the Web Login page.
B. ClearPass instructs the wireless controller to fetch the credentials from the Web Login Page.
C. The User submits the credentials, and ClearPass instructs the browser to post the credentials to the wireless
controller.
D. When the user submits the credentials, ClearPass will capture the credentials and post them to the wireless
controller.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 2
What must be configured when a network administrator wants to configure RADIUS authentication with a network
access device (NAD)? (Choose two.)
A. The NAD and ClearPass must be configured for NTP time synchronization.
B. The NAD must be configured for RADIUS accouning.
C. The ClearPass EAP/RADIUS server certificate must be installed on the NAD.
D. ClearPass and the NAD must have the same shared secret.
E. The NAD must be configured as a known network device in ClearPass.
Correct Answer: CD
Reference: https://community.arubanetworks.com/t5/Security/ArubaOS-Admin-Authentication-with-Microsoft-NPS/tdp/433832


QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.

hpe6-a67 exam questions-q3

Based on the self-registration customization, which statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. The client\\’s browser will submit the credentials in plain text to the controllers.
B. The user will automatically be logged in when they submit the self-registration form.
C. The HTTPS certificate on ClearPass has been changed to a wildcard certificate.
D. The client\\’s browser will submit the credentials encrypted but over HTTP.
E. The user will have to press the login button to submit the credentials to the controller.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 4
What is the function of the primary and backup servers when configuring an authentication source in ClearPass?
A. The primary server and backup servers can be configured for round-robin.
B. The primary server can be from one Active Directory domain; the backup server can be from another.
C. The primary server is always authenticated first, then the backup is used if authentication fails.
D. The primary server is always authenticated first, then the backup is used if that times out.
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://community.arubanetworks.com/t5/Security/CPPM-amp-AD-Questions-Re-Auth/td-p/74888

QUESTION 5
In Guest authentication without MAC caching, which statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. When the client disconnects from the network, the user will NOT be asked to login when the client reconnects.
B. The endpoint can be mapped to the correct Guest account for auditing.
C. When the guest logs in, the system will remember the client as a guest for the next login.
D. When the client disconnects from the network, the user will be asked to login when the client reconnects.
E. When the User logs into the Guest network, the endpoint will be marked as status = “known”
Correct Answer: CE


QUESTION 6
What are two ways that devices can download the Onboard provisioning profile and credentials from ClearPass?
(Choose two.)
A. from the Android market
B. Over-the-Air API
C. download from iTunes
D. Bonjour
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 7
When a NAD sends an authentication request to ClearPass for a Guest Web Login with Username and Password,
which methods can it use? 
A. CHAP –RADIUS Request
B. EAP PEAP
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
ClearPass Onboard can be configured for which three types of security? (Choose three.)
A. SSL-VPN
B. EAP-RADIUS
C. EAP-TLS
D. EAP-PEAP
E. Personal PSK
Correct Answer: BCD
Reference: https://community.arubanetworks.com/t5/Wireless-Access/One-SSID-for-multiple-authentication-types/tdp/251344

QUESTION 9
Which enforcement actions are used in ClearPass to bounce a client? (Choose two.)
A. Filter-ID Based
B. Agent Enforcement
C. VLAN Enforcement
D. RADIUS CoA
E. Session Notification
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 10
Which items would ClearPass be useful for? (Choose three.)
A. Unified wired and wireless access control
B. Access control on transient networks
C. Administrative access control
D. User device management
E. Firewall configuration management
Correct Answer: ACD
Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/v2/GetPDF.aspx/4AA6-2768ENW.pdf

QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.

hpe6-a67 exam questions-q11

What needs to be configured for ClearPass to enforce a bandwidth limit on the Guest Network? (Choose two.)
A. Enable Active Sessions in ClearPass Guest
B. Configure Interim Accounting on the Network Access Device
C. Make sure that Endpoint Profiling is configured
D. Enable Logging of Accounting Interim-Update packets
E. Configure a ClearPass server for Insight Master
Correct Answer: CD


QUESTION 12
In ClearPass guest, which statement is true? (Choose three.)
A. All guest accounts will be assigned a role of Guest and that cannot be changed.
B. The Create Guest Account form is fully configurable and fields can be edited.
C. Account Expiration date and time cannot be edited by the administrator.
D. A guest User is automatically disconnected from the network when their account expires.
E. A guest user will be denied access to the network after their account expires but is not disconnected.
F. A visitor location data field can be added to a guest registration form.
Correct Answer: ADF

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit.

hpe6-a67 exam questions-q13

Which user authentication request will match the service rules of the Policy Service shown?
A. a wireless user connecting to an Aruba IAP on the SSID “CORP”
B. a wireless user connection would fail because of miss-configured service rules.
C. a wireless user connecting to any SSID on an Aruba Controller
D. a wireless user connected to any SSID named “CORP”
Correct Answer: A

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Latest HP HPE0-V14 exam exercise questions 1-13 online

QUESTION 1
A customer needs a single, dual-processor server for an Enterprise Resource Planning solution for a single office. The
customer application uses a mix of HDDs and SSDs and up to 3TB of RAM. Which HPE Solution should you propose?
A. HPE Synergy Solution
B. HPE Apollo 2000 Server
C. HPE ML350 Gen10
D. HPE ML110 Gen10
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/V2/GetPDF.aspx/4AA0-8758ENW.pdf


QUESTION 2
A customer requires an entry-level, all-flash system with a predictable performance at the lowest possible price. They
have performance-sensitive workloads that require speed and efficiency. Which HPE storage system needs the
customer\\’s requirements?
A. Nimble CS1000
B. Nimble SFA
C. Nimble AF1000
D. Nimble AF5000
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 3
A customer requires an entry-level, all-flash storage system with a predictable performance at the lowest possible price.
They have performance-sensitive workloads that require speed and efficiency. Which HPE storage system meets the
customer\\’s requirements?
A. 3PAR 8450
B. MSA 2052
C. StoreVirtual 4335
D. Nimble AF 1000
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
When should you choose to populate a server with LRDlMMs?
A. when error correction is the most important factor
B. when the price is the most important factor
C. when memory capacity is the most important factor
D. when memory speed is the most important factor
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 5
DRAG DROP
A customer is considering an upgrade of their networking infrastructure with the HPE FlexFabric 5940 series switch.
Match the fan tray option with the airflow direction.
Select and Place:

HPE0-V14 exam questions-q5

Correct Answer:

HPE0-V14 exam questions-q5-2

QUESTION 6
A customer needs to reconfigure their data center network because their network often becomes congested, and the
customer cannot monitor the network. How should the customer configure their network?
A. Isolate the management network from production traffic
B. Isolate the SAN on a public network and use a virtual private network (VPN) for secure data
C. Configure IRF on the switches
D. Configure in-band management to manage the switches through gigabit Ethernet ports
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 7
A customer is considering an HPE ProLiant DL380 Gen10 server for their data center. The customer runs a large Oracle
database. They need to increase performance and reduce their licensing costs. Which feature of HPE Gen10 servers
offers these benefits?
A. workload profile matching
B. agentless management
C. jitter smoothing
D. core boosting
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
When should you use the HPE Switch Selector?
A. when you need to list the price information of the switches
B. when you need to select a switch VLAN configuration
C. when you need to compare features between multiple switches
D. when you need to perform a competitive analysis between vendors
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Which backup targets are available from an HPE StoreOnce backup system? (Choose two.)
A. VTL
B. Catalyst
C. NVMe
D. S3
E. iSCSI
Correct Answer: AB
Reference: https://support.hpe.com/hpesc/public/docDisplay?docId=emr_na-c03824941

QUESTION 10
A customer has a VMware environment with HPE ProLiant servers and Nimble storage. They have been using a
Windows VM to provide file services for their employees. The customer is experiencing performance issues with the
solution
due to memory constraints on the virtual environment.
What could be added to the existing environment that will provide dedicated file services with better performance that
would still utilize the existing storage and backup solutions?
A. HPE StoreEver 30750
B. HPE Storage Performance File Controller
C. HPE StoreEasy 1460 Storage
D. HPE StoreEasy 1650 Expanded Storage
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
A customer requires a software-defined storage solution. Which storage solution meets the customer\\’s needs?
A. HPE MSA
B. HPE StoreVirtual VSA
C. HPE 3PAR StoreServ
D. HPE Nimble Storage
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 12
In which layer of the OSI model would you find an IP address?
A. Application
B. Network
C. Physical
D. Data link
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 13
You are designing a solution to run a Citrix XenDesktop workload. Which HPE planning and designing resource
contains a detailed example of this type of solution, including a list of all the hardware and software components?
A. Sales Builder for Windows
B. Product Bulletin
C. Smart Selling Tool
D. Reference Architecture
Correct Answer: D

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Latest CompTIA CySA+ CS0-002 exam exercise questions 1-13 online

QUESTION 1
A development team uses open-source software and follows an Agile methodology with two-week sprints. Last month,
the security team filed a bug for an insecure version of a common library. The DevOps team updated the library on the
server, and then the security team rescanned the server to verify it was no longer vulnerable. This month, the security
team found the same vulnerability on the server.
Which of the following should be done to correct the cause of the vulnerability?
A. Deploy a WAF in front of the application.
B. Implement a software repository management tool.
C. Install a HIPS on the server.
D. Instruct the developers to use input validation in the code.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 2
An employee in the billing department accidentally sent a spreadsheet containing payment card data to a recipient
outside the organization The employee intended to send the spreadsheet to an internal staff member with a similar
name and was unaware of the mistake until the recipient replied to the message In addition to retraining the employee,
which of the following would prevent this from happening in the future?
A. Implement outgoing filter rules to quarantine messages that contain card data
B. Configure the outgoing mail filter to allow attachments only to addresses on the whitelist
C. Remove all external recipients from the employee\\’s address book
D. Set the outgoing mail filter to strip spreadsheet attachments from all messages.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 3
During routine monitoring, a security analyst discovers several suspicious websites that are communicating with a local
host. The analyst queries for IP 192.168.50.2 for a 24-hour period:

cs0-002 exam questions-q3

To further investigate, the analyst should request PCAP for SRC 192.168.50.2 and __________.
A. DST 138.10.2.5.
B. DST 138.10.25.5.
C. DST 172.10.3.5.
D. DST 172.10.45.5.
E. DST 175.35.20.5.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which of the following technologies can be used to house the entropy keys for disk encryption on desktops and
laptops?
A. Self-encrypting drive
B. Bus encryption
C. TPM
D. HSM
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
A web developer wants to create a new web part within the company website that aggregates sales from individual team
sites. A cybersecurity analyst wants to ensure security measurements are implemented during this process. Which of
the following remediation actions should the analyst take to implement a vulnerability management process?
A. Personnel training
B. Vulnerability scan
C. Change management
D. Sandboxing
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 6
Which of the following is the use of tools to simulate the ability for an attacker to gain access to a specified network?
A. Reverse engineering
B. Fuzzing
C. Penetration testing
D. Network mapping
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) is concerned the development team, which consists of contractors, has too
much access to customer data. Developers use personal workstations, giving the company little to no visibility into the
development activities.
Which of the following would be BEST to implement to alleviate the CISO\\’s concern?
A. DLP
B. Encryption
C. Test data
D. NDA
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
A security analyst conducted a risk assessment on an organization\\’s wireless network and identified a high-risk
element in the implementation of data confidentially protection. Which of the following is the BEST technical security
control to mitigate this risk?
A. Switch to RADIUS technology
B. Switch to TACACS+ technology.
C. Switch to 802 IX technology
D. Switch to the WPA2 protocol.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 9
Which of the following should be found within an organization\\’s acceptable use policy?
A. Passwords must be eight characters in length and contain at least one special character.
B. Customer data must be handled properly, stored on company servers, and encrypted when possible
C. Administrator accounts must be audited monthly, and inactive accounts should be removed.
D. Consequences of violating the policy could include discipline up to and including termination.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Bootloader malware was recently discovered on several company workstations. All the workstations run Windows and
are current models with UEFI capability. Which of the following UEFI settings is the MOST likely cause of the
infections?
A. Compatibility mode
B. Secure boot mode
C. Native mode
D. Fast boot mode
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
A security analyst is responding to an incident on a web server on the company network that is making a large number
of outbound requests over DNS Which of the following is the FIRST step the analyst should take to evaluate this
potential indicator of compromise\\’?
A. Run an anti-malware scan on the system to detect and eradicate the current threat
B. Start a network capture on the system to look into the DNS requests to validate command and control traffic.
C. Shut down the system to prevent further degradation of the company network
D. Reimage the machine to remove the threat completely and get back to a normal running state.
E. Isolate the system on the network to ensure it cannot access other systems while evaluation is underway.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
A security analyst is reviewing the logs from an internal chat server. The chat.log file is too large to review manually, so
the analyst wants to create a shorter log file that only includes lines associated with a user demonstrating anomalous
activity. Below is a snippet of the log:

cs0-002 exam questions-q12

Which of the following commands would work BEST to achieve the desired result?
A. grep -v chatter14 chat.log
B. grep -i pythonfun chat.log
C. grep -i javashark chat.log
D. grep -v javashark chat.log
E. grep -v pythonfun chat.log
F. grep -i chatter14 chat.log
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
During an investigation, a security analyst identified machines that are infected with malware the antivirus was unable to
detect. Which of the following is the BEST place to acquire evidence to perform data carving?
A. The system memory
B. The hard drive
C. Network packets
D. The Windows Registry
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://resources.infosecinstitute.com/memory-forensics/#gref https://www.computerhope.com/jargon/d/datacarving.htm

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