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Updated HP HPE6-A71 exam practice questions (Q&As 1-13)

QUESTION 1
Once connected to a WLAN, a user cannot reliably access resources in a company\\’s network. Based on the output
shown in the exhibit, what can be determined about the users connection?

hpe6-a71 exam questions-q1

A. The user is connected wirelessly to a controller.
B. The user has successfully authenticated through use of PEAP.
C. The user is connected to an ArubaOS-Switch.
D. The user is connected to a controller through use of the VIA client.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 2
In the WebUI of an Aruba Mobility Controller (MC), where can an administrator generate a tech support file that the
Aruba Technical Support team can use to help customers?
A. Configuration > System > Logging
B. Diagnostics > Technical Support > Copy Logs
C. Diagnostics > Technical Support > System Information
D. Maintenance > Configuration Management > Backup
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.

hpe6-a71 exam questions-q3

An administrator wants to centralize administrative access to the Aruba Mobility Controllers (MC) and Mobility Master
(MM). ClearPass is set up and the preferred authentication protocol is TACACS+. Where should the administrator
perform this configuration in the MM hierarchy shown in the exhibit?
A. at the Managed Network level
B. at both the Mobility Master and Managed Network levels
C. at the two campus levels
D. at the controller levels
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.

hpe6-a71 exam questions-q4

An administrator wants to verify the operation of MultiZone in a network. The administrator uses the command show ap
debug multizoneto generate the output shown in the exhibit.
Based on the output, which statement is true?
A. Zone 1 is the primary zone, and zone 0 is the data zone.
B. The MultiZone APs are in a cluster.
C. The maximum VAPs in the MultiZone is 15.
D. The primary zone has limited the data zone to one WLAN.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 5
A guest establishes an authenticated wireless session to an Aruba Mobility Controller (MC). The controller uses a
ClearPass server for all AAA functions.
Which AAA component disconnects the user when the guest exceeds their allowed duration?
A. SNMP Disconnect
B. Active Directory Session Limits
C. RADIUS Authorization Profile
D. RADIUS Change of Authorization
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 6
An administrator creates a user role that department A in a company uses. Various other roles exist for other
departments. All employees connect to the same ESSID, which authenticates to an external AAA server.
How should the administrator configure the controller to assign the appropriate roles to the employees?
A. Implement default roles.
B. Implement user roles.
C. Implement AAA profile roles.
D. Implement server-derived roles.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
An administrator troubleshoots a roaming problem where a user loses connectivity to the network during the roaming
process. To help troubleshoot this problem, which device or devices in a wireless network initiates the roaming
process?
A. the AP
B. both the client and the controller
C. the client
D. the controller
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 8
Which protocol is used between Aruba Mobility Controllers (MC) and ArubaOS-Switches to negotiate tunneled node?
A. PAPI
B. GRE
C. IPSec
D. SNMP
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.

hpe6-a71 exam questions-q9

The Branch office RAP shown in the exhibit provides secure wireless employee access. Because of security concerns,
the company\\’s security policy does not allow wireless guest access. Some customers that visit the Branch office need
Internet access. A RAP\\’s Ethernet Port 3 is used for wired guest access and Port 2 is used for wired employee access.
When employees connect to Port 2, they are authenticated successfully and a split-tunnel policy allows them access to
both corporate and Internet resources from the Branch office. Guest users, however, cannot access Internet resources
on Port 3.
How can the administrator provide guest users Internet access?
A. Create a guest VAP that allows wired RAP port access.
B. Implement ClientMatch to handle the employee and guest user traffic correctly.
C. Configure a bridge role for the wired RAP port.
D. Implement the MultiZone feature on the RAP.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 10
An administrator wants to implement bandwidth limits for guest users to restrict their Internet usage. On the Mobility
Master (MM), where would the administrator define these limits?
A. Firewall policy
B. AAA policy
C. User role
D. 802.1X policy
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.

hpe6-a71 exam questions-q11

 An administrator implements an L2 cluster of Aruba Mobility Controllers (MCs) as shown in the exhibit. An external
RADIUS AAA server authentication clients associated with the Active User Anchor Controller (AUAC), where the NAS
IP address sent from Controller B is 10.254.1.2.
By default, what happens to the user\\’s session when it is handed over to the Standby UAC (S-UAC) after a failover?
A. The user\\’s session remains active and RADIUS messages can still be processed between the S-UAC and AAA
server.
B. The user\\’s session remains active, but the AAA server cannot implement RADIUS Change of Authorization (CoA).
C. The user\\’s session is disconnected and has to reconnect, but the S-UAC automatically updates the NAS-IP address
on the AAA server to record the event.
D. The user\\’s session is disconnected and has to reconnect, and no record of this process is stored on the AAA
server.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
An administrator at Campus A manages Aruba Mobility Controllers (MCs). The administrator defines a server group that
includes a local ClearPass server and a remote Microsoft RADIUS server. The ClearPass server has the credentials for
users at Campus A and the Microsoft RADIUS server has the credentials for users at Campus ?. Users at Campus A
successfully authenticate and connect to the Campus A wireless network. However, when users from Campus ? visit
Campus A they fail authentication.
What can the administrator do to solve this problem?
A. Enable EAP termination on the ClearPass server.
B. Enable machine authentication on the Mobility Controllers.
C. Enable EAP-TTLS with EAP Termination on the Mobility Controllers.
D. Enable FastConnect on the Campus A Mobility Controllers.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 13
An administrator needs to support Unified Communications and Collaboration (UCC) in a company\\’s network. The
network infrastructure requires the OpenFlow protocol to support SDN-capable applications.
Which controller topology meets these requirements?
A. Mobility Master-Mobility Controller
B. Master-Local
C. Zones
D. Standalone Mobility Controller
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
You proposed an HPE GreenLake solution to a customer and the customer is concerned about being locked into HPE.
Is this an appropriate response to the customer\\’s concern?
Solution: Explain that HPE GreenLake solutions are delivered by a variety of cloud providers on the backend, which
keeps customer options open.
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 2
Can HPE GreenLake help IT achieve this goal?
Solution: Expand capacity to meet demands with greater accuracy.
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.businesswire.com/news/home/20201102005548/en/Global-Biotech-FirmMacrogen-Selects-HPEGreenLake-to-Accelerate-Genomic-Analysis-and-DNA-Sequencing


QUESTION 3
Is this a step in the Change Order Process?
Solution: The HPE partner sends the List Price BOM developed in Excel and UCID to the HPE Pointnext Services Deal
Owner and HPE GreenLake Project Manager.
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Is this statement correct?
Solution: ROI is a commonly used calculation of net benefits for broadly comparing potential investments.
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.autocont.cz/getmedia/841df7a7-1ba6-4ed6-9648-113c2fb55e05/HPE-GreenLakeForrester.pdf


QUESTION 5
Is this statement correct?
Solution: ROI is a principle that states money today is worth more than the identical sum in the future.
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 6
Your customer is interested in HPE GreenLake solutions, but would like assistance with operating the solution and
performing tasks such as monitoring, design, patching, and troubleshooting. You decide the customer is a good
prospect for Adaptive Management Services (AMS).
Is this something you should explain to the customer?
Solution: Support services and required with HPE GreenLake solutions, but HPE does not offer management or
operation services.
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
You determined that your customer has a 90 percent asset utilization rate.
Is this an appropriate way to explain how HPE GreenLake can reduce time to value?
Solution: HPE GreenLake helps companies optimize the procurement cycle and align cost to usage.
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.checkmark-it.com/partners/hewlett-packard-enterprise/hpe-greenlake


QUESTION 8
Is this a correct statement about HPE GreenLake workload templates?
Solution: The Private Cloud template can be a good fit for customers using offerings such Microsoft Azure Stack.
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.hpe.com/emea_europe/en/solutions/cloud/azure-hybrid-cloud.html


QUESTION 9
You proposed an HPE GreenLake solution to a customer and the customer is concerned about being
locked into HPE.
Is this an appropriate response to the customer\\’s concern?
Solution: Explain that customers can have an HPE GreenLake term set at just one year.
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://psnow.ext.hpe.com/doc/4aa4-4377enw?jumpid=in_lit-psnow-red


QUESTION 10
You are designing a custom HPE GreenLake solution and have created solution BOMs.
Is this the next step in the process?
Solution: Present your business case to the customer.
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Is this a reason to create a custom HPE GreenLake solution as opposed to using the HPE GreenLake Quick Quote
tool?
Solution: The customer is a mid-sized company
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 12
Is this a true statement about Excel Business Case tool outputs?
Solution: HPE GreenLake calculations are based on averages from large enterprise customers.
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Is this a recommended way to create a start BOM for a custom HPE GreenLake solution? Solution: Include HPE
Proactive Care services.
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
A customer has a requirement to provide disaster recovery for an application. The application has an RPO of 30 mins,
with an RTO of 15 mins. How can HPE 3PAR Remote Copy help meet the customer\\’s specified requirements in the
most cost effective manner?
A. by using Periodic Asynchronous Replication with an interval of 15 mins
B. by using Synchronous Long Distance Mode
C. by using Synchronous Replication
D. by using Streaming Asynchronous replication with an interval of 15 mins
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 2
A customer experiences a performance issues and blames the HPE 3PAR array. However, you suspect it is caused by
a noisy neighbor situation in the VMware environment. Which approach should you use to find and prove a root cause?
A. Use Brocade Network Advisor to gather data for analysis
B. Use the advanced performance reports in SSMC
C. Use HPE SAF Collect to gather data for SAF Analyze
D. Use HPE InfoSight Cross Stack Analytics
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
For customers, what are the benefits of developing a company compliance policy? (Select two.)
A. reduced head count
B. minimized losses
C. improved security
D. improved agility
E. increased time to market
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 4
Which advantage is provided by HPE 3PAR Remote Copy across all replication modes?
A. support of all Remote Copy topologies
B. automatic recovery of array failure independent of Remote copy topology
C. Remote Copy support up to 100ms latency over all transport layers
D. all Remote Copy topologies yield identical RPO and RTO
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://manuals.directutor.com/3COM/4AA6-2851ENW/index.html?page=9


QUESTION 5
You are discussing a HPE 3PAR Remote Copy solution with your customer. The customer has had a bad experience in
their current non-HPE replication solution. Currently the source and target volume properties on the array must be
identical on both sides and cannot be changed without re-creating the volumes.
What should you explain to the customer?
A. Source and target disk type and RAID level can be different and adapted to changing requirements
B. On the target array volumes can be pinned into cache for maximum flexibility
C. All data from the source array will automatically be replicated to the target array using AI to determine the best
location where to store the data
D. Flash data can only be replicated to flash media on the target array, while spinning media can be replicated to flash
media
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
A customer has two HPE Nimble arrays that are replication partners. The customer suffers a complete outage on the
source array. What does the administrator need to do to make the most recent snapshot available?
A. Verify the automatic failover occurred
B. Promote the target snapshot
C. Demote the source snapshot
D. Perform a handover between the arrays
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 7
A customer has started to load their HPE 3PAR 8450 with data, but are not sure what data reduction they are achieving.
They ask you to run analysis and estimate the deduplication ratio of data currently on a virtual volume (VV). Which CLI
command should you use to understand data reduction ratios?
A. showvv
B. tunevv
C. convertvv
D. checkvv
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://manualzz.com/doc/34471724/hpe-3par-adaptive-data-reduction


QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit, which reflects the Bill of Materials (BOM) configuration for one datacenter.

hpe0-j58 exam questions-q8

A customer needs a new storage solution of two HPE 3PAR 8440 arrays. The customer\\’s environment consists of
eight physical servers in each data center attached to the SAN and one StoreOnce 3540 system with two FC I/O cards.
The
distance between data centers is less than 75 meters.
What should you add the BOM to meet the customer needs?
A. one HPE 25m Mini SAS High Density Active Optical Cable for each HPE 3PAR 8440
B. one HPR 3PAR StoreServ AC RPS Service Processor
C. one HPE 3PAR StoreServ 8000 Direct Connect Cabling Option for Drive Enclosure for each HPE 3PAR 8440
D. one HPE SN3000B SAN Switch 12-port Upgrade E-LTU per switch, appropriate number of SFPs and cables
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.

hpe0-j58 exam questions-q9

A customer is planning a new compute cluster. They require business continuity, and they need automatic transparent
failover between sites with an RPO of 0. You propose HPE 3PAR 9450 arrays at each site. The displayed Bill of
Materials
(BOM) shows the hardware and software components for one site.
What must be added to the BOM at each site to build the solution?
A. four additional HPE 3PAR 9000 4-port 16Gb Fiber Channel Host Bus Adapters
B. one HPE 3PAR All-inclusive Multi-system Software Suite
C. one HPE 3PAR Policy Manager Software license
D. two additional HPE 3PAR 9000 2-port 10Gb Ethernet Host Bus Adapters
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
A customer needs to a multi-site environment where the entire inter-site transmission will be encrypted. Which products
support this feature without additional licenses? (Select two.)
A. HPE 3PAR
B. HPE StoreOnce VSA
C. HPE Nimble arrays with SmartReplicate (remote replication)
D. any B-series 16Gb SAN Switch
E. HPE StoreOnce hardware appliance
Correct Answer: DE


QUESTION 11
A customer has a Tier 1 application that has high bandwidth and is sensitive to latency.
The customer needs a solution to support this application. The solution must support replication between two sites over
dark fiber links and support an RPO of zero.
Which solution meets the customer requirements?
A. dual HPE 3PAR 9450 arrays with data replicated using RCFC
B. dual Nimble AF40 arrays with data replicated over FC
C. dual HPE 3PAR 8400 arrays with data replicated using iSCSI
D. dual Nimble HF20 arrays with data replicated over iSCSI
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
You are starting an assessment to design a new multi-storage environment for a customer. You have collected data on
all the current arrays using SAF collector. What should be the next step in your design process?
A. Open the .zip file with NinjaSTARS
B. Import the .zip file into OCA
C. Send the .zip file to [email protected]
D. Upload the .zip file to the SAF Portal
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit. A customer is looking to replace the backup environment shown. Which HPE Storage Tool should
you use to assess their backup environment?

hpe0-j58 exam questions-q13

A. HPE NinjaProtected+
B. HPE Storage Sizer
C. HPE NinjaCrawler
D. DD Analyzer
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://uk.cdw.com/about/partners/protecting-data-growth-hpe-ninjaprotected-backup-assessments/

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Aruba Certified Switching Professional (ACSP) V1 Exams Include:

HPE6-A45 :Implementing Aruba Campus Switching solutions
HPE6-A73 :Aruba Certified Switching Professional

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QUESTION 1
An administrator is replacing the current access switches with AOS-CX switches. The access layer switches must
authenticate user and networking devices connecting to them. Some devices support no form of authentication, and
some support 802.1X. Some ports have a VoIP phone and a PC connected to the same port, where the PC is
connected to the data port of the phone and the phone\\’s LAN port is connected to the switch.
Which statement is correct about this situation?
A. 802.1X must be configured to work in fallback mode
B. Device fingerprinting is required for authentication
C. The client-limit setting for port access needs to be changed
D. Device mode should be implemented
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
A network engineer is examining NAE graphs from the Dashboard but notices that the time shown in the graph does not
represent the current time. The engineer verifies that the AOS-CX switch is configured for NTP and is successfully
synchronized. What should be done to fix this issue?
A. Ensure the engineer\\’s web browser is configured for the same timezone as the AOS-CX switch
B. Ensure the engineer\\’s PC is synchronized to the same NTP server as the AOS-CX switch
C. Ensure NetEdit and the AOS-CX switch are synchronized to the same NTP server
D. Enable trust settings for the AOS-CX switch\\’s SSL certificate
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
A network administrator is attempting to troubleshoot a connectivity issue between a group of users and a particular
server. The administrator needs to examine the packets over a period of time from their desktop; however, the
administrator is not directly connected to the AOS-CX switch involved with the traffic flow.
What is correct regarding the ERSPAN session that needs to be established on an AOS-CX switch? (Choose two.)
A. On the source AOS-CX switch, the destination specified is the switch to which the administrator\\’s desktop is
connected
B. On the source AOS-CX switch, the destination specified is the administrator\\’s desktop
C. The encapsulation protocol used is GRE
D. The encapsulation protocol used is VXLAN
E. The encapsulation protocol is UDP
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 4
An administrator is concerned about the security of the control plane connection between an AOS-CX switch and an
Aruba Mobility Controller (MC) when implementing user-based tunneling. How should the administrator protect this
traffic?
A. IPSec with a digital certificate
B. GRE with a pre-shared key
C. PAPI with an MD5 pre-shared key
D. IPSec with a pre-shared key
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 5
A company has just purchased AOS-CX switches. The company has a free and open-source AAA solution. The
the company wants to implement access control on the Ethernet ports of the AOS-CX switches.
Which security features can the company implement given the equipment that they are using?
A. Port-based tunneling
B. Device fingerprinting
C. Local user roles
D. Downloadable user roles
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
How should a network administrator add NAE scripts and implement NAE agents that will run on an AOSCX switch?
A. Use the web interface of the NetEdit server
B. Use the web interface of the AOS-CX switch
C. Use the web interface of Aruba Central
D. Use the CLI of the AOS-CX switch
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
An administrator wants to leverage always-on PoE on AOS-CX switches. Which statement is correct regarding this
feature?
A. Provides up to 60W of power per port
B. Supports all AOS-CX switches
C. Provides surge protection for PoE and non-PoE ports
D. Requires NetEdit to implement
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Examine the configuration performed on newly deployed AOS-CX switches:

HPE6-A73 exam questions-q8

After performing this configuration, the administrator notices that the switch ports always remain in the EAP-start state.
What should the administrator do to fix this problem?
A. Define the server group cppm
B. Set the ports to client-mode
C. Create and assign a local user role to the ports
D. Enable change of authorization (CoA)
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
A network administrator needs to replace an antiquated access layer solution with a modular solution involving AOS-CX
switches. The administrator wants to leverage virtual switching technologies. The solution needs to support highavailability with dual-control planes.
Which solution should the administrator implement?
A. AOS-CX 8325
B. AOS-CX 6300
C. AOS-CX 6400
D. AOS-CX 8400
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
An AOS-CX switch is configured to implement downloadable user roles. Examine the AOS-CX switch output: Based on
this output, what is the state of the user\\’s access?

HPE6-A73 exam questions-q10

A. No downloadable user role exists
B. MAC authentication has passed, but 802.1X authentication is in progress
C. The RADIUS request timed out to the AAA server
D. The port should be configured for 802.1X
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Examine the attached diagram.

HPE6-A73 exam questions-q11

The two PCs are located in VLAN 11 (10.1.11.0/24). Which example defines how to implement active gateway on the
VSX core for VLAN 11?
A. interface vlan 11 active-gateway ip 10.1.11.1 active-gateway mac 02:02:00:00:01:00
B. interface lag 254 active-gateway vlan 11 ip 10.1.11.1 active-gateway vlan 11 mac 02:02:00:00:01:00
C. interface lag 254 active-gateway ip 10.1.11.1 active-gateway mac 02:02:00:00:01:00
D. vsx vrrp group 1
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
An administrator is implementing a multicast solution in a multi-VLAN network. Which statement is true about the
configuration of the switches in the network?
A. IGMP snooping must be enabled on all interfaces on a switch to intelligently forward traffic
B. IGMP requires join and leave messages to graft and prune multicast streams between switches
C. IGMP must be enabled on all routed interfaces where multicast traffic will traverse
D. IGMP must be enabled on all interfaces where multicast sources and receivers are connected
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
A network engineer is having a problem adding a custom-written script to an AOS-CX switch\\’s NAE GUI. The script
was written in Python and was successfully added on other AOS-CX switches. The engineer examines the following
items from the CLI of the switch:

HPE6-A73 exam questions-q13

What should the engineer perform to fix this issue?
A. Install the script\\’s signature before installing the new script
B. Ensure the engineer\\’s desktop and the AOS-CX switch are synchronized to the same NTP server
C. Enable trust settings for the AOS-CX switch\\’s SSL certificate
D. Remove a script that is no longer used before installing the new script
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
Which two options are correct regarding the IEEE 802.11ax standard? (Choose two.)
A. allows transmissions of up to 4.8Gbps
B. is an emerging satellite connection standard to allow wireless access anywhere in the world
C. operates only in the 5GHz similar to 802.11ac
D. operates in both the 2.4GHz and 5GHz radios bands
E. is the first WLAN standard to no longer use electromagnetic signals to transmit data
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.

HPE6-A72 exam questions-q2

Traffic is failing between Core-1 and Host-B. IP addressing has correctly been applied, and all interfaces are attached to
the vrf GREEN.
Which configuration will correct the issue?
A. Core-2(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0/0 10.1.1.1 vrf GREEN Host-B: assign the default-gateway address 10.1.20.181
B. Core-1(config)# ip route 10.1.20.0/24 10.1.1.2 vrf GREEN Host-B: assign the default-gateway address 10.1.20.181
C. Core-1(config)# ip route 10.1.20.0/24 10.1.1.2 vrf GREEN Host-B: assign the default-gateway address 10.1.20.1
D. Host-B: assign the default-gateway address 10.1.20.181
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
HOTSPOT
Click on the colored box that corresponds with the line that best represents Broadcast traffic flow.
Hot Area:

HPE6-A72 exam questions-q3

QUESTION 4
Which two commands will save the running-config so that changes will be loaded automatically on the next reboot?
(Choose two.)
A. write memory
B. save
C. copy config config1 config startup-config
D. copy running-config startup-config
E. copy running-config checkpoint boot-config
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 5
What are two methods for remotely managing an Aruba AOS-CX switch? (Choose two.)
A. SNMPv2c
B. HTTPS
C. USB-C console
D. Telnet
E. SSH
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit

HPE6-A72 exam questions-q6

What is true regarding VLAN 50 according to the diagram above?
A. VLAN 50 is part of a switched virtual interface (SVI) that was never routed causing it to be down.
B. Since VLAN 50 has not been assigned to any enabled physical port, the status is down.
C. VLAN 50 is assigned only to Trunk ports which is why no ports are listed under interfaces.
D. VLAN 50 was never added to the vlan-database and therefore is in a down state.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which statement is correct regarding powering an Aruba Access Point?
A. PoE or PoE+ is only used with Ethernet that is carried over multi-mode fiber cabling.
B. Using switchports for this reason is unnecessary, because Aruba Access Points typically use an AC to DC power
adapter to draw power.
C. PoE or PoE+ enabled switchports are rarely used given concerns about causing electrical interference, with the data
also carried over Ethernet cabling.
D. Most administrators use PoE or PoE+ enabled switchports to provide both Ethernet connectivity and power to the
AP.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which two types of routes can be found in the IP routing table of an Aruba AOS-CX switch? (Choose two.)
A. Local
B. EIGRP
C. BGP
D. ISIS
E. RIPng
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit

HPE6-A72 exam questions-q9

The above output is the result of issuing the command show system resource utilization.
What command should be used to enable terminal output line by line or page by page?
A. The command page
B. The command terminal length 30
C. The command more
D. The command less
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
What is the binary conversion of the hexadecimal value 0x2001?
A. 0010 0001
B. 0002 0000 0000 0001
C. 0011 0000 0000 0001
D. 0010 0000 0000 0001
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
What connectivity commands are available on AOS-CX switches? (Choose two.)
A. netstatus
B. traceroute
C. ping
D. pathping
E. tracert
Correct Answer: BC

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QUESTION 1
Which IBM Cloud offering brings IBM zLinux capabilities into the cloud?
A. VMware vCenter Server
B. Bare Metal Server
C. Hyper Protect Virtual Server
D. Power Systems Virtual Server
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.ibm.com/blogs/systems/the-best-of-ibm-z-and-linuxone-in-the-public-and-privatecloud/


QUESTION 2
What is a key feature of Virtual Private Cloud?
A. It is deployed on-premises for increased security
B. Applications are automatically deployed across three zones
C. To run an isolated environment within the public cloud
D. Network traffic between VSIs on the private network is charged for
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://cloud.ibm.com/docs/vpc-on-classic?topic=vpc-on-classic-about


QUESTION 3
What is one reason to choose a Single Cloud Environment over a Multicloud Environment?
A. The shared security responsibilities between the Cloud provider and the Cloud consumer is easier to define in a
Single Cloud Environment
B. Vendor lock-in policies are negotiable
C. A Single Cloud Environment is always more cost effective in comparison to Multicloud
D. The risk of vendor lock in is reduced with a Single Cloud Environment
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.stratoscale.com/blog/it-leadership/cloud-clouds-choose-single-multi-cloudapproach/

QUESTION 4
Which statement describes the IBM Cloud Pak for Multicloud Management?
A. It helps deploy on your choice of clouds, with low-code tools for business users and real-time performance visibility
for business managers. Customers can migrate their runtimes without application changes or data migration, and
automate at scale without vendor lock-in.
B. It helps to provide consistent visibility, automation, and governance across a range of hybrid and multi cloud
capabilities such as event management, infrastructure management, application management, multi-cluster
management, edge management and integration with existing tools and processes.
C. It helps to unify and simplify the collection, organization and analysis of information. Enterprises can turn data into
insights through an integrated cloud-native architecture. It is extensible, easily customized to unique client information
and AI landscapes through an integrated catalog of IBM, open source and third-party microservices add-ons.
D. It helps support the speed, flexibility, security and scale required for all of your digital integration transformation
initiatives, and comes pre-integrated with a set of capabilities including API lifecycle, application and data integration,
messaging and events, high speed transfer and security.
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.ibm.com/cloud/garage/dte/tutorial/multi-cluster-management/


QUESTION 5
Which VPC component would have a Front End Listener and Back End Pool?
A. A Floating IP
B. An Access Control List
C. A Public Gateway
D. A Load Balancer
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://cloud.ibm.com/docs/vpc?topic=vpc-load-balancers

QUESTION 6
What can be a subject of the IBM Cloud Identity and Access Management policy?
A. Resource Group
B. Service
C. Service Roles
D. Service ID
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://cloud.ibm.com/docs/account?topic=account-iamoverview


QUESTION 7
Which IBM Garage Method for Cloud practice leverages Enterprise Design Thinking?
A. Envision
B. Culture
C. Learn
D. Reason
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.ibm.com/garage/method/


QUESTION 8
An organization is building a cloud native application and wants to use the highest level of cryptographic security
available. Which IBM Cloud service can the organization use for key management?
A. Cloud HSM
B. Hyper Protect Certificate Manager
C. Key Protect
D. Hyper Protect Crypto Services
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.ibm.com/cloud/architecture/architectures/securityArchitecture/security-for-data/

QUESTION 9
When using OpenShift, what is a pre-requisite for converting a single zone cluster into a multi-zone cluster?
A. The cluster must be set up in one of the supported multi-zone locations
B. The cluster must be running on either Virtual Shared or Virtual Dedicated server nodes
C. The cluster configuration must be backed up into an Object Storage bucket in the same zone
D. The cluster must not have any pods active when converted
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://cloud.ibm.com/docs/openshift?topic=openshift-ha_clusters

QUESTION 10
What are the four storage class tiers offered by IBM Cloud Object Storage?
A. Dynamic, Encrypted, Fixed, Hard Coded
B. Dynamic, Vault, Fixed, Configured
C. Standard, Encrypted, Dynamic, Configured
D. Standard, Vault, Cold Vault, Flex
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.ibm.com/in-en/cloud/object-storage/storage-class-tiers-archive


QUESTION 11
Which service provides control of the least resources on the cloud?
A. PaaS
B. SaaS
C. BMaaS
D. VMs
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 12
Which statement is true about a Hybrid Cloud?
A. It is a deployment model that requires the largest capital expense to deploy and to scale
B. It is a platform for applications and infrastructure that is built on two or more components from public cloud, private
cloud and on-premises IT
C. It is a platform for applications and infrastructure for system-z that is built on two or more components from only
public and private cloud
D. It is a collection of cloud resources made up of IaaS and PaaS from a single provider\\’s public cloud
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
What open-source system monitoring and alerting toolkit can be used in IBM Cloud Foundry Enterprise Environment?
A. Kubernetes
B. Sysdig
C. Prometheus
D. Nagios
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://cloud.ibm.com/docs/cloud-foundry?topic=cloud-foundry-monitoring

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QUESTION 1
During a meeting, you learn that your client has an SLA with another business, but that business asks tor
lower RTO and RPO times for data recovery.
Is this a correct statement regarding how HPE solutions can help to comply with this tighter SLA? Solution:
HPE OneView uses templates for its managed server and storage objects, which allows the attachment of
baselines to verify compliancy with pre-defined rules reflecting your SLA objectives.
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 2
Your customer wants to replace an aging tape library with a new data protection solution that Improves their RTO/RPSs.
Their existing platform consists of HPE ProLiant DL380 Gen10 and 8Gb FC connected Nimble Arrays. You recommend
an HPE StoreOnce appliance and Veeam software is this a true statement? Solution: The new HPE storeOnce
appliances can be Direct-Attached lo one or the HPE ProLiant servers
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 3
You need to meet with a customer about replacing their aging EMC Data Domain-based platform with a new solution is
this a tool that you could use to effectively assess current backup deployment? Is this a tool that you could use to
effectively assess current backup deployment? Solution:NinjaStars
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
A customer wants to replace an aging tape-based backup platform using a Grandfather-Father-Son (GFS) rotation
scheme. They are considering replacing the entire solution with public cloud storage as a backup target is this a valid
recommendation for this customer? Solution: Cloud storage is ideal for the Grandfather copies of backup data for longterm data retention Keep an on-premises solution for the \\’Son\\’ copies to guarantee lower RTO and RPO numbers.
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 5
A customer contacts you tor assistance with performance troubleshooting of Ihelr backup environment
because over the last few days they notice Increasing times tor backup completion They see no apparent
reason for this, since the data volume to be backed up did not change unusually compared to the previous
days and weeks.
You also notice that the deduplication ratio, historically steady at about 20:1. is now gradually declining.
Is this a potential cause or the problem?
Solution:There might be a network bottleneck, which could increase backup times Verify the network
traffic.
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 6
You are showing your customer now veeam integrates with HPE storage products, such as HPE Nimble and HPE
3PAR. You show how Veeam can restore in a fast and efficient way from HPE storage snapshots Is this a correct
statement? Solution:The HPE Nimble Storage Replication Adapter (SRA) for VMware must be installed on the host
running VMware
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Is this a reason why your customer might choose the HPE Apollo 4510 systems instead of the HPE Apollo
42O0 system?
Solution: The Apollo 4510 system has a higher density chassis, and so can host more drives with more
backup capacity.
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 8
Does this option describe a valid scenario for using the 3-2-1 data protection rule or the 3-2-1-1-0 data protection rule?
Solution:You Intend to use at least 3 different types of on-premises storage
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 9
A customer wants to discuss their current backup environment While walking to the meeting room, you
pass what me customer tells you is their only computer room You notice they have a mix of Proliant DL
servers, three Synergy frames. Nimble, and a MSL3040 In the racks.
Is this a tool you can use to gather information on the current backup data to size a new solution?
Solution:NinjaProlected+
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Does this topology/implementation comply with the 3-2-1 rule of data protection? Solution:An HPE MSA array creating
local snapshots on the same array Backups are made with Veeam to a local HPE StoreOnce system using MAS shares
Within Veeam a copy fob is active to a Veeam Cloud Connect repository target hosted at a public cloud provider
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 11
Your customer wants compliance with 3-2-1 data protection best practices. You tell the customer about the HPE
StoreOnce repttcatton options to copy backup data to multiple locations is this a valid statement regarding HPE
StoreOnce data mobility? Solution: Replication is only supported when both HPE StoreOnce systems are registered
with HPE infoSight
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 12
You are organizing a Proof-of-Concept (PCX:) for your customer for Ihetr new data protection solution based on
Commvault technology in combination with HPE Nimble Storage and HPE StoreOnce backup targets. The customer
asks you to demonstrate the configuration options for deduplication within the Commvault solution Is this a location
where you can modify the duplication parameters? Solution: Access the Advanced Client Properties screen under
Client Computers.
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 13
You are running a Proof-of-Concept for a customer\\’s new data protection solution based on Veeam and HPE
StoreOnce. You want to demonstrate the source-side deduplication features of the solution, to reduce the volume of
data being sent across the network, is this a parameter that should be set? Solution:\\’\\’Source Side deduplication\\’\\’ in
the Global Deduplication section of the HPE StoreOnce system
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
A customer requires 12 Gb local storage for their VMware boot volumes, which require high- performance read cycles to
enable the operating system to boot quickly. Which drive type provides the most appropriate size and most costeffective way to meet this requirement?
A. Mixed-use SSD
B. Flash media drive
C. SATA nearline
D. SAS midline
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 2
You need to update the firmware on an MSL2024 to version 26.43.51. Which HPE utility do you need to use?
A. OneView Standard
B. Smart Storage Administrator
C. Central Management Console
D. Library and Tape Tools
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 3
DRAG DROP
Match the speed and protocol with the appropriate component.
Select and Place:

hpe0-v14 exam questions-q3

Correct Answer:

hpe0-v14 exam questions-q3-2

Reference: https://buy.hpe.com/us/en/options/transceivers/server-transceivers/hpe-sfp-transceivers/p/7263510 https://itg.buy.hpe.com/emea_europe/en/options/transceivers/server-transceivers/server-transceivers/hpeqsfp28-transceivers/p/1008789459


QUESTION 4
DRAG DROP
A customer is expanding from local storage to a SAN environment for the firt time. They plan to future proof their
environment with a 16 Gb Fibre Channel. They also want to allow for future I/O expansion with new servers. Identify the
correct server and storage to meet the customer requirements.
Select and Place:

hpe0-v14 exam questions-q4

Correct Answer:

hpe0-v14 exam questions-q4-2

 

QUESTION 5
A customer needs to increase the availability and bandwidth of network connectivity to their servers. Which switch
feature meets the customer\\’s needs?
A. Remote direct memory access over Converged Ethernet (RoCE)
B. Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN)
C. Jumbo frames
D. Link Aggregation and Control Protocol (LACP)
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 6
You have configured a port on an HPE FlexFabric 5900 series switch that is connected to a VMware ESXi server to
support multiple VLANs.

hpe0-v14 exam questions-q6

Given the configuration above, what should happen to any of the untagged traffic coming from the VMware ESXi host?
A. The untagged traffic with be dropped.
B. The untagged traffic will be transmitted in vlan 2.
C. The untagged traffic will be transmitted in vlan 50.
D. The untagged traffic will be transmit.ted in vlan 1.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 7
A customer purchased a Nimble HF20 a year ago They are experiencing an issue with a few of their VMware servers in
the RTP Nimble date center and asked that you make a recommendation based on the data in infoSight.

hpe0-v14 exam questions-q7

What should you recommend\\’?
A. Add cache to the array for the RTP Nimble Datacenter.
B. increase the cache size for VMware-DS-Space-NoDeDup
C. increase the datastore size for VMware-DS-Space-NoDeDup.
D. Add another datastore for the RTP Nimble Datacenter
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
DRAG DROP
Match each workload profile description with the corresponding profile. (Select all that apply.)
hpe0-v14 exam questions-q8

 

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.

hpe0-v14 exam questions-q9

An administrator connected a hypervisor to interface Ten-GigabitEthernet1/0/1 in a switch. The administrator created
virtual machines in VLAN 10 and 20 on the hypervisor. VLAN 10 is configured to be tagged, and VLAN 20 is configured
to be untagged on the hypervisor. The administrator found that all the virtual machines in VLAN 20 can communicate
with each other, but not with any virtual machines on VLAN 20 external to the hypervisor. Given the output in the exhibit,
customer needs a new environment to support an ERP system. The sizing information you received shows the
following
A. Permit VLAN 1 on the interface.
B. Configure the PVID of the interface to be VLAN 20.
C. Configure the interface as an access port.
D. Configure the interface as an IRF port.check
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 10
You are installing a combined server and storage solution at a customer location. What must you keep in mind
regarding the typical requirements for the location? (Choose two.)
A. Room temperature must not exceed 35 C (95 F)
B. Rack tie kit should be installed on the rack for proper airflow
C. UPSs should be installed at the top of the rack for top mounted power feed
D. There must be at least a 10 cm (4 in) clearance space at the front and back of the components within the racks
E. Rack doors must be unlocked for easy component removal and maintenance
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 11
A customer has an ESXi server in a branch office They need to perform backups locally. The local backups must be
replicated to the main data center with built-in deduplication What should the customer install at the branch office?
A. StoreOnce 3100
B. StoreOnce VSA
C. MSA 2042
D. Storevirtual VSA
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 12
A customer environment is being managed and monitored with HPE OneView. A review of the OneView log shows that
there have been several trap storm events. Which series of events must take place for OneView to insert a Trap Storm
event entry into the log of system events?
A. SNMP traps from three or more identical hosts have been logged within the past 256 seconds.
B. Four or more identical SNMP traps have been logged within the past 30 seconds.
C. Three or more SNMP trap messages have been logged with increasingly critical variable string values.
D. Four or more ports on the same network switch have reported sequential SNMP trap mesages
Correct Answer: B
https://community.hpe.com/t5/hpe-oneview/snmp-trap-storm-handling/td-p/6763380#.XvfE_ChKiM8


QUESTION 13
A customer needs to provide inventory management, health monitoring, status alerting, and reporting for their ProLiant
servers. Which HPE management offering meets the customer\\’s needs?
A. OneView
B. Insight Remote Support
C. InfoSight
D. Insight Online
Correct Answer: A

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Latest IBM C2150-612 exam exercise questions 1-13 online

QUESTION 1
What is the main function of a Cisco Adaptive Security Appliance (ASA)?
A. A Proxy
B. A Switch
C. A Firewall
D. An Authentication device
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 2
Events and Flows both have multiple different timestamps available to them. Which timestamp is available to both
events and flows?
A. End Time
B. Storage Time
C. First Activity Time
D. Last Activity Time
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://developer.ibm.com/answers/questions/292620/why-do-i-see-different-time-stamps-for-qradar-even/


QUESTION 3
Which three things can be found under the Information menu when right-clicking an IP address? (Choose three.)
A. Asset Profile
B. DNS Lookup
C. Hide Offense
D. WHOIS Lookup
E. Annotation View
F. Username Lookup
Correct Answer: ABD
Reference: https://www.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/en/SS42VS_7.2.6/com.ibm.qradar.doc/c_qradar_ug_asset_rightclick.html

QUESTION 4
An event is happening regularly and frequently; each event indicates the same target username. There is a rule
configured to test for this event which has a rule action to create an offense indexed on the username. What will QRadar
do with the triggered rule assuming no offenses exist for the username and no offenses are closed during this time?
A. Each matching event will be tagged with the Rule name, but only one Offense will be created.
B. Each matching event will cause a new Offense to be created and will be tagged with the Rule name.
C. Events will be tagged with the rule name as long as the Rule Response limiter is satisfied. Only one offense will be
created.
D. Each matching event will be tagged with the Rule name, and an Offense will be created if the event magnitude is
greater than 6.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 5
While on the Offense Summary page, a specific Category of Events associated with the Offense can be investigated.
Where should a Security Analyst click to view them?
A. Click on Events, then filter on Flows
B. Highlight the Category and click the Events icon
C. Scroll down to Categories and view Top 10 Source IPs
D. Right Click on Categories and choose Filter on Network Activity
Correct Answer: B
Reference:
IBM Security QRadar SIEM Users Guide. Page: 42

QUESTION 6
What is the key difference between Rules and Building Blocks in QRadar?
A. Rules have Actions and Responses; Building Blocks do not.
B. The Response Limiter is available on Building Blocks but not on Rules.
C. Building Blocks are built-in to the product; Rules are customized for each deployment.
D. Building Blocks are Rules which are evaluated on both Flows and Events; Rules are evaluated on Offenses of Flows
or Events.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which QRadar component provides Layer 7 visibility within a physical network infrastructure?
A. QRadar Data Node
B. QRadar Flow Analyzer
C. QRadar Flow Collector
D. QRadar VFlow Collector
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.robertrojek.pl/2017/11/09/qradar-appliances-types/


QUESTION 8
What is accessible from the Offenses Tab but is not used to present a sorted list of offenses?
A. Rules
B. Category
C. Source IP
D. Destination IP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which set of information is provided on the asset profile page on the assets tab in addition to ID?
A. Asset Name, MAC Address, Magnitude, Last user
B. IP Address, Asset Name, Vulnerabilities, Services
C. IP Address, Operating System, MAC Address, Services
D. Vulnerabilities, Operative System, Asset Name, Magnitude
Correct Answer: C
Reference:
https://www.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/SS42VS_7.2.1/com.ibm.qradar.doc_7.2.1/c_qradar_ug_asset_sum.html

QUESTION 10
What is the effect of toggling the Global/Local option to Global in a Custom Rule?
A. It allows a rule to compare events and flows in real-time.
B. It allows a rule to analyze the geographic location of the event source.
C. It allows rules to be tracked by the central processor for detection by any Event Processor.
D. It allows a rule to inject new events back into the pipeline to affect and update other incoming events.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Which file type is available for a report format?
A. TXT
B. DOC
C. PDF
D. PowerPoint
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Given the following window:

C2150-612 exam questions-q10

What are the steps to get this window within an offense?
A. Right click on the IP > Information > DNS Lookup
B. Right click on the IP > Information > Reverse DNS
C. Right click on the IP > Information > WHOIS Lookup
D. Right click on the IP > Information > Asset Profile
Correct Answer: A
Reference: http://www-01.ibm.com/support/docview.wss?uid=swg21690480

QUESTION 13
What is the difference between TCP and UDP?
A. They use different port number ranges
B. UDP is connectionless, whereas TCP is connection based
C. TCP is connectionless, whereas UDP is connection based
D. TCP runs on the application layer and UDP uses the Transport layer
Correct Answer: B

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[2021.4] Free online test of the latest IBM C2090-424 exam practice questions

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QUESTION 1
In order to use Cognos TM1 Connector, which statement is TRUE?
A. Installing the Cognos TM1 API component alone is sufficient.
B. Import the IBM Cognos TM1 certificate and create a property file that stores truststore password
C. Install the Cognos TM1 API component and create a property file that stores truststore password
D. Install the Cognos TM1 API component and import the IBM Cognos TM1 certificate and create a property file that
stores truststore password
Correct Answer: D
Reference:
https://www-01.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/SSZJPZ_11.3.0/com.ibm.swg.im.iis.conn.tm1.usage.doc/topics/tm1_installing_configuring.html


QUESTION 2
Which of the following is the correct schema format for a Time column?
A. record (tField:time[hour:minute:second];)
B. record (tField:nullable time[];)
C. record (tField:time[seconds];)
D. record (tField:time[microseconds];)
Correct Answer: C
Reference:
https://www-01.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/SSZJPZ_11.3.0/com.ibm.swg.im.iis.ds.parjob.dev.doc/topics/r_deeref_Time_Columns.html

QUESTION 3
The APT_SubProcessOperator is used for what purpose?
A. It allows you to incorporate a third-party executable into the framework
B. It provides the capability to break predefined operators into sub-processes
C. It provides the capability to define custom operators at the subprocess level
D. It allows you to incorporate composite operators, which contain more than one operator
Correct Answer: A
Reference:
https://www-01.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/SSZJPZ_11.3.0/com.ibm.swg.im.iis.ds.pxop.dev.doc/topics/creatingopers.html

QUESTION 4
You are experiencing performance issues for a given job. You are assigned the task of understanding what is
happening at run time for that job. What steps should you take to understand the job performance issues? (Choose
two.)
A. Use the resource estimation tool
B. Use the performance analysis tool
C. Replace Join stages by Lookup stages
D. Run the job with $APT_TRACE_RUN set to true
E. Run the job with $APT_DUMP_SCORE set to true
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 5
Which statement about restartable sequence jobs is TRUE?
A. If a restartable sequence aborts, it can be restarted from Director.
B. Choosing “Reset job” from Director will start the job where it left off.
C. Checkpoints are always added to every eligible Job Activity stage in the sequence.
D. There is no way to force a Job Activity stage to return if the sequence got beyond it.
Correct Answer: A
Reference: http://www-01.ibm.com/support/docview.wss?uid=swg1JR46534


QUESTION 6
In order to collect operational metadata, you must do which of the following?
A. Enable “Generate operational metadata” in the Execution tab of the job properties using the Designer client
B. Enable “Generate operational metadata” in the General tab of the project properties using the Director client
C. Enable “Record job performance data” in the General tab of the project properties using the Administrator client
D. Enable “Generate operational metadata” in the General tab of the Job Run Options dialog box in the Director client
Correct Answer: C
Reference:
https://www-01.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/SSZJPZ_11.3.0/com.ibm.swg.im.iis.ds.admin.doc/topics/t_daclref_Capturing_Process_Meta_Data.html

QUESTION 7
For very large records, you may need to set the following environment variable with an appropriate value in order to
allow the job to run successfully:
A. $APT_MONITOR_SIZE
B. $APT_RECORD_COUNTS
C. $APT_DISABLE_COMBINATION
D. $APT_DEFAULT_TRANSPORT_BLOCK_SIZE
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 8
To run multiple copies of the same job within Director, which of the following must be supplied?
A. Job name
B. Invocation ID
C. Parameter values
D. Username and password
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 9
Which restructure stage has a single reject link?
A. Split Vector
B. Column Import
C. Make Subrecord
D. Combine Records
Correct Answer: D
Reference:
http://www-01.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/SSZJPZ_8.5.0/com.ibm.swg.im.iis.ds.parjob.dev.doc/topics/c_deeref_Column_Import_Stage.html

QUESTION 10
By default, how much internal memory does the Sort use per partition?
A. 10MB
B. 20MB
C. 25MB
D. 30MB
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://datastage4u.wordpress.com/2011/04/26/sorting-in-datastage/


QUESTION 11
Which statement about the ISD input stage is NOT TRUE?
A. A job must have zero or one ISD input stages
B. A job with an ISD input stage must have an ISD output stage
C. Buffer size and timeout values can be supplied as job parameters
D. Text over JMS binding is only available if you are using Network Deployment
Correct Answer: D
Reference:
https://www-01.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/SSZJPZ_11.3.0/com.ibm.swg.im.iis.infoservdir.user.doc/topics/t_isd_user_configuring_wisd_input_stage.html

QUESTION 12
Which of the following is NOT a valid use of stage variables?
A. Storing values to be used in both derivations and constraints
B. Storing values that can be referenced by name in downstream stages
C. Storing values from one row to compare with values in the next row read
D. Storing the result on an expression to be used in multiple output columns
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 13
In the Masking Policy Editor in the Data Masking stage of your job, you have specified for a column containing credit
card numbers the Random Replacement masking policy. For the Copy option you have specified “(1,2)(3,4)”. What
changes will be made to a credit card number, such as 6327664369, to mask it?
A. Digits 1 through 2 and digits 3 through 4 will be randomly changed. The rest of the digits will remain the same.
B. Digits 1 through 2 and digits 3 through 4 will remain the same. The rest of the digits will be randomly changed.
C. The 2 digits starting at digit 1 and the 4 digits starting at digit 3 will remain the same. The rest of the digits will be
randomly changed.
D. The 2 digits starting at digit 1 and the 4 digits starting at digit 3 will be randomly changed. The rest of the digits will
remain the same.
Correct Answer: D

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