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QUESTION 1
With MTA (Mail Transfer Agent) enabled the gateways to manages SMTP traffic and holds external email with potentially
malicious attachments. What is required in order to enable MTA (Mail Transfer Agent) functionality in the Security
Gateway?
A. Threat Cloud Intelligence
B. Threat Prevention Software Blade Package
C. Endpoint Total Protection
D. Traffic on port 25
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 2
If you needed the Multicast MAC address of a cluster, what command would you run?
A. cphaprob -a if
B. cphaconf ccp multicast
C. cphaconf debug data
D. cphaprob igmp
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 3
In which formats can Threat Emulation forensics reports be viewed in?
A. TXT, XML and CSV
B. PDF and TXT
C. PDF, HTML, and XML
D. PDF and HTML
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 4
The back end database for Check Point R80 Management uses:
A. DBMS
B. MongoDB
C. PostgreSQL
D. MySQL
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 5
What are the types of Check Point APIs available currently as part of the R80.10 code?
A. Security Gateway API Management API, Threat Prevention API, and Identity Awareness Web Services API
B. Management API, Threat Prevention API, Identity Awareness Web Services API, and OPSEC SDK API
C. OSE API, OPSEC SDK API, Threat Extraction API, and Policy Editor API
D. CPMI API, Management API, Threat Prevention API, and Identity Awareness Web Services API
Correct Answer: B
Reference: http://dl3.checkpoint.com/paid/29/29532b9eec50d0a947719ae631f640d0/CP_R80_CheckPoint_API_ReferenceGuide.pdf?HashKey=1517088487_4c0acda205460a92f44c83d399826a7bandxtn=.pdf


QUESTION 6
What are the steps to configure the HTTPS Inspection Policy?
A. Go to ManageandSettings > Blades > HTTPS Inspection > Configure in SmartDashboard
B. Go to Applicationandurl filtering blade > Advanced > Https Inspection > Policy
C. Go to ManageandSettings > Blades > HTTPS Inspection > Policy
D. Go to Applicationandurl filtering blade > Https Inspection > Policy
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 7
Which of the SecureXL templates are enabled by default on Security Gateway?
A. Accept
B. Drop
C. NAT
D. None
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 8
While using the Gaia CLI. what is the correct command to publish changes to the management server?
A. json publish
B. mgmt publish
C. mgmt_cli commit
D. commit
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 9
What is the protocol and port used for Health Check and State Synchronization in ClusterXL?
A. CCP and 18190
B. CCP and 257
C. CCP and 8116
D. CPC and 8116
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_ClusterXL_AdminGuide/index.html

QUESTION 10
There are two R77.30 Security Gateways in the Firewall Cluster. They are named FW_A and FW_B. The cluster is
configured to work as HA (High availability) with default cluster configuration. FW_A is configured to have a higher priority
than FW_B. FW_A was active and processing the traffic in the morning. FW_B was on standby. Around 1100 am, its
interfaces went down and this caused a failover. FW_B became active. After an hour, FW_A\\’s interface issues were
resolved and it became operational.
When it re-joins the cluster, will it become active automatically?
A. No, since the `maintain\\’ current active cluster member\\’ option on the cluster object properties is enabled by default.
B. No, since the `maintain\\’ current active cluster member\\’ option is enabled by default on the Global Properties.
C. Yes, since the `Switch to higher priority cluster member\\’ option on the cluster object properties is enabled by default.
D. Yes, since the `Switch to higher priority cluster member\\’ option is enabled by default on the Global Properties.
Correct Answer: A   Reference: http://dl3.checkpoint.com/paid/7e/7ef174cf00762ceaf228384ea20ea64a/CP_R77_ClusterXL_AdminGuide.pdf?HashKey=1479822138_31410b1f8360074be87fd8f1ab682464andxtn=.pdf


QUESTION 11
Which command shows detailed information about VPN tunnels?
A. cat $FWDIR/conf/vpn.conf
B. vpn tu tlist
C. vpn tu
D. cpview
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80.20_GA/WebAdminGuides/EN/CP_R80.20_CLI_ReferenceGuide/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R80.20_GA/WebAdminGuides/EN/CP_R80.20_CLI_ReferenceGuide/209239


QUESTION 12
In R80, where do you manage your Mobile Access Policy?
A. Access Control Policy
B. Through the Mobile Console
C. Shared Gateways Policy
D. From the Dedicated Mobility Tab
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 13
What is the least amount of CPU cores required to enable CoreXL?
A. 2
B. 1
C. 4
D. 6
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_PerformanceTuning_WebAdmin/6731.htm
 

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QUESTION 1
Which three requirements should be gathered during a design workshop? (Choose three.)
A. Constraints
B. Recoverability
C. Manageability
D. Risks
E. Requirements
Correct Answer: ACD


QUESTION 2
A company is starting a cloud deployment project. They have a requirement to provide one time and operational pricing
for virtual machine provisioning by line of business. Which two vRealize Suite products will meet the requirements?
A. vRealize Automation
B. vRealize Operations Manager
C. vRealize Organizer
D. vRealize Orchestrator
E. vRealize Business
Correct Answer: AE
Reference: https://www.vmware.com/products/vrealize-automation.html


QUESTION 3
Which feature of VMware vSphere will enable migration of powered-on virtual machines to another host in an ESXI
environment?
A. High Availability
B. vMotion
C. vSphere Replication
D. Fault Tolerance
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
A supervisor wants employees to seamlessly log into remote applications without having to enter their credentials
multiple times. What is required to support true Single Sign On (SSO)?
A. Horizon 7 and Windows Server 2016
B. Horizon 7 and any Linux Operating System
C. Only Horizon 7 is required
D. Horizon 7 and Identity Manager
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-Horizon-7/7.3/horizon-architecture-planning/GUIDE8152572-1B10-42C2-B605-1EF738AC2D20.html


QUESTION 5
In which form does Virtual SAN store and manage data?
A. Files
B. Disks
C. Objects
D. Blocks
Correct Answer: C
Virtual SAN stores and manages data in the form of flexible data containers called objects. An object is a logical volume
that has its data and metadata distributed and accessed across the entire cluster. Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-vSphere/5.5/com.vmware.vsphere.storage.doc/GUID-2B3B720F-0A7E-4B4B-883F-85A39C1A6C5A.html

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QUESTION 1
One of your virtual machines (VM) has performance issues and sometimes is unresponsive. Which VM file must be
checked in order to find the root cause?
A. vpxd.log
B. ds.log
C. vminst.log
D. vmware.log
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 2
A vSphere administrator has been tasked with ensuring that 500 virtual desktops are unable to communicate with one
another, but can communicate with required services. Which two solutions does VMware recommend? (Choose two.)
A. vSphere Host Firewall
B. Private VLAN
C. VMware NSX Distributed Firewall
D. Port Filtering
Correct Answer: BC


QUESTION 3
Which is a valid requirement for deploying the vCenter Server Appliance 6.x to a DRS cluster?
A. At least one host in the cluster must be in maintenance mode or lockdown mode.
B. One ESXi host in the cluster must not be in maintenance mode or lockdown mode.
C. All ESXi hosts in the cluster must not be in maintenance mode.
D. One ESXi host in the cluster must not be in lockdown mode.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which two statements are correct when licensing an ESXi 6.x host? (Choose two.)
A. ESXi licenses can only applied to ESXi hosts connected to a vCenter Server.
B. Bulk licensing requires vSphere Auto Deploy to be enabled.
C. ESXi licenses can be assigned utilizing the ESXi host client.
D. Bulk licensing requires vSphere PowerCLI.
Correct Answer: CD
Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMwarevSphere/6.5/com.vmware.vsphere.install.doc/GUID-28D25806-748B-49C0-97A1-E7DE5CB335A9.html


QUESTION 5
What are two requirements needed to enable a 4 vCPU virtual machine with Fault Tolerance? (Choose two.)
A. vSphere Enterprise Plus license
B. 1 GbE uplink for FT logging network
C. vSphere Standard license
D. 10 GbE uplink for FT logging network
Correct Answer: AD
Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMwarevSphere/6.5/com.vmware.vsphere.avail.doc/GUID-57929CF0-DA9B-407A-BF2E-E7B72708D825.html

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QUESTION 1
An NSX administrator has been tasked with deploying a NSX Edge Virtual machine through an ISO image.
Which virtual network interface card (vNIC) type must be selected while creating the NSX Edge VM to allow participation
in overlay and VLAN transport zones?
A. VMXNET3
B. VMXNET2
C. e1000
D. Flexible
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://vdc-download.vmware.com/vmwb-repository/dcr-public/182d387c-eaa8-4cdc-812d-8cb25812fefd/d09cad1f-553d-4c9e-a5b1-6544280eec25/NSX-T%20Command-Line%20Interface%20Reference.html


QUESTION 2
Which CLI command is used to start the NSX Manager virtual machine in the KVM environment?
A. virsh start
B. virsh poweron
C. virsh poweron
D. virsh start
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-NSX-T-DataCenter/2.1/com.vmware.nsxt.install.doc/GUID-928BAF6E-4684-43A0-8766-8FE191FE1FA7.html

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A. Reverse NAT
B. SNAT
C. 1:1 NAT
D. DNAT
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which NSX CLI command is used to change the authentication policy for local users?
A. set cli-timeout
B. set hardening-policy
C. get auth-policy minimum-password-length
D. set auth-policy
Correct Answer: C
Reference https://vdc-download.vmware.com/vmwb-repository/dcr-public/182d387c-eaa8-4cdc-812d-8cb25812fefd/d09cad1f-553d-4c9e-a5b1-6544280eec25/NSX-T%20Command-Line%20Interface%20Reference.html


QUESTION 5
Which TraceFlow traffic type should an NSX administrator use for validating connectivity between App and DB virtual
machines that reside on different segments?
A. Multicast
B. Anycast
C. Broadcast
D. Unicast
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://images.nsx.techzone.vmware.com/sites/default/files/NSXT%20Reference%20Design%20Guide%20Version%202.0.pdf

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QUESTION 1
When do Development Team members take ownership of a Sprint Backlog item?
A. At the Sprint planning meeting.
B. During the Daily Scrum.
C. Never. All Sprint Backlog Items are “owned” by the entire Development Team, even though each one may be done
by an individual Development Team member.
D. Whenever a team member can accommodate more work.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which of the following might the Scrum Team discuss during a Sprint Retrospective?
A. Methods of communication.
B. The way the Scrum Team does Sprint Planning.
C. Skills needed to improve the Development Team\\’s ability to deliver.
D. Its Definition of “Done”.
E. All of the above.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 3
Who must attend the Daily Scrum?
A. The Scrum Master and Product Owner.
B. The Development Team.
C. The Development Team and Product Owner.
D. The Scrum Team.
E. The Development Team and Scrum Master.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
You are the Scrum Master for four Scrum Teams working from the same Product Backlog. Several of the developers
come to you complaining that work identified for the upcoming two Sprints will require full-time commitment from a
technical specialist who is external to the teams. What are two key concerns for the Scrum Master to take into account
in this situation? (Choose two.)
A. The desire to maintain a stable velocity.
B. The benefit of Development Teams figuring out a solution for themselves.
C. The need to have enough work to keep all Development Team members busy.
D. The ability of the Development Teams to produce integrated Increments.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 5
Which two activities will a Product Owner engage in during a Sprint? (Choose two.)
A. Run the Daily Scrum.
B. Prioritize the Development Team\\’s work on the Sprint Backlog.
C. Update the Sprint burndown chart.
D. Answer questions from the Development Team about items in the current Sprint.
E. Work with the stakeholders.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 6
When is implementation of a Product Backlog item considered complete?
A. At the end of the Sprint.
B. When the item has no work remaining in order to be potentially released.
C. When QA reports that the item passes all acceptance criteria.
D. When all work in the Sprint Backlog related to the item is finished.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
A properly functioning Scrum Team will have at least one Release Sprint and may well have several.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which of the following are roles on a Scrum Team? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Users
B. Scrum Master
C. Product Owner
D. Development Team
E. Customers
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 9
Cross-functional teams are optimized to work on one technical layer of a system only (e.g. GUI, database, middle tier,
interfaces).
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Multiple Scrum Teams working on the same product or system all select work from the same Product Backlog.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Why does the Product Owner want the Development Team to adhere to its definition of “Done”?
A. To have complete transparency into what has been done at the end of each Sprint.
B. To be able to reprimand the team when they don\\’t meet their velocity goal for the Sprint.
C. To know what the team will deliver over the next three Sprints.
D. To predict the team\\’s productivity over time.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
What are three ways Scrum promotes self-organization? (Choose three.)
A. By not allowing documentation.
B. By the Development Team deciding what work to do in a Sprint.
C. By preventing stakeholders from entering the development room.
D. By removing titles for Development Team members.
E. By being a lightweight framework.
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 13
The Product Owner makes sure the team selects enough from the Product Backlog for a Sprint to satisfy the
stakeholders.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
How can a hacker gain control of a smartphone to perform remote audio and video surveillance?
A. By performing cross-site scripting.
B. By installing a roving bug on the phone.
C. By manipulating geographic information systems.
D. By accessing a phone\\’s global positioning system satellite signal.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 2
SCENARIO Carol was a U.S.-based glassmaker who sold her work at art festivals. She kept things simple by only
accepting cash and personal checks. As business grew, Carol couldn\\’t keep up with demand, and traveling to festivals
became burdensome. Carol opened a small boutique and hired Sam to run it while she worked in the studio. Sam was a
natural salesperson, and business
doubled. Carol told Sam, “I don\\’t know what you are doing, but keep doing it!”
But months later, the gift shop was in chaos. Carol realized that Sam needed help so she hired Jane, who had business
expertise and could handle the back-office tasks. Sam would continue to focus on sales. Carol gave Jane a few weeks
to get acquainted with the artisan craft business, and then scheduled a meeting for the three of them to discuss Jane\\’s
first impressions. At the meeting, Carol could not wait to hear Jane\\’s thoughts, but she was unprepared for what Jane
had to say. “Carol, I know that he doesn\\’t realize it, but some of Sam\\’s efforts to increase sales have put you in a
vulnerable position. You are
not protecting customers\\’ personal information like you should.”
Sam said, “I am protecting our information. I keep it in the safe with our bank deposit. It\\’s only a list of customers\\’
names, addresses and phone numbers that I get from their checks before I deposit them. I contact them when you finish
a piece
that I think they would like. That\\’s the only information I have! The only other thing I do is post photos and information
about your work on the photo sharing site that I use with family and friends. I provide my email address and people send
me
their information if they want to see more of your work. Posting online really helps sales, Carol. In fact, the only
complaint I hear is about having to come into the shop to make a purchase.”
Carol replied, “Jane, that doesn\\’t sound so bad. Could you just fix things and help us to post even more online?”
`I can,” said Jane. “But it\\’s not quite that simple. I need to set up a new program to make sure that we follow the best
practices in data management. And I am concerned for our customers. They should be able to manage how we use
their
personal information. We also should develop a social media strategy.”
Sam and Jane worked hard during the following year. One of the decisions they made was to contract with an outside
vendor to manage online sales. At the end of the year, Carol shared some exciting news. “Sam and Jane, you have done
such a great job that one of the biggest names in the glass business wants to buy us out! And Jane, they want to talk to
you about merging all of our customer and vendor information with theirs beforehand.”
Which regulator has jurisdiction over the shop\\’s data management practices?
A. The Federal Trade Commission.
B. The Department of Commerce.
C. The Data Protection Authority.
D. The Federal Communications Commission.
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://fas.org/sgp/crs/misc/R45631.pdf

QUESTION 3
A user who owns a resource wants to give other individuals access to the resource. What control would apply?
A. Mandatory access control.
B. Role-based access controls.
C. Discretionary access control.
D. Context of authority controls.
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/bs-latn-ba/azure/role-based-access-control/overview

QUESTION 4
What is a mistake organizations make when establishing privacy settings during the development of applications?
A. Providing a user with too many choices.
B. Failing to use “Do Not Track” technology.
C. Providing a user with too much third-party information.
D. Failing to get explicit consent from a user on the use of cookies.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
What is a main benefit of data aggregation?
A. It is a good way to perform analysis without needing a statistician.
B. It applies two or more layers of protection to a single data record.
C. It allows one to draw valid conclusions from small data samples.
D. It is a good way to achieve de-identification and unlinkabilty.
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
The PRIMARY benefit of integrating information security risk into enterprise risk management is to:
A. ensure timely risk mitigation.
B. justify the information security budget.
C. obtain senior management\\’s commitment.
D. provide a holistic view of risk.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which of the following BEST describes an information security manager\\’s role in a multidisciplinary team that will
address a new regulatory requirement regarding operational risk?
A. Ensure that all IT risks are identified
B. Evaluate the impact of information security risks
C. Demonstrate that IT mitigating controls are in place
D. Suggest new IT controls to mitigate operational risk
Correct Answer: B
The job of the information security officer on such a team is to assess the risks to the business operation. Choice A is
incorrect because information security is not limited to IT issues. Choice C is incorrect because at the time a team is
formed to assess risk, it is premature to assume that any demonstration of IT controls will mitigate business operations
risk. Choice D is incorrect because it is premature at the time of the formation of the team to assume that any
suggestion of new IT controls will mitigate business operational risk.

QUESTION 3
The PRIMARY benefit of performing an information asset classification is to:
A. link security requirements to business objectives.
B. identify controls commensurate to risk.
C. define access rights.
D. establish ownership.
Correct Answer: B
All choices are benefits of information classification. However, identifying controls that are proportional to the risk in all
cases is the primary benefit of the process.

QUESTION 4
A third-party service provider has proposed a data loss prevention (DLP) solution. Which of the following MUST be in
place for this solution to be relevant to the organization?
A. Senior management support
B. A data classification schema
C. An adequate data testing environment
D. A business case
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which of the following is a benefit of information security governance?
A. Reduction of the potential for civil or legal liability
B. Questioning trust in vendor relationships
C. Increasing the risk of decisions based on incomplete management information
D. Direct involvement of senior management in developing control processes
Correct Answer: A
Information security governance decreases the risk of civil or legal liability. The remaining answers are incorrect. Option
D appears to be correct, but senior management would provide oversight and approval as opposed to direct
involvement in developing control processes.

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following motions is identified with the corresponding action?
(Action – Turning palm of hand over to face in the anterior direction, dorsum of the hand is pointed downward toward the
floor.)
A. Pronation
B. Supination
C. Abduction
D. Adduction
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Supination – “Holding a bowl of soup in your hand.”

QUESTION 2
A 35-year-old Latin-American client wishes to lose weight to reduce her chances of developing heart disease and
diabetes. The client states, “I do not know how to make my diet work with the kind of foods that my family eats.”
What should the nurse do first to help the client determine a suitable diet for disease prevention?
A. Provide her with copies of the approved dietary guidelines for the American Diabetic Association and the American
Heart Association.
B. Ask the client to provide a list of the types of foods she eats to determine how to best meet her needs.
C. Provide a high-protein diet plan for the client.
D. Provide the client with information related to risk factors for heart disease and diabetes.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Assessment is the first step. Assessing what the client eats helps the nurse determine a plan for dietary
recommendations based on the ADA and AHA guidelines.
Providing the client with a copy of the guidelines is important but is not the first priority.
Based on the client\\’s wish to reduce her chances of heart disease and diabetes, a high-protein diet plan might not be
appropriate.
Providing information to the client related to risk factors for heart disease and diabetes is important but is not the first
step.

QUESTION 3
A couple from the Philippines living in the United States is expecting their first child.
In providing culturally competent care, the nurse must first __________.
A. review their own cultural beliefs and biases
B. respectfully request that the couple utilize only medically approved health care providers
C. realize that the clients have to learn their new country\\’s accepted medical practices
D. study family dynamics to understand the male and female gender roles in the clients’ culture
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
The nurse needs to recognize her own beliefs and biases and learn about the client\\’s cultural beliefs.

QUESTION 4
A client asks the nurse what risk factors increase the chances of getting skin cancer.
The risk factors include all except __________.
A. light or fair complexion.
B. exposure to sun for great periods of time.
C. certain diet and foods.
D. history of bad sunburns.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Conditions that increase risks for skin cancer are: light or fair complexion, history of having bad sunburns or scars from
previous burns, personal or family history of skin cancer, frequently working or playing outdoors with exposure to the
sun,
exposure to X-rays or radiation, exposure to certain chemicals through work or hobbies (coal, pitch, asphalt, petroleum),
repeated trauma or injury to an area resulting in scars, older than age 50, male gender, and living in a geographic
location near the equator or at high altitudes.
Ways to prevent skin cancer are avoiding exposure to the sun, wearing a hat to protect the face, avoiding all sun lamps,
and using a sunscreen with a minimum of 15 sun protection factor (SPF) if exposure to the sun is unavoidable.
Teaching clients how to recognize a potential problem involves inspecting the skin frequently; noting all birthmarks,
freckles, and moles; and seeking medical assistance if any of the following are noted: change in color, change in
shape,
change in surface texture, change in size, change in the surrounding skin, or a new mole or a sore that does not heal.

QUESTION 5
Following the change of shift report, the nurse should analyze the information and set priorities accordingly.
When the plan has been formulated, at what point during the shift can or should the nurse\\’s plan be altered or
modified?
A. halfway through the shift
B. at the end of the shift before the nurse reports off
C. when needs change
D. after the top-priority tasks have been completed
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The nurse changes the plan to respond to changes in needs.

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QUESTION 1
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Your company plans to migrate all its data and resources to Azure.
The company\\’s migration plan states that only platform as a service (PaaS) solutions must be used in Azure.
You need to deploy an Azure environment that supports the planned migration.
Solution: You create an Azure App Service and Azure Storage accounts.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Your company plans to migrate all on-premises data to Azure. You need to identify whether Azure complies with the
company\\’s regional requirements. What should you use?
A. the Knowledge Center
B. Azure Marketplace
C. the Azure portal
D. the Trust Center
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
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NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
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This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
An Azure region contains one or more data centers that are connected by using a low-latency network.
Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the
statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed
B. Is found in each country where Microsoft has a subsidiary office
C. Can be found in every country in Europe and the Americas only
D. Contains one or more data centers that are connect by using a high-latency network
Correct Answer: A

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NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
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This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
Resource groups provide organizations with the ability to manage the compliance of Azure resources across multiple
subscriptions.
Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the
statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed
B. Management groups
C. Azure policies
D. Azure App Service plans
Correct Answer: C

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Your company hosts an accounting named App1 that is used by all the customers of the company.
App1 has low usage during the first three weeks of each month and very high usage during the last week of each
month.
Which benefit of Azure Cloud Services supports cost management for this type of usage pattern?
A. high availability
B. high latency
C. elasticity
D. load balancing
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
You create a resource group named RG1 in Azure Resource Manager.
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This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
Your company implements Azure policies to automatically add a watermark to Microsoft Word documents that contain
credit card information.
Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the
statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed.
B. DDoS protection
C. Azure Information Protection
D. Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) Identity Protection
Correct Answer: C
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QUESTION 13
Your company plans to move several servers to Azure.
The company\\’s compliance policy states that a server named FinServer must be on a separate network segment.
You are evaluating which Azure services can be used to meet the compliance policy requirements.
Which Azure solution should you recommend?
A. a resource group for FinServer and another resource group for all the other servers
B. a virtual network for FinServer and another virtual network for all the other servers
C. a VPN for FinServer and a virtual network gateway for each other server
D. one resource group for all the servers and a resource lock for FinServer
Correct Answer: B
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QUESTION 1
Which of the following can a company leverage, when migrating a criticalapplication to a SaaS model, in order to gain a
competitive edge over another company that is not outsourcing its critical application?
A. Application availability
B. Security
C. Hardware independence
D. Compliance
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which of thefollowing would help an organization\\’s IT department set their objectives and expectations for a cloud
computing solution?
A. Service Transition
B. Service Operation
C. Service Strategy
D. Service Design
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which of the following is the BEST example of a cloud vendor\\’s monthly hosting fee changing based on cost
allocations?
A. The company\\’s fee varies based on the projected quarterly revenue of the client\\’scompany.
B. The company\\’s fee varies based on the number of their IT staff required to support the infrastructure.
C. The company\\’s fee varies based on the number of servers needed to house data in the datacenter.
D. The company\\’s fee varies based on the energy consumption of each server in the datacenter.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
A companydecides to reduce its IT labor force by hiring an external company to manage various aspects of IT
administration, such as software patch management, desktop virtualization, and remote network maintenance. The
company will still retain technicians for maintenance and storage administration. Which of the following services has this
company implemented?
A. Outsourcing
B. Virtualization
C. PaaS
D. IaaS
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which of the following is a business reason for IT outsourcing and cloud computing?
A. Improvingcost structure
B. Improving customer satisfaction
C. Increasing control over IT systems
D. Decrease of security issues
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which of the following is the risk when an IT department restricts itself to solely being an infrastructure provider?
A. Business users will bypass the IT department
B. Cloud providers will take over the role of the IT department
C. Service providers will bypass the IT department
D. All ofthe above are correct
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which of the following are the keys needed to successfully adopt cloud computing? (Select TWO).
A. Establish executive support
B. Conduct a code review
C. Migrate infrastructure
D. Create a Work Breakdown Structure
E. Comply with regulatory requirements
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 8
Using https instead of http for accessing a cloud service is considered more secure.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which of the following technologies are related to Web services?
A. HTML, IDM, JSON
B. HTML, IDM, XML
C. HTML, JSON, XML
D. DM, JSON, XML
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which of the following is a primary compliance and regulatory requirement any international company faces regarding
employee and customer data?
A. Data access
B. Data transparency
C. Data availability
D. Data localization
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which of the following describes the amount of data that can be sent across a link in agiven time?
A. Network bandwidth
B. Network QoS
C. Network latency
D. Network speed
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which of the following enables hardware independence?
A. In-sourcing
B. Outsourcing
C. Virtualization
D. Abstraction
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
How can an organization successfully implement a PaaS strategy?
A. Open up internal databases with Web service access.
B. Take inventory of the application portfolio and select external suppliers
C. Standardize on a limited set of virtual machines.
D. Continuously execute performance analytics to monitor providers
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following WAN technologies provides a guaranteed throughput rate?
A. DSL
B. T-1
C. Cable broadband
D. Dial-up
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which of the following is a proprietary routing protocol?
A. RIP
B. EIGRP
C. OSPF
D. BGP
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which of the following will listen on the line to ensure there is no traffic transmitting and implement a back-off timer if a
collision occurs?
A. CSMA/CD
B. CSMA/CA
C. MPLS
D. OSPF
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
A technician replaces a failed router with a spare that has been in inventory for some time. After attempting to enable
HTTPS on the spare router, the technician discovers the feature is unavailable. The support office was able to connect
to the previous router. Which of the following actions should the technician perform to enable HTTPS access for the
support team?
A. Reboot the router
B. Enable HTTP on the router
C. Update the firmware of the spare router
D. Perform a factory reset on the router
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
A company decides to deploy customer-facing, touch-scan kiosks. The kiosks appear to have several open service
ports that could potentially become compromised. Which of the following is the MOST effective way to protocol the
kiosks?
A. Install an IDS to monitor all traffic to and from the kiosks.
B. Install honeypots on the network to detect and analyze potential kiosk attacks before they occur.
C. Enable switchport security on the ports to which the kiosks are connected to prevent network – level attacks.
D. Create a new network segment with ACLs, limiting kiosks\\’ traffic with the internal network.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
A university has a lecture hall containing 100 students. Currently, the lecture hall has two 802.11ac wireless access
points, which can accommodate up to 50 devices each. Several students report they are unable to connect devices to
the wireless network. Which of the following is MOST likely the issue?
A. One of the wireless access points is on the wrong frequency
B. The students are attempting to connect 802.11g devices
C. The students are using more than one wireless device port seat.
D. Distance limitations are preventing the students from connecting.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which of the following are characteristic of jumbo frames? (Select TWO).
A. Commonly used on SAN
B. MTU size greater than 1500
C. MTU size greater than 10000
D. Commonly used on laaS
E. MTU size greater that 12000
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 8
In which of the following ways does a DDoS attack differ from a spoofing attack?
A. DDoS attacks target multiple networks
B. Spoofing attacks originate from a single host
C. DDoS attacks are launched from multiple hosts
D. Spoofing attacks require physical presence
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Keeping an authoritative and timely record of network devices and their settings is a key activity of which of the
following?
A. Project management
B. Quality of service
C. Configuration management
D. Bandwidth shaping
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which of the following cable types have a rated MAXIMUM bandwidth of 100Mbps?
A. CAT3
B. CAT5
C. CAT5e
D. CAT6
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
A technician is replacing a switch at a branch office and discovers the existing backbone cable does not fit in the new
switch. The fiber patch panel has circular connections. The new switch has a transceiver that accepts a smaller square
adapter of two strands. Which of the following patch cables would the technician need to complete the installation?
A. LC to SC
B. SC to ST
C. LC to ST
D. ST to ST
E. SC to SC
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
An end-user device requires a specific IP address every time it connects to the corporate network; however, corporate
policy does not allow the use of static IP addresses. Which of the following will allow the request to be fulfilled without
breaking the corporate policy?
A. DHCP relay
B. DHCP exclusion
C. DHCP option
D. DHCP reservation
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
A company finds that many desktops are being reported as missing or lost. Which of the following would BEST assist in
recovering these devices?
A. Asset tracking tags
B. Motion detectors
C. Security guards
D. Computer locks
Correct Answer: D

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– Migrate email, calendar, and contact items from the on-premises environment.
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– Do not migrate calendar or contact items.
– Provide migration status reports to administrators.
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7.You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. The company has established the following new 70-347 dumps requirements:
– Members of the legal team must be able to conduct eDiscovery searches.
– Employees must be notified when they send email messages that contain confidential information.You need to configure the environment. Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Configure journaling to a Microsoft Exchange Online mailbox for all mailboxes.
B. Add the members of the legal team to the Discovery Management role group.

C. Create a Data Loss Prevention policy.
D. Place all executive mailboxes on In-Place Hold for 365 days and use In-Place eDiscovery for mailbox
searches.
E. Enable Microsoft Exchange Online Archiving for the executive mailboxes.
F. Place all executive mailboxes on Retention Hold.
Answer: B, C

8. Which WebLogic technology is defined in a cluster as an “exactly-once” service?
A. RMI
B. JMS
C. JNDI
D. EJBs
E. Servlets
Answer: B
9. You want your application to pass control to another resource. Which tag can you use to accomplish
this?
A. jsp:plugin B.
jsp:forward C.
jsp:include D.
jsp:useBean
E. jsp:fallback
070-347 pdf Answer: B
10. To manipulate XML-defined data in an application, which tool is directly supported by Workshop?
A. JAX-B
B. Castor
C. XMLBeans
D. None of these
E. DOM/SAX-based parsing
Answer: C
11. Web application contains a logout servlet. The servlet should call which method? (Assume that out is the output stream to the browser and session is the HttpSession .)
A. out.clear()
B. out.flush()

C. session.flush()
D. session.clear()
E. session.invalidate()
070-347 vce Answer: E
12. Within a portal project, where are user-properties sets stored?
A. None of these
B. In the Web project
C. In a Schema project
D. In a Datasync project
E. In the Web user interface project
Answer: D
13. You want your application to pass control to another resource and then return control to the calling JSP. Which tag can you use?
A. jsp:plugin B.
jsp:include C.
jsp:forward
D. jsp:useBean
E. jsp:fallback
070-347 exam Answer: B
14. When Workshop generates a Session Bean, it creates a template for which method?
A. ejbFind()
B. None of these
C. ejbCreate()
D. onMessage()
E. setMessageContext()
Answer: C

15. On a WebLogic system, you successfully deployed an application that uses a conversational Web
service. You ported it to another WebLogic system, on which the application fails. There appears to be a race condition. What is most likely cause of the problem?
A. The application was not re-built.
B. The application was incorrectly deployed.
C. Parts of the application were not ported to the new system.
D. Temporary and supporting files specific to the original system were ported to the new system
E. WebLogic Workshop must perform invocations on conversational Web services serially, and the
<ejb-concurrency-strategy> has not been set appropriately for the persistent store.
70-347 dumps Answer: E
16. Which statement correctly compares a Parallel node to Event Choice node?
A. More than one branch of a Parallel node can be executed; this is not true of an Event Choice node.
B. If the Parallel node specifies an OR join condition, there is no difference between the two node types.
C. If the Parallel node specifies an AND join condition, there is no difference between the two node types.
D. If the Event Choice node specifies an OR join condition, there is no difference between the two node types.
E. A Parallel Node must have exactly two branches; an Event Choice node can have an unlimited number
of branches.
Answer: A
17. Which of these is a direct result of starting a server in Production mode?
A. Multi-processor platforms are supported.
B. Users must be authenticated before deploying applications.
C. Only users in the Administration Group can access the server.
D. Applications CANNOT be deployed in exploded directory format.
E. The administration server can be part of a WebLogic Server cluster.
070-347 pdf Answer: B

18.It has come to your attention that some host on the web has tried to do some reconnaissance on your network and send a VRFY command to try and steal user names. What type of attack was used against your network?
A. SMTP attack
B. Web browser attack
C. IMAP attack
D. IP Spoofing E.
Account scan
Answer: A
19.What technology is being employed to resist SYN floods by having each side of the connection attempt create its own sequence number (This sequence number contains a synopsis of the connection so that if/when the connection attempt is finalized the fist part of the attempt can be re-created from the sequence number)?
A. SYN cookie
B. SYN floodgate
C. SYN gate
D. SYN damn
E. SYN flood break
070-347 exam Answer: A
20.The main reason you have been hired at a company is to bring the network security of the
organization up to current standards. A high priority is to have a full security audit of the network
as soon as possible. You have chosen an Independent Audit and are describing it to your coworkers.
Which of the following best describes an Independent Audit?
A. An independent audit is usually conducted by external or outside resources and may be a review or audit of detailed audit logs.
B. The independent audit is usually done by the current network administrators who ensure the security measures are up to international standards.
C. The independent audit is typically done by an internal team who ensures the security measures are up to international standards.
D. The independent audit is usually done by internal resources to examine the current daily and on-going activities within a network system for compliance with an established security policy.
E. The independent audit is typically done by a contracted outside team of security experts who check for policy compliance.
Answer: A
21.The main reason you have been hired at a company is to bring the network security of the
 organization up to current standards. A high priority is to have a full security audit of the network as soon as possible. You have chosen an Operational Audit and are describing it to your coworkers. Which of the following best describes an 70-347 dumps Operational audit?
A. This type of audit is typically done by a contracted external team of security experts who check for policy compliance.
B. This type of audit is usually done by internal resources to examine the current daily and on-going activities within a network
system for compliance with an established security policy.
C. This type of audit is typically done by an internal team who ensures the security measures are up to international standards.
D. This type of audit is usually done by the current network administrators who ensure the security measures are up to international standards.
E. This type of audit is usually conducted by external resources and may be a review or audit of detailed audit logs.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 70-461
Exam Name: Querying Microsoft SQL Server 2012
Updated: Aug 23, 2017
Q&As: 164

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1. Q1 In economic theory, which of the following statements best describes what is available and what is
wanted? (2 marks)
A. Time and motion
B. Supply and demand
C. Research and development
D. Input and output
070-461 exam Answer: B
2. Q2 Which of the following relationships best describes a small change in demand as a result of a large
change in price? (2 marks)
A. Inelastic
B. Explicit
C. Implicit
D. Elastic
Answer: A
3. Q3 Which of the following best describes the pricing policy known as ‘promotional pricing’ ?(2 marks)
A. A high price aimed at quick recovery of costs
B. A price in line with that being charged by competitors
C. A temporary price reduction to increase sales in the short term
D. A low price set to gain a large share of the market.
070-461 dumps Answer: C
4. Q4 Which of the following is the most likely consequence of government decreasing interest rates? (2
marks)
A. People spend more
B. People spend less
C. The economy slows down
D. The cost of borrowing goes up
Answer: A
5. Q5 Which of the following best defines the economic term ‘budget surplus’?(2 marks)
A. Government expenditure equalling government revenue
B. Government revenues creating government expenditure
C. Government expenditure exceeding government revenue
D. Government revenue exceeding government expenditure
070-461 pdf Answer: D
6. Q6 Which of the following best describes the ‘4Ps’ of marketin (2 marks)
A. Promotion, Performance, Price, Place
B. Product, Price, Promotion, Place
C. Price, Placement, Product, Place
D. Performance, Product, Planning, Production
Answer: B
7. Q7 Which of the following describes people leaving one job and moving to another?(2 marks)
A. Structural unemployment
B. Frictional unemployment
C. Migrational unemployment
D. Cyclical unemployment
070-461 vce Answer: D
8. Q8 Which of the following best defines the term ‘monetary policy’? (2 marks)
A. The control of taxation
B. The control over the amount of money in circulation and the cost of borrowing
C. The control of numbers of people unemployed compared to those employed D.
The control of wealth distribution
Answer: B
9. Q9 Which of the following best defines the term ‘equilibrium price’?(2 marks)

A. The price at which the level of demand in a market exceeds the level of supply
B. The price at which all commodities are of equal value in a market
C. The price at which the level of supply in a market exceeds the level of demand
D. The price at which the level of supply in a market matches the level of demand.
070-461 exam Answer: D
10. Q10 Which of the following is a category of economic system? (2 marks)
A. Thriving economy
B. Balanced economy
C. Planned economy
D. Declining economy
Answer: C
11. Q1 Which of the following statements is correct about the relationship between supply and
demand? (2 marks)
A. When the price of a product is high, the quantity demanded will be high and the quantity supplied will
be low
B. When the price of a product is low, the quantity demanded will be low and the quantity supplied will be
high
C. When the price of a product is high, the quantity demanded will be low and suppliers will be more
willing to supply products
D. When the price of a product is low, the quantity demanded will be high and suppliers will be less willing
to supply products.
070-461 dumps Answer: C
12. Q2 Which of the following best defines the term ‘Exchange rate’?(2 marks)
A. The amount of business transacted between one country and another during a year
B. The speed with which a company receives payment for goods or services sold
C. The extent of barter transactions in a particular country
D. The value of one country??Oscurrency measured against that of another.

Answer: D
13. Q3. Which of the following types of unemployment describes people leaving one job and moving to
another? (2 marks)
A. Cyclical B.
Frictional C.
Moving
D. Structural
070-461 pdf Answer: A
14. Q4 Which of the following headings would appear in the current account of a country’s alance
of payments? (2 marks)
A. Transactions in goods and services
B. Transactions in external assets and liabilities
C. Transactions in large sums of money
D. Transactions in stocks and shares
Answer: A
15. Q5 Which of the following best describes the pricing policy known as ‘penetation’ pricing? (2 marks)
A. A price in line with that being charged by competitors
B. A high price aimed at a quick recovery of costs
C. A low price set to gain a large share of the market
D. A temporary price reduction to increase sales in the short-term
070-461 vce Answer: C
16. Q6 ‘Fiscal’ poicy is government policy controlling which of the following? (2 marks)
A. Inflation
B. Unemployment
C. Taxation
D. Wages

Answer: C
17. Q7 Which of the following best describes the economic term ‘budget deficit’? (2 marks)
A. Government revenues exceeding government expenditure
B. Government expenditure equalling government revenue C.
Government revenues creating government expenditure D.
Government expenditure exceeding government revenue
070-461 exam Answer: D
18. Q8 Which of the following promotional methods can be described as ‘below the line’?(2 marks)
A. Radio commercials
B. Sales leaflets and brochures
C. Internet banners
D. Cinema advertising
Answer: B
19. Q9 A ‘balance of payments’ is the record of which of the following during a year? (2 marks)
A. A country’s moneary import and export transactions
B. Exchange rate movements
C. All payments made by a government department
D. All revenue from taxes received by a government
070-461 dumps Answer: A
20. Q10 A PEST analysis is conducted on which of the following environments of a company? (2
marks)
A. External
B. Internal
C. Historical
D. Political
Answer: A
21. Which two are characterics of synchronous data replication? (Choose two.)
A. More cost effective
B. Increased data protection
C. Acknowledgement of data
D. Supports longer distances
070-461 pdf Answer: BC
22. What are the default read and write community strings for the McDATA Eclipse SAN Router? (Choose
two.)
A. public
B. Modify
C. private
D. password
E. Password
Answer:AC
23. What type of optics are supported on the Eclipse 2640 SAN Router?
A. ST
B. SC
C. XFP
D. SFP-LC
070-461 vce Answer: D
24. Which management interface allows you to create a single uploadable, modifiable configuration file?
A. SNMP
B. Element Manager
C. SANvergence Manager
D. Command Line Interface
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 070-463
Exam Name: Implementing a Data Warehouse with Microsoft SQL Server 2012
Updated: Aug 07, 2017
Q&As: 230

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1.You have an MSSQL database that you need to add to your environment.
Which three items do you need to know before backups can be configured? (Choose
three.)
A. the version of MSSQL being used
B. the kind of authentication being used
C. the directories in which the database files are located
D. he backup retentions needed by the DBA
070-463 exam Answer: A, B, D
2.You are currently assigned to conduct a NetBackup assessment for a Storage Area
Network environment. The system administrator wants to know how to verify that
the Fibre Channel switches are supported by VERITAS.
Which two tasks can be done to determine if VERITAS supports the switches?
(Choose two.)
A. review the SNIA Certification List
B. review the Compatibility Matrix Guide
C. review the Media Manager Device Configuration Guide
D. ask the system administrator which types of switches they are using
Answer: A, B
3.In preparation for a master server upgrade, you want to launch a backup of the
NetBackup catalog. Which two methods accomplish this? (Choose two.)
A. in the GUI, right-click your configured catalog backup policy, and select “Manual
Backup”
B. in the GUI, right-click on “Catalog” and select “Backup NetBackup Catalog ”
C. from the command line, run “bpbackup” with appropriate switches
D. from the command line, run “bpbackupdb” with appropriate switches
070-463 dumps Answer: B, D
4.Which three methods can be used to ensure that your NetBackup catalog has been
backed up? (Choose three.)
A. in the GUI, right-click on “Catalog” and select “Configure NetBackup Catalog
Backup”
B. individually run “bprecover -1” against your catalog images (tape or disk)
C. in the GUI, right-click on “Catalog” and select “Verify NetBackup Catalog
Recoverability”
D. in the GUI, check the “Activity Monitor” for catalog backup results
Answer: A, B, D
5.You need to add a number of Windows servers from another department to your
NetBackup Windows 2003 master server. The system administrator for these

systems has given you a Domain Administrator account and permission to install
the client, but he will not be available to help you He has not given you access to the
computer room where the systems are physically located.
What is the supported method for installing the client?
A. A share the installation CD on the network, log into the systems through a “Remote
Terminal” session, map the CD and run setup.exe
B. from the Administration client on the master server, select all the remote clients in
“Host Properties”, right-click and select “Client Install”
C. log in to any system on the domain as the domain administrator, run Launch.exe on
the install CD and installation to network clients
D.remote installation is not allowed;the system administrator will have to give you
physical access to the new clients
070-463 pdf Answer: C
6.Your company has a single master/media server. You have just updated the
NetBackup master server with the latest patch. Now all the hot Oracle database
backups fail.
What should you do?
A. patch Oracle Agents on all Oracle clients
B. reboot the master server after installing the patch
C. install the latest Oracle Agents patch on the master server
D. reboot the Oracle clients after installing the patch on the master server
Answer: B
7.Which two statements are true about installing multiple media servers? (Choose
two.)
A. A server license key must be installed on each media server
B. All media server installations must be pushed from the master server
C. All media server installations should be performed as root/administrator
D. All media server installations can be pushed from a media server with the same OS
070-463 vce Answer: A, C
8.Which two steps are required during the initial installation of a NetBackup master
server? (Choose two.)
A. create volume pools
B. define storage units
C. setup policy schedules
D. enter the server license
E. specify the NetBackup server type
Answer: D, E

9.Which directory path on the client can the client’s patch level be determined?
A. <Install_path>\ Volmgr\Bin\Patch
B. <Install_path>\Patch
C. <Install_path>\ Volmgr\Bin\Version
D. <Install_path>\ Version
070-463 exam Answer: B
10.Which two statements are true about a media server upgrade installation from
version 4.5 to version 5.0? (Choose two.)
A. All clients must be on 50 if their media server is on 50
B. All master and media servers must be on NetBackup 5.0
C. The media servers must be on 4.5 or 50 if the clients are on 4.5
D. The master server can be upgraded to 5.0, and media servers can remain at4.5
Answer: C, D
11.What is required for Shared Storage Option installation?
A. Fibre Channel connections for all tape devices to be shared
B. a robot SCSI connection to all participating NetBackup media servers
C. 1-gigabit Ethernet communication between all participating NetBackup servers
D. A SSO license key on the NetBackup master server and on all participating
NetBackup media servers
070-463 dumps Answer: D
12.Which two methods determine the patch level of a client? (Choose two.)
A. Run the support script in the goodies directory on the master server
B. Select Help > About from the backup, Archive, and Restore interface on the client
C. Select Help > About from the NetBackup Administration Console on the media server
D. Select Help > About from the NetBackup Administration Console on the master
server
Answer: A, B
13.A moderately used database server must be configured as a NetBack up client. The
database application is custom built and is not covered by a NetBackup database agent.
Backups must be performed quickly and open files need to be backed up. In addition,
the ability to restore individual files from backup is required.
Which of the following backup methods would best fit this scenario?
A. Copy-on-write snapshot
B. Mirror snapshot

C. Flash backup
D. True Image Restore enabled backup
070-463 pdf Answer: C
14.The master server host properties option “Free Browse” in the “General” tab will
allow .
A. accounts without local Administrator privileges on the master server to view
NetBackup configuration settings
B. any NetBackup client to view NetBackup configuration settings
C. designated NetBackup clients to view images from scheduled backups
D. the NetBackup master server to browse remote file systems when creating a file list
for a policy
Answer: C
15.Which three conditions must be met for Synthetic backups? (Choose three.)
A.The policy type must be configured as “Standard” or “Ms_windows-NT”
B.The policy must have “Collect true image restore information” and “with move
detection” selected
C.The master server, media server and clients involved must be running NetBackup version
3.4 or higher
D.The schedule created for the synthetic backup must have the “Synthetic Backup” option
selected
070-463 vce Answer: A, B, D

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