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Refer to the Exhibit:

A customer wants to integrate posture validation into an Aruba Wireless 802.1X authentication service
During testing, the client connects to the Aruba Employee Secure SSID and is redirected to the Captive Portal page.

where the user can download the OnGuard Agent After the Agent is installed, the client receives the Healthy token the client remains connected to the Captive Portal page ClearPass is assigning the endpoint the following roles: T2-StaffUser. (Machine Authenticated! and T2-SOL-Device.

What could cause this behavior?

A. The Enforcement Policy conditions for rule 1 are not configured correctly.
B. Used Cached Results: has not been enabled In the Aruba 802.1X Wireless Service
C. RFC-3576 Is not configured correctly on the Aruba Controller and does not update the role.
D. The Enforcement Profile should bounce the connection instead of a Terminate session

Correct Answer: B


Under Onboard management and control, which option will deny the user from re-provisioning the device a second time?

A. Revoke and Delete certificate
B. Delete user
C. Revoke certificate
D. Delete certificate

Correct Answer: D


A Customer has these requirements:

*2.000 loT endpoints that use MAC authentication
*6,000 endpoints using a mix of username/password and certificate (Corporate/BYOD) based authentication
*1,000 guest endpoints at peak usage that use guest self-registration
*1500 BYOD devices estimated as 3 devices per User (500 users)
*2,500 endpoints that have OnGuard installed and connect on a daily basis

What licenses should be installed to meet customer requirements?

A. 11,500 Access, 500 Onboard, 2,500 Onguard
B. 13.000 Access, 1.500 Onboard, 2,500 Onguard
C. 11,500 Access, 1,500 Onboard, 2.500 Onguard
D. 9,000 Access, 500 Onboard. 2.500 Onguard

Correct Answer: C


A customer has acquired another company that has its own Active Directory infrastructure The 802 1X authentication works with the customer’s original Active Directory servers but the customer would like to authenticate users from the acquired company as well. What steps are required, in regards to the Authentication Sources, in order to support this request? (Select two.)

A. Create a new Authentication Source, type Active Directory.
B. Join the ClearPass server(s) to the new AD domain.
C. Add the new AD server(s) as backup into the existing Authentication Source.
D. There is no need to Join ClearPass to the new AD domain.
E. Create a new Authentication Source, type Generic LDAP.

Correct Answer: BD


A customer has created a Guest Sett-Registration page that they would like to use as a `template\\’ for all the new pages that are going to be created from now on. Their goal is to ensure that the header and footer on every page are the same, and any edits made to them are automatically reflected on every Self-Registration Page. What should be configured in order to accomplish this request?

A. Save the “template” page as the Master Self-Registration page
B. Create child pages when creating new Self-Registration pages and select the “template” as Parent
C. Save this “template” page as a new Skin to be used on other Self-Registration pages
D. Copy the “template” page and edit it each time a new Self-Registration Page is needed

Correct Answer: C


Refer to the exhibit:

When creating a new report, there is an option to send report Notifications by Email. Where is the email server configured?

A. In the ClearPass Policy Manager Endpoint Context servers under Administration.
B. In the Insight Reports Interface under Administration on the sidebar menu.
C. In the insight report on the next screen of the report definition.
D. In the ClearPass Policy Manager Messaging setup under Administration.

Correct Answer: B


Refer to the exhibit:

What is true about the Insight Master Server? {Select two)

A. It Is recommended to have an insight server for every zone to limit the traffic between sites.
B. The Publisher is selected by default as Insight Master Server but It can be changed.
C. There is no need to configure an insight Master Server when using default reports and alerts.
D. An insight Master Server should be selected in order to configure reports and alerts.
E. When enabling a server to be the insight Master any existing insight Master is overwritten.

Correct Answer: BD


Refer to the exhibit:

A customer has configured onboard in a cluster with two nodes All devices were onboarded in the network through node1 but those clients tail to authenticate through node2 with the error shown. What steps would you suggest to make provisioning and authentication work across the entire cluster? (Select three.)

A. Have all of the BYOD clients re-run the Onboard process
B. Configure the Onboard Root CA to trust the Policy Manager EAP certificate root.
C. Have all of the BYOD clients disconnect and reconnect to my network
D. Make sure that the EAP certificates on both nodes are issued by one common root Certificate Authority (CA).
E. Make sure that the HTTPS certificate on both nodes is issued as a Code Signing certificate
F. Configure the Network Settings on Onboard to trust the Policy Manager EAP certificate

Correct Answer: BDF


You are integrating a Postgres SQL server with the ClearPass Policy Manager. What steps will you follow to complete the integration process? (Select three)

A. Click on the default filter name with pre-defined filter queries and a check box to enable as role.
B. Specify a new filter with filter queries to fetch authentication and authorization attributes.
C. Attribute Name under filter configuration must match one of the columns being requested from the database table.
D. Create a new Endpoint context server and add the SQL server IP, credentials, and database name.
E. Alias Name under filter configuration must match one of the columns being requested from the database table.
F. Create a new authentication source and add the SQL server IP, credentials, and database name.

Correct Answer: BDF


Refer to the exhibit:

A customer with multiple Aruba Controllers has just installed a new certificate for “*.customerdomain com” on all Aruba Controllers. While testing the existing guest Self-Registration page the customer noticed that the logins are failing. While troubleshooting they are finding no entries in the Event Viewer or Access Tracker for the tests.

Suspecting that the Aruba Controllers may not be properly posting the credentials from the guest browser, they open the NAS Vendor Settings for the Guest Self-Registration Page. From the screen shown, how can you fix the errors?

A. Change the “IP Address: field to” securelogin.customerdomain.com.
B. Change the “Secure Login:” field to “Use Vendor Default”.
C. Change the “IP Address field to “captive portal-login.customerdomain.com”.
D. Add PTR records on the DNS server for “securelogin.arubanetworks.com”.

Correct Answer: B


What is the Secure SSID {otherwise referred to as Single SSID) OnBoard deployment service workflow?

A. OnBoard Provisioning RADIUS service, OnBoard Authorization RADIUS service. OnBoard Pre-Auth Application service, OnBoard Provisioning RADIUS service
B. OnBoard Provisioning RADIUS service, OnBoard Pre-Auth RADIUS service, OnBoard Authorization Application service. OnBoard Provisioning RADIUS service
C. OnBoard Provisioning RADIUS service, OnBoard Pre-Auth Application service. OnBoard Authorization Application service, OnBoard Provisioning RADIUS service
D. OnBoard Provisioning RADIUS service, OnBoard Authorization Application service, OnBoard Pre- Auth Application service, OnBoard Provisioning RADIUS service

Correct Answer: A


Refer to the exhibit:

After the helpdesk revoked the certificate of a device reported to be lost by an employee, the lost device
was seen as connected successfully to the secure network. Further testing has shown that the device
revocation is not working.

What steps should you follow to make device revocations work?

A. Copy the default [EAP-TLS with OSCP Enabled] authentication method and set The Verify certificate using the OSCP option as required then update the correct OSCP URL link of the OnBoard CA. Remove EAP-TLS and map the custom-created method to the OnBoard Authorization Service.

B. copy the default [EAP-TLS with OSCP Enabled] authentication method and set the verify certificate using the OSCP: option as “required” then configure the correct OSCF URL link for the OnBoard CA. Remove EAP-TLS and map the new [EAP-TLS with OSCP Enabled] method to the 802 1X Radius Service.

C. Remove the EAP-TLS authentication method configuration changes are required and add the “EAP-TLS with OCSP Enabled” authentication method in the OnBoard Provisioning service. No other configuration changes are required.

D. Edit the default [EAP-TLS with OSCP Enabled] authentication method and set the Verify certificate using the OSCP option as required then update the correct OSCP URL link of the OnBoard CA Remove EAP-TLS and map the new [EAP-TLS with OSCP Enabled] method to the OnBoard Provisioning Service.

Correct Answer: C


Refer to the exhibit:

You configured the 802 1 x service enforcement conditions with the Endpoint profiling data. When the client connects to the network. ClearPass successfully profiles the client but the client always receives an incorrect enforcement profile The configurations in the Aruba controller are completed correctly. What is the cause of the issue?

A. An additional authorization source should be configured for profiling to work.
B. The enforcement policy conditions configured with profiling data are not correct.
C. The enforcement policy rules evaluation algorithm Is not configured correctly.
D. The option, to use cached roles and posture from previous sessions should be enabled.

Correct Answer: B

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1. What is the minimum requirement for an HA deployment of the Cloud Pak for Integration Platform Navigator?

A. 3 cores across 3 worker nodes
B. cores across 2 worker nodes
C. 1.5 cores across 3 worker nodes
D. 1 core across 2 worker nodes

Correct Answer: C

2. What is the key benefit of moving away from a centralized ESB pattern to Agile Integration?

A. Faster rollout of integrations, enhanced scalability, and resilience
B. Rapid creation of integrations using a no-code approach
C. API-led integration enabling agility and innovation
D. Multi-cloud deployment of integration artifacts

Correct Answer: B

3. Which situation would lead to the loss of an etcd quorum in an OpenShift v4 cluster?

A. The database used by all Cloud Pak for Integration components is corrupted
B. OpenShift has lost all worker nodes
C. The majority of master/control plane hosts are lost
D. One of the master nodes has gone offline

Correct Answer: A

4. Which is an IBM Cloud Pak solution advantage?

A. Full software stack support, ongoing security, compliance, and version compatibility
B. Continuous Delivery and Continuous Integration (CD/CI) tools
C. Dedicated support team for application migration to IBM Cloud
D. OpenStack integration out of the box

Correct Answer: B

5. Which active-standby pair of queue managers use a shared networked file system?

A. Double resilient queue manager
B. Replicated data queue manager
C. Integrated HA queue manager
D. Multi-instance queue manager

Correct Answer: D

6. An architect needs an agnostic provider of persistent storage for their OpenShift Container Platform, that supports file, block, and object storage, either in-house or in hybrid clouds, Which provider should the architect choose?

A. HostPath Storage
B. Red Hat OpenShift Container Storage
C. FlexVolume Drives
D. OpenStack Cinder

Correct Answer: A

7. What is the function of Kibana in the Cloud Pak For Integration logging service?

A. Collate, correlate, and interpret log data
B. Capture, collect, and forward log data
C. Index, search, and store log data
D. Query, discover, and visualize log data

Correct Answer: C

8. A new proxy API needs to be created, security added, and published to the Sandbox catalog. Which is the correct sequence of steps that should be taken to perform these tasks?’
9. What is the minimum number of CPU cores that are required to install the Cloud Pak for Integration Common Services?

A. 16 cores
B. 2 cores
C. 4 cores
D. 8 cores

Correct Answer: C

10. Which mechanism is available in IBM Event Streams to help with disaster recovery by replicating topic configuration, messages of a topic, and metadata from an origin cluster to a destination cluster?

A. Geo-configuration
B. Geo-datasync
C. Geo-recovery
D. Geo-replication

Correct Answer: D

11. What are two characteristics of storage classes that are required for API management capability deployment?

A. Any storage must be of type File System
B. Depending on the use-case both block and file system storage classes are supported
C. Only block storage classes are supported
D. Block storage for distributed and file system storage for localized
E. Requires an access mode of Read-Write-Many

Correct Answer: BE

12. An integration architect has the following requirements:
1. Enable applications and services to communicate reliably without calling each other directly
2. Introduce process independence into the application architecture
3. Improve fault tolerance and reliability throughout the system.
Which modern integration pattern should the Architect choose?

A. API integration
B. Event driven publish/subscribe
C. Application data integration
D. High speed file transfers

Correct Answer: D

13. Which format is used to export metering reports from Cloud Pak for Integration?


Correct Answer: B

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A dashboard developer notices that Age is available in the sourced data module. A request has been made to \\’bucket\\’ those age values into 5 groups, Ages 0-6, 7-12, 13-21, 22-55, and 55 and over. How would one define this logic in the source data module?

A. set range values in the data module
B. use the Create new table feature
C. select the Age column, and select Create data group
D. define a Case..When calculated attribute in the dashboard


A developer may improve the look and feel of a dashboard or story by adding images and shapes from the Widgets panel. Which statement is true when adding widgets to a dashboard?

A. The widgets panel may contain an Image library tab that the administrator made available
B. Images may only be made available by URL reference.
C. Images can be uploaded to the Image through the upload option on the widgets panel.
D. Text widgets may only be positioned vertically or horizontally.


In which two ways can a specific visualization in a dashboard be filtered?

A. A developer can only keep or exclude data points within an axis.
B. A developer can create a Calculation within the dashboard that will filter a specific visualization.
C. A developer can also add a local filter to filter a column or to define a filter condition.
D. A developer can build an embedded filter in a data module.
E. A developer can keep or exclude a few data points in the visualization.


What is the significance of \\’Clothes\\’ in the following filter expression of a report query? [Product Group] = # sq( prompt( \\’productgroups\\’, \\’token\\’, \\’Clothes\\’ ) )#

A. \\’Clothes\\’ is the default text to include in the generated query at runtime.
B. The string \\’Clothes\\’ will precede the text of the prompt value selected at runtime.
C. The string \\’Clothes\\’ will be appended to the end of the text of the prompt value selected at runtime.
D. \\’Clothes\\’ is a required value to include in the generated query at runtime.


In an Exploration \\’Data relationships\\’ view, what does the thickness of the lines between data items represent?

A. the statistical strength of the relationship between the data items
B. the flow of information between categories, ie. money transfers between countries
C. the cardinality of one data item when grouped by another, ie. thicker signifies more unique values
D. the weighted average of each measure value compared with other measures



Which two statements are true when creating navigation paths?

A. A data module can have multiple navigation paths.
B. A modeler must delete the navigation path and re-create it to change the path.
C. Columns from different tables cannot be added to a navigation path.
D. A navigation path is a collection of Group Data columns.
E. A navigation path is a collection of non-measure columns.


Which of the following can result in poor report performance?

A. reports with filters
B. models with outer joins and cross joins
C. queries with database only processing
D. an optimized metadata model


To create a Layout Component Reference in a report, which object property needs to be provided?

A. Conditional Reference
B. Label
C. Name
D. Render Variable


What technique could be used to investigate report performance?

A. Increase the size limit for the user session.
B. Review the system metrics.
C. Enable the interactive performance assistant
D. Enable legacy user interface.


A developer has nested two non-measures in a Column visualization in a dashboard. How would the developer manually order the columns to get the column order to show properly?

A. Use automatic sorting.
B. Uncheck sort automatically, and drag the columns to the correct order.
C. Select Sort remaining items by Auto.
D. Use custom sorting.


Which of the following is an example of when the query cache would avoid roundtrips to the database?

A. repetitive master-detail requests
B. drill through reports
C. reports with multiple queries
D. drill down reports


What property needs to be set to ensure that any JavaScript and Prompt APIs are executed when a report is run as HTML?
A. Ensure Enable bidirectional support is checked
B. Run with full interactivity is set to No
C. Enable drill up and drill down in the report output
D. Guided report layout is checked


After upgrading from Cognos version 10 what needs to be selected in order to create a data module on a data server?

A. Select “Allow web-based modeling” in Cognos Configuration when starting the server
B. Select “Allow web-based modeling” in the Cognos installer when upgrading the server components.
C. Under the Data Server Connection in the Administration Console configuration select “Allow Framework Manager”.
D. Under the Data Source Connection in the Administration Console configuration select “Allow web- based modeling”.


Question: 01Question: 02Question: 03Question: 04Question: 05Question: 06Question: 07Question: 08Question: 09Question: 10Question: 11Question: 12Question: 13

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An administrator configures the MultiZone feature for a company network, where a mobility cluster is a primary zone and a standalone controller in the company\\’s DMZ represents a secondary data zone. The administrator configures two AP Groups and respective VAPs for the zones on the Mobility Master (MM) in the primary zone.
When the APS boots up and establish connections to both zones, the administrator notices that no data connections are established to the data zone. What must the administrator do to fix this problem?

A. Configure the same AP Groups and VAPs on the standalone controller, and associate the MultiZone APs to both groups.
B. Configure the same AP Group in the data zone as it is in the primary zone, and configure the VAPs in the data zone.
C. Have the MultiZone APS initially boot from the standalone controller in the data zone.
D. Create different AP groups and VAPs on the Mobility Master and standalone controllers, and associate the MultiZone APS to both groups.

Correct Answer: D

Which statement is true about the databases in ClearPass?

A. Entries in the guest user database do not expire.
B. A Static host list can only contain a list of IP addresses.
C. Entries in the guest user database can be deleted.
D. Entries in the local user database cannot be modified.
E. The endpoints database can only be populated by manually adding MAC addresses to the table.

Correct Answer: A

Refer to the exhibit.
Several interfaces on an AOS-Switch enforce 802. IX to a RADIUS server at 10.254.378.521. The interface 802. IX settings are shown in the exhibit and 802. IX is also enabled globally. The security team has added a requirement for port security on the interfaces as well. Before administrators enable port security, which additional step must they complete preventing issues?

A. Set an 802. l X client limit on the interfaces.
B. Manually add legitimate MAC addresses to the switch authorized MAC list.
C. Enable eavesdropping protection on the interfaces.
D. Enable DHCP snooping on VLAN 20.

Correct Answer: D


Refer to the exhibit.

The network administrator wants to reduce failover time If a switch link m VIAN 100 goes down. What should the administrator do?

A. Configure echo mode BFD on VLAN 100 on all OSPF routing devices on VLAN 100.
B. Lower the dead timer on the BDR of VLAN 100.
C. Lower the hello timer only on the BDR of VLAN 100.
D. Configure graceful restart on all of the OSPF routing devices on VLAN 100.

Correct Answer: A


Refer to the exhibit.

Switch-1 and Switch-2 connect on interface A23. The switches experience a connectivity issue. The network administrator sees that both switches show this interface as up. The administrator sees the output shown in the exhibit on Switch-1. What is a typical issue that could cause this output?

A. a hardware issue, such as a broken cable
B. asymmetric routing introduced by a routing configuration error
C. an issue with queuing, caused by mismatched QoS settings
D. mismatched IP addresses on the VLAN for the link

Correct Answer: A

An administrator creates service-based policies for AirGroup on the Mobility Master (MM). The administrator can define location-based policy limits based on which information?

A. AP names, AP groups, controller names, and controller groups
B. AP Fully Qualified Location Names (FQLNs) and controller Fully Qualified Domain Names (FQDNs)
C. AP names, AP groups, and AP Fully Qualified Location Names (FQLNs)
D. Controller names, controller groups, and controller Fully Qualified Domain Names (FQDNs)

Correct Answer: C

Refer to the exhibit.
An administrator implements AP licensing on a Mobility Master (MM).
Each campus is responsible to purchase its own AP licenses.
There are 900 AP licenses deployed in the global pool
There are three dedicated pools.
From the global pool, 300 AP licenses are assigned to each dedicated pool.
Network engineers at CampusA want to deploy an additional 100 APs. Currently, all of the AP licenses in CampusA and CampusB are allocated, but only 200 of the AP licenses m CampusC are allocated.
What can the administrator do to add capacity for the campus in alignment with campus policies?

A. Allow CampusA to share from the CampusC pool.
B. Add 100 more AP licenses and assign them to the CampusA pool.
C. Move 100 licenses from the CampusC pool to the global pool.
D. Add 100 more AP licenses to the global pool.

Correct Answer: B


Refer to the exhibits.

The network administrator enters the commands shown in Exhibit 2. What is the spanning-tree status on Al and A2?

A. A1 towards traffic, and A2 blocks traffic.
B. Both Al and A2 block traffic.
C. A1 blocks traffic and A2 forwards traffic.
D. Both A1 and A2 forward traffic

Correct Answer: D

Which is a valid policy simulation type in ClearPass? (Select three.)

A. Enforcement Policy
B. Posture token derivation
C. Role Mapping
D. Endpoint Profiler
E. Chained simulation

Correct Answer: ACE

A network administrator can set the OSPF metric-type on an AOS-Switch to Type 1 or Type 2. What is the difference?

A. A Type 2 metric marks external routes that can be advertised in NSSAs, while a Type 1 metric marks external routes that can only be advertised in normal areas.
B. A Type 2 metric assigns cost 1 to a 100 Gbps link, while a Type 1 metric assigns cost 1 to all links of 100 Mbps or higher.
C. A Type 2 metric is assigned to multiple external routes that are aggregated together, while a Type 1 metric does not permit external route aggregation.
D. A Type 2 metric stays the same as the external route is advertised, while a Type 1 metric increments with internal OSPF link costs.

Correct Answer: D


What is the purpose of the captive portal URL hash key on an AOS-Switch?

A. It authenticates guest users based on the password the users enter hi the portal.
B. It encrypts and secures the RADIUS messages that the AOS-Switch sends to ClearPass.
C. It does not let users alter the URL that redirects them to the portal.
D. It specifies the captive portal URL and conceals the setting in the config.

Correct Answer: C

A university wants to deploy ClearPass with the Guest module. They have two types of users that need to use web login authentication. The first type of users are students whose accounts are in an Active Directory server. The second type of user is friends of students who need to self-register to access the network.
How should the service be set up in the Policy Manager for this Network?

A. Guest User Repository and Active Directory server both as authentication sources
B. Active Directory server as the authentication source, and Guest User Repository as the authorization source
C. Guest User Repository as the authentication source, and Guest User Repository and Active Directory server as authorization sources
D. Either the Guest User Repository or Active Directory server should be the single authentication source
E. Guest User Repository as the authentication source and the Active Directory server as the authorization source

Correct Answer: A

A customer wants to implement Virtual IP redundancy, such that in case of a ClearPass server outage, 802.1x authentications will not be interrupted. The administrator has enabled a single Virtual IP address on two ClearPass servers.
Which statements accurately describe the next steps? (Select two.)

A. The NAD should be configured with the primary node IP address for RADIUS authentication on the 802.1x network.
B. A new Virtual IP address should be created for each NAD.
C. Both the primary and secondary nodes will respond to authentication requests sent to the Virtual IP address when the primary node is active.
D. The primary node will respond to authentication requests sent to the Virtual IP address when the primary node is active.
E. The NAD should be configured with the Virtual IP address for RADIUS authentications on the 802.1x network.

Correct Answer: DE

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Which command is used on Cloud Pak for Data System to reset a password policy to the system’s initial values?

A. ap config reset-pwpolicy
B. ap setup reset-pwpolicy
C. ap_external_ldap reset-pwpolicy
D. apusermgmt reset-pwpolicy


Which node personality should be used before scaling up a Cloud Pak for a Data System environment?

A. default
B. unset
C. undefined
D. none


What will the administrator see when running the ap issues -c command?

A. list of every issue on the system
B. a list of closed issues
C. list of open issues at the time
D. a list of issues arranged by component name


Which node personality type can host any service, container, or pod as designated by Cloud Pak for Data System?

A. unset
B. labeled
C. control
D. universal


Which tool is used to apply STIG hardening to Cloud Pak for Data System?

A. Manually change the recommended files by STIG guidelines.
B. Use the web console and configure Home->Admin->STIG.
C. Use security_stig_manager with –applyAll.
D. Use security_comliance_manager.


Which two options are available to backup data on Cloud Pak for Data System? (Choose two.)

A. to IBM Spectrum Scale
B. to local disk
C. to media tapes
D. to Portworx storage
E. to NFS storage


A user reports that the web console for IBM Cloud Pak for Data (ICP4D) is not responding. Based on the report below

what is the first step should the IBM Cloud Pak for Data System administrator take to address the problem?

A. Delete the pod: on delete pod ICP4D
B. Restart the platform application ICP4D: ap restart ICP4D
C. Enable the ICP4D application: ap apps enable ICP4D
D. Resume the ICP4D application: ap apps resume ICP4D


The Cloud Pak for Data System web console displays the storage details. How much total storage is available for the worker nodes?

A. 64,000 GB
B. 30,720 GB
C. 26,624 GB
D. 128,000 GB


Which two symptoms are available for data collection using the adding command in Cloud Pak for Data System? (Choose two.)

A. docker_issue
B. hang_issue
C. platformmanager_issue
D. crash_issue
E. thinpool_issue


Which command is used to determine the log file associated with a particular issue in Cloud Pak for Data System?

A. Run the journalctl command.
B. Run the command of the ap issues.
C. Run the adding command.
D. Run the OC inspect command.


Which command will manually close an alert with id 1234?

A. ap issues -d 1234
B. ap –close 1234
C. ap issues –close 1234
D. ap –close alert 1234


Which two methods can be used to obtain the software inventory and monitor software components’ status in Cloud Pak for Data System? (Choose two.)

A. Query the systemd journal: journalctl
B. Command line: aps wd
C. Service manager status: systemctl status icp4d
D. Audit log: apsyslog
E. Web Console: Software overview page

Correct answer:

1. D, 2. A, 3. B, 4. D, 5. C, 6. CD, 7. C, 8. B, 9. AD, 10, D, 11, A, 12. CD

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1. Which three of the following are evidence workspaces?

A. In Edit Evidence
B. Outgoing Evidence
C. Outcomes
D. Evidence Flow
E. Assessments
F. Issues

2. Which three of the following statements about rate tables are true?

A. They have effective dates
B. They store values for drop-down lists
C. They store application properties
D. They can be cloned
E. They cannot be used by rule sets
F. They store values that can vary over time

3. Which three of the following statements about locations are true?

A. Locations represent the work places of the users
B. Each location must have a unique address
C. Locations are organized within a hierarchy
D. Locations are elements within the organization structure
E. Each location can have its own holiday schedule
F. Each location has its own lead position

4. Evidence records associated with which case type can be shared across multiple product delivery cases?

A. Product delivery case
B. Integrated case
C. Screening case
D. Assessment case
E. Issue case

5. Which three of the following statements about outcome plan services are true?

A. Services do not have an associated financial cost
B. The agency (not the client) will pay for services that have an associated cost
C. Services can be configured to require supervisory approval
D. Services must be delivered directly by the organization
E. A provider is mandatory when creating a service

6. Which of the following components is used to derive these results?

A. Cúram Intelligent Evidence Gathering
B. Cúram Data Mapping Editor
C. Cúram Express Rules (CER) rule set
D. Cúram Decision Assist

7. Which of the following statements about IBM Cúram Evidence records is true?

A. Each evidence record is associated with an evidence relationship
B. Each evidence record is associated with a case owner
C. Each evidence record is associated with an evidence type
D. Each evidence record is associated with an evidence approval check

8. What is a communication exception?

A. A type of communication that should not be used for a certain participant
B. A type of communication that results in a template error
C. A one-off communication that is sent to a participant to confirm their registration
D. A communication that does not reach its intended recipient
E. A communication for which no template exists

9. Which three of the following are the basic financial units processed by IBM Cúram?

A. Financial component
B. Liability
C. Allocation
D. Payment
E. Payslip
F. Payment received

10. Which three of the following are components of an application tab in the IBM Cúram user interface?

A. Application sections
B. Modal dialog
C. Navigation bar
D. Page group navigation bar
E. Shortcuts panel
F. Context panel

11. The agency wishes to register a community-based organization (CBO), which will submit applications and supporting documentation on behalf of other participants.
The agency should register this CBO as which participant type?

A. Person
B. Service supplier
C. External party
D. Employer
E. Representative

12. Which three of the following are terms dealing with IBM Cúram Express Rules (CER)?

A. Rule attribute
B. Rule session
C. Rule object
D. Rule repeat
E. Rule flow
F. Rule list group

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1. What is an example of a cloud native application?

A. An application developed using an IBM Cloud hosted integrated development environment and deployed to production on a locally hosted virtual machine
B. A software platform available exclusively on IBM Cloud
C. A containerized application that is deployed on an orchestrated platform
D. A Windows application designed to run both on IBM Cloud and on locally hosted environments

2. Which type of storage is used in a database application that needs consistent fast access to disk?

A. Block Storage
B. Instance Storage
C. Object Storage
D. File Storage

3. Hyperledger fabric is the blockchain implementation used with which IBM Cloud service?

A. Hyperledger Platform
B. Distributed Ledger Platform
C. Blockchain Platform
D. Internet of Things Platform

4. Which part of a cloud implementation is the infrastructure layer most commonly referred to as?

A. Software defined resources
B. Virtual resources
C. Containerized resources
D. Physical resources

5. What is a virtual private cloud?

A. A collection of public virtual machines built on private single tenant hardware
B. A secure, isolated private cloud hosted within a public cloud
C. A collection of private bare metal servers, running single tenant virtual machines
D. A secure, isolated, private cloud hosted on premises

6. According to NIST, what are the five essential characteristics of the cloud?

A. On-demand self-service, broad network access, resource pooling, rapid elasticity, and measured service
B. Networks, firewalls, storage, applications, and services
C. Platform as a service, bring your own software license, ability to reply applications over the internet, software as a service, and private network
D. On-demand network access, dedicated pool of computing resources, direct attached storage, rapid provisioning, and self service

7. What is a benefit of Public Cloud?

A. Offers the most significant economies of scale
B. Offers control of internal IT resources
C. Controls and automates deployments and updates
D. Offers controlled access and greater security measures customized to specific organizational needs

8. What was the earliest implementation of cloud computing?

A. Selling unused time slices
B. LAN parties and cyber cafes
C. Indexing large data sets across universities
D. Providing compute resources for complex problems such as protein folding or asteroid tracking

9. What are containers?

A. Independent units deployed in networking spaces that are logically separated segments
B. A control group that can be run anywhere, desktop, traditional IT, or the cloud
C. An executable unit of software in which application code is packaged
D. A security group that provides security at the instance level such as VSIs

10. An application is comprised of a set of core functions such as product catalog, client ratings, user forums, and each function must be developed and deployed independently of each other. Which architecture supports this requirement?

A. Microservices
B. Platform-as-a-service
C. Fowler
D. Monolithic

11. Which statement is true regarding serverless computing?

A. Users are charged a low hourly rate during idle time for the serverless computing service
B. Implementations differ across service providers, and capabilities vary, including supported runtimes, authentication, scaling and monitoring
C. Serverless application are generally long-running (days or weeks) and stateful (maintain state or information across requests)
D. Serverless is not well-suited for event processing or IOT

12. What is a resource group in IBM Cloud?

A. Application resources that have been placed in the same zone
B. A container for resources to which access privileges can be assigned
C. A set of provisioned services labeled with the same tag
D. A group of resources that can be created on demand using a Teraform script

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A customer needs all users to be authenticated before getting access to the network resources. Which product should you recommend to meet this requirement?

A. ArubaClearPass
B. Aruba Central
C. Aruba Airwave
D. Aruba Introspect

2 –

A customer contacts you for assistance with an expansion of their current HPE Synergy environment. The existing environment contains:

1. one Synergy 12000 frame
2. two Composers
3. eight SY480 Compute Modules – 1 CPU – 384GB RAM – 3820C 10/20GbE CNA
4. one D3940 Storage Module

The new requirement is 16Gb FC connectivity to a newly-deployed 3PAR storage array.
Which components should you include? (Choose two.)

A. Synergy 3830C Host Bus Adapter
B. two QSFP+ AOC/DAC cables for ICM clustering
C. a second CPU per Compute Module
D. HPE Synergy FC License Upgrade per Composer pair
E. an additional Virtual Connect SE 40Gb F8

3 –

Match each HPE Assessment Foundry tool to its primary function.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

4 –

Which HPE ProLiant Server is ideally suited for small, dense computing environments and HPC workloads focused on the Financial Services Industry?

A. HPE ProLiant DL360 Gen10
B. HPE ProLiant DL580 Gen10
C. HPE ProLiant DL180 Gen10
D. HPE ProLiant DL380 Gen10

5 –

A customer is considering a new multi-tier storage platform. The customer likes the easy management of the Nimble platform. Which question should you ask to choose an appropriate Nimble model?

A. What is the estimated IOPS required?
B. Do you require mainframe connectivity?
C. Do you need to support multiple RAID levels?
D. Are you using FC or iSCSI host connectivity?

Reference: https://community.hpe.com/t5/array-performance-and-data/read-iops-on-nimble-storage/td-p/6986262

6 –

A customer needs to replace an existing Microsoft Hyper-V solution on aging hardware. The customer is interested in an HPE SimpliVity solution. What do you need to consider for this solution?

A. System Center Virtual Machine Manager licenses
B. a minimum of four nodes per cluster
C. SSD-only SimpliVity nodes
D. Microsoft Windows Server Datacenter licenses

Reference: http://download.microsoft.com/download/3/D/4/3D42BDC2-6725-4B29-B75AA5B04179958B/WindowsServer2016VirtualTech_VLBrief.pdf

7 –

A customer wants to implement a Microsoft Exchange 2016 solution. Why should the customer choose HPE?

A. HPE has proven reference architecture
B. HPE has more than five years of joint development with Microsoft.
C. HPE is a Microsoft Silver partner in messaging and collaboration.
D. HPE employs Microsoft MVPs.

8 –

A customer wants to deploy Microsoft Storage Spaces Direct using existing FlexFabric 5700 switches. Which RDMA technology is available through the customer\\’s switches?

A. InfiniBand

Reference: https://www.mellanox.com/products/adapter-ethernet-SW/RDMA-RoCE-Ethernet-Network-Efficiency

9 –

In preparation for a customer presentation, you need to create a validated configuration, including services. Which tool should you use?

A. HPE One Configuration Advanced
B. HPE Power Advisor
C. HPE Server Memory Configurator
D. HPE Synergy Planning Tool
E. HPE Proposal Web

10 –

A customer is purchasing a full rack of DL380 Gen10 servers. They are under a severe time constraint and would like the servers to be ready to receive applications upon power-up. What should be recommended to satisfy this requirement?

A. Use HPE Proactive Care services.
B. Use HP Pointnext service patching and OS installation services.
C. Include a Customer Intent Document with the order, requesting OS installation services.
D. Nothing additional: all servers arrive from the factory ready for application deployment.

11 –

Which two metrics are key to guiding data placement decisions? (Choose two.)

A. capacity
B. cache utilization
C. power consumption
D. jitter
E. response time

12 –

Match each item to its function. (Choose all that apply.)
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

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Which methods of calculation within a schedule are used to calculate percent complete with Scheduler Plus?

A. Date, Estimate, Contractor
B. Date, Estimate, Task
C. Actual, Physical, Contractor
D. Actual, Physical, Task


What is the DEFLTREG group used for in Maximo Enterprise Asset Management (EAM)?

A. allows users access to default EAM functionality
B. allows users to change their passwords
C. allows users to self-register into Maximo EAM
D. allows users to customize their Ul experience


Which two data connections are available out of the box with Maximo Asset Health Insights (MAHI)?

A. ATandT Asset Management Operations Center
B. Microsoft Azure Data Lake
C. Google Cloud Platform
D. Amazon Web Services
E. IBM Watson loT Platform
Correct Answer: A


Which two circumstances would be recommended using a Snapshot package to migrate data?

A. when there are few or selective changes
B. when changes are made to a single application
C. when the changes are made by specific users
D. during the initial data load when setting up an environment
E. when there are many changes at the same time


When an abnormal behavior is detected for an asset, what does this mean?

A. a part has been damaged and should be replaced
B. a deviation from normal behavior has occurred and should be investigated
C. an asset is due preventive maintenance work
D. the asset has reached the end of useful life and should be decommissioned


When assigning assets to a Lease/Rental contract, what must a user have?

A. asset owner information
B. rotating item number and associated asset numbers
C. make and model of each asset
D. the asset location


How is the Risk Priority Number per Asset or Location calculated in Maximo Asset Performance Management (APM)?

A. by aggregating the amount of Corrective Work Orders associated to the Asset or Location
B. by aggregating the amount of Failure Modes associated to the Asset or Location
C. by multiplying the Failure Consequence number with the Failure Probability number per Failure Mode
D. by aggregating the Corrective Work Order cost associated to the Asset or Location


An individual organization in Maximo Enterprise Asset Management (EAM) wishes to have a slightly different General Ledger (GL) Account Code structure than others in the database. Where would this be configured?

A. Database Configuration
B. Security Groups
C. Chart of Accounts
D. Organization


Which two Maximo Enterprise Asset Management Security (EAM) Groups are available out of the box?



Which is a limitation to a Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML)-only authentication?

A. E-Signatures are not supported via SAML
B. Basic Authentication headers continue to be supported
C. Security for Cognos reporting is properly enabled
D. Requires two-factor authentication


Which three entities can you connect a Maximo Asset Performance Management (APM) Mitigating Action?

A. Work Order
B. Item
C. Routes D D. Asset
D. Preventive Maintenance (PM)
E. Job Plan


Which statement is true regarding uncertainty data for calibrations performed in Maximo for Life Sciences?

A. Maximo for Life Sciences performs the uncertainty calculations and records the information in the job plan.
B. Maximo for Life Sciences performs the uncertainty calculations, however the data is non-persistent and not recorded in Maximo.
C. Maximo for Life Sciences does not provide for the recording of uncertainty data.
D. Third party software is typically used for performing the uncertainty calculations, which are uploaded into Maximo for Life Sciences via batch process or integration.

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Refer to the exhibit, which reflects the Bill of Materials (BOM) configuration for one datacenter.

A customer needs a new storage solution of two HPE 3PAR 8440 arrays. The customer\’s environment consists of eight physical servers in each data center attached to the SAN and one StoreOnce 3540 system with two FC I/O cards.
The distance between data centers is less than 75 meters.
What should you add to the BOM to meet the customer’s needs?

A. one HPE 25m Mini SAS High-Density Active Optical Cable for each HPE 3PAR 8440
B. one HPR 3PAR StoreServ AC RPS Service Processor
C. one HPE 3PAR StoreServ 8000 Direct Connect Cabling Option for Drive Enclosure for each HPE 3PAR 8440
D. one HPE SN3000B SAN Switch 12-port Upgrade E-LTU per switch, the appropriate number of SFPs and cables

Correct Answer: B


A customer needs a new replication solution that makes use of capacity efficiency technologies, even though data is being replicated to another array. You have been developing a solution that includes two HPE 3PAR arrays. What should you emphasize in your proposal?

A. The arrays share deduplication hash tables, and the target array only needs to compress the replicated data from the source array
B. Compression technologies increase the effective bandwidth being available for replication and disaster recovery
C. Thin Technologies, deduplication, and compression can be used on both sides with volumes in Remote Copy groups
D. The data being replicated will travel the connection between the arrays fully compressed and deduplicated

Correct Answer: D


An HPE Nimble customer needs to consolidate storage and scale performance. They are looking to purchase additional hardware to meet these requirements. What is the best solution to offer this customer?

A. Add additional SSDs to the cache
B. Use multiple single-array storage pools
C. Add additional HBAs in the arrays
D. Use multi-array storage pools

Correct Answer: D


A customer is interested in using HPE InfoSight Cross-stack Analytics for VMware.
Where does the customer need to make the appropriate configuration changes to make this active?

A. VMware vCenter
C. HPE InfoSight Portal
D. HPE 3PAR Service Processor

Correct Answer: C


A customer has two HPE 3PAR arrays which are using Remote Copy and AO. The customer notices a large portion of the data is residing in the NL tier of the secondary array, while all tiers are utilized evenly on the primary array. Which statement about the secondary array behavior is true?

A. The NL CPG in the second array is larger
B. This is normal behavior for AO
C. There is an improper AO configuration on the secondary array
D. AO should not be used with Remote Copy configurations

Correct Answer: B


Refer to the exhibit.

A customer is considering a new HPE 3PAR for the purpose of implementing deduplication and compression. Based on the output returned from the NinjaCrawler tool, what do you know about the customer data?

A. This data is a good candidate for HPE 3PAR deduplication
B. This data has a video data workload profile
C. This data is from an HP-UX system
D. This data has a block size that is not optimal for HPE 3PAR

Correct Answer: A


A customer has two HPE Nimble arrays that are replication partners. The replication schedule is set to every hour. After replication is completed at 1:00 pm, the array at the primary site suffers a power failure.
Applications were failed over successfully by the administrators, and production continued on the secondary site array as designed.

At 3:00 pm, the power was restored to the primary site array.
What does the administrator need to do first to restore services in the primary site?

A. Perform handover from the second array to the primary array
B. Create a new replication partnership from the primary array to the secondary array
C. Create a new replication partnership from the second array to the primary array
D. Perform a failback of the existing replication partnership to the primary array

Correct Answer: A


A customer has a Tier 1 application that has high bandwidth and is sensitive to latency.
The customer needs a solution to support this application. The solution must support replication between two sites over dark fiber links and support an RPO of zero.

Which solution meets the customer requirements?

A. dual HPE 3PAR 9450 arrays with data replicated using RCFC
B. dual Nimble AF40 arrays with data replicated over FC
C. dual HPE 3PAR 8400 arrays with data replicated using iSCSI
D. dual Nimble HF20 arrays with data replicated over iSCSI

Correct Answer: C


A customer needs to upgrade their existing HPE 3PAR environment. They ask you to present a solution to gather data from all 200 of their HPE 3PARs arrays, which are spread across the globe. The arrays consist of various generations and OS levels, and they are managed by regional instances of SSMC. What should you present to the customer as a solution?

A. using an HPE 3PAR CLI script with the check upgrade command
B. using a script based on the HPE 3PAR Web Services API
C. using the upgrade report tool in HPE InfoSight
D. using the SSMC array configuration reports

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://support.hpe.com/hpsc/doc/public/display?docId=c05243943


Refer to the Exhibit.

A customer with an existing HPE Nimble installation sends you the output shown. The administrator who initially set up the replication has left the company. They ask you what the current RPO level for their replication is. How should you respond?

A. They need to verify the RPO level from the host vc-ms-fileserver
B. They have an RPO of four minutes
C. They need to send a screenshot of the volumes tab
D. They have an RPO of two minutes

Correct Answer: B


How does the HPE Nimble Storage product strategy support a customer\’s investment protection requirements for today and the future?

A. by supporting replication with arrays from other vendors
B. by supporting the implementation of third party cache, spinning media, and flash media
C. by supporting replication between current and previous-generation array models
D. by supporting the repurposing of obsolete array controllers as high-density servers

Correct Answer: B


A customer has three 4-node HPE 3PAR arrays. Two of the arrays are deployed at a primary site, and the third array is deployed at a disaster recovery site. Both arrays at the primary site are replicated to the single array at the disaster recovery site.

All replication is asynchronous periodic. All arrays are utilizing 4 RCIP links for replication.
The customer needs to add a third array at the primary site. They would like to use the existing array at the disaster recovery site as a replication target for this additional array.

What must the architect consider to meet this customer requirement?

A. A single pair of RCIP ports on one array can have a Remote Copy relationship with up to two other arrays
B. Remote Copy fan-in ratios of greater than 2:1 are only supported with RCIP when using 10 Gb Ethernet links
C. Arrays involved in a Remote Copy relationship must have the same number of node pairs
D. Asynchronous streaming replication must be used for Remote Copy fan-in ratios greater than 2:1

Correct Answer: A

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