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Latest CompTIA CySA+ CS0-002 exam exercise questions 1-13 online

QUESTION 1
A development team uses open-source software and follows an Agile methodology with two-week sprints. Last month,
the security team filed a bug for an insecure version of a common library. The DevOps team updated the library on the
server, and then the security team rescanned the server to verify it was no longer vulnerable. This month, the security
team found the same vulnerability on the server.
Which of the following should be done to correct the cause of the vulnerability?
A. Deploy a WAF in front of the application.
B. Implement a software repository management tool.
C. Install a HIPS on the server.
D. Instruct the developers to use input validation in the code.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 2
An employee in the billing department accidentally sent a spreadsheet containing payment card data to a recipient
outside the organization The employee intended to send the spreadsheet to an internal staff member with a similar
name and was unaware of the mistake until the recipient replied to the message In addition to retraining the employee,
which of the following would prevent this from happening in the future?
A. Implement outgoing filter rules to quarantine messages that contain card data
B. Configure the outgoing mail filter to allow attachments only to addresses on the whitelist
C. Remove all external recipients from the employee\\’s address book
D. Set the outgoing mail filter to strip spreadsheet attachments from all messages.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 3
During routine monitoring, a security analyst discovers several suspicious websites that are communicating with a local
host. The analyst queries for IP 192.168.50.2 for a 24-hour period:

cs0-002 exam questions-q3

To further investigate, the analyst should request PCAP for SRC 192.168.50.2 and __________.
A. DST 138.10.2.5.
B. DST 138.10.25.5.
C. DST 172.10.3.5.
D. DST 172.10.45.5.
E. DST 175.35.20.5.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which of the following technologies can be used to house the entropy keys for disk encryption on desktops and
laptops?
A. Self-encrypting drive
B. Bus encryption
C. TPM
D. HSM
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
A web developer wants to create a new web part within the company website that aggregates sales from individual team
sites. A cybersecurity analyst wants to ensure security measurements are implemented during this process. Which of
the following remediation actions should the analyst take to implement a vulnerability management process?
A. Personnel training
B. Vulnerability scan
C. Change management
D. Sandboxing
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 6
Which of the following is the use of tools to simulate the ability for an attacker to gain access to a specified network?
A. Reverse engineering
B. Fuzzing
C. Penetration testing
D. Network mapping
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) is concerned the development team, which consists of contractors, has too
much access to customer data. Developers use personal workstations, giving the company little to no visibility into the
development activities.
Which of the following would be BEST to implement to alleviate the CISO\\’s concern?
A. DLP
B. Encryption
C. Test data
D. NDA
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
A security analyst conducted a risk assessment on an organization\\’s wireless network and identified a high-risk
element in the implementation of data confidentially protection. Which of the following is the BEST technical security
control to mitigate this risk?
A. Switch to RADIUS technology
B. Switch to TACACS+ technology.
C. Switch to 802 IX technology
D. Switch to the WPA2 protocol.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 9
Which of the following should be found within an organization\\’s acceptable use policy?
A. Passwords must be eight characters in length and contain at least one special character.
B. Customer data must be handled properly, stored on company servers, and encrypted when possible
C. Administrator accounts must be audited monthly, and inactive accounts should be removed.
D. Consequences of violating the policy could include discipline up to and including termination.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Bootloader malware was recently discovered on several company workstations. All the workstations run Windows and
are current models with UEFI capability. Which of the following UEFI settings is the MOST likely cause of the
infections?
A. Compatibility mode
B. Secure boot mode
C. Native mode
D. Fast boot mode
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
A security analyst is responding to an incident on a web server on the company network that is making a large number
of outbound requests over DNS Which of the following is the FIRST step the analyst should take to evaluate this
potential indicator of compromise\\’?
A. Run an anti-malware scan on the system to detect and eradicate the current threat
B. Start a network capture on the system to look into the DNS requests to validate command and control traffic.
C. Shut down the system to prevent further degradation of the company network
D. Reimage the machine to remove the threat completely and get back to a normal running state.
E. Isolate the system on the network to ensure it cannot access other systems while evaluation is underway.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
A security analyst is reviewing the logs from an internal chat server. The chat.log file is too large to review manually, so
the analyst wants to create a shorter log file that only includes lines associated with a user demonstrating anomalous
activity. Below is a snippet of the log:

cs0-002 exam questions-q12

Which of the following commands would work BEST to achieve the desired result?
A. grep -v chatter14 chat.log
B. grep -i pythonfun chat.log
C. grep -i javashark chat.log
D. grep -v javashark chat.log
E. grep -v pythonfun chat.log
F. grep -i chatter14 chat.log
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
During an investigation, a security analyst identified machines that are infected with malware the antivirus was unable to
detect. Which of the following is the BEST place to acquire evidence to perform data carving?
A. The system memory
B. The hard drive
C. Network packets
D. The Windows Registry
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://resources.infosecinstitute.com/memory-forensics/#gref https://www.computerhope.com/jargon/d/datacarving.htm

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hpe0-v14

HP hpe0-v14 exam practice test 1-8

QUESTION 1
You are creating an internal array on an HPE ProLiant server. What can you do to maximize the storage space
efficiency?
A. Populate drive bays with the smallest-capacity drive first.
B. Install drives that have the same capacity.
C. Match the device numbers for the drives with their bay numbers.
D. Populate drive bays with the largest-capacity drive first.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 2
Which two HPE applications are installed on Windows operating systems with intelligent Provisioning? (Choose two.)
A. Lights-Out Online Configuration Utility
B. OneView
C. UEFI Control Suite
D. Intelligent Management Center
E. Smart Storage Administrator
Correct Answer: AE


QUESTION 3
DRAG DROP
A customer is considering an upgrade of their networking infrastructure with HPE FlexFabric 5940 series switch.
Match the fan tray option with the airflow direction.
Select and Place:

hpe0-v14 exam questions-q3

QUESTION 4
When is it appropriate for a customer to implement HPE OneView Standard?
A. To manage multiple servers
B. To monitor their services
C. To enable the Advanced iLO license
D. To update firmware
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/v2/GetPDF.aspx/c04111367.pdf

QUESTION 5
You are installing HPE ProLiant servers into a rack that will be fully loaded. You also need to install four power
distribution units (PDUs) in the rack. How should you install the PDUs to maximize power distribution and space
efficiency?
A. at the top of the rack with the cables running between the RETMA rails
B. horizontally on extension bars mounted directly to the frame for improved clearance
C. in the bottom bay of the rack with the outlets facing the front
D. vertically, side by side on both sides of the rack with the outlets facing the center
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 6
A customer has an application that consumes 500 GB storage and requires an RTO and PRO of 15 minutes.
Which backup and recovery technology enables the customer to meet their requirements in the most cost-effective
manner?
A. offsite tape backup
B. remote storage replication
C. log shipping
D. disk-to-disk appliance
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 7
A customer needs a solution that supports rapid provisioning changes on physical bare-metal servers and on a
virtualization hypervisor. They are considering migrating to a new solution that supports software-defined storage.
Which HPE compute platform should the customer implement?
A. ProLiant DL
B. BladeSystem
C. Synergy
D. SimpliVity
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
A customer is considering an HPE ProLiant DL380 Gen10 server for their data center. The customer runs a large Oracle
database. They need to increase performance and reduce their licensing costs. Which feature of HPE Gen10 servers
offers these benefits?
A. workload profile matching
B. agentless management
C. jitter smoothing
D. core boosting
Correct Answer: D

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HP HPE2-T36 exam practice test 1-8

QUESTION 1
What is required for a user to authenticate to an HPE OneView appliance configured for two-factor authentication?
A. Smartcard
B. Self-signed certificate
C. SMS
D. One-time Passwords
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 2
A customer is preparing their environment for a new two frame Synergy configuration. They have deployed an HPE
OneView virtual appliance on ESXi and are not able to discover the new Synergy frames. What is preventing the
discovery of the Synergy frames?
A. Synergy isn\\’t supported with the HPE OneView appliance.
B. The IPv6 address of the Frame Link module is entered incorrectly.
C. The x.509 certificates aren\\’t authenticating with the HPE OneView appliance.
D. The management ring isn\\’t cabled properly.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 3
Which license is required to remotely access the DL server console and event logs?
A. HPE OneView Advanced
B. Insight Remote Support
C. iLO Amplifier pack
D. Global Dashboard
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 4
Your customer reports receiving an error after re-configuring some uplink sets. The error states that their Logical
Interconnects are non-compliant with the Logical Interconnect Group. What must they do to clear this error?
A. Delete the affected Logical Interconnect Group and recreate it.
B. Go to HPE OneView Dashboard to acknowledge the error.
C. Update the Enclosure Group configuration with the new uplink set information.
D. Go to Logical Interconnect and select “update” from the group options.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
What does HPE OneView use to define the network connectivity for an Enclosure Group?
A. Logical Switch Group
B. Logical Interconnect Group
C. Smart Link
D. network set
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 6
Which REST API headers are recommended when creating a new Ethernet network? (Choose two.)
A. Content-Type
B. X-API-Version
C. Accept-Language
D. Accept-CharSet
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 7
Which condition will prevent HPE OneView from reapplying a server profile?
A. The server hardware matches the server hardware type defined in the profile.
B. The server profile is assigned to the server hardware.
C. The server hardware is in a degraded state.
D. The server hardware is powered off.
Correct Answer: B
 

QUESTION 8
DRAG DROP
Match the HPE OneView element to its function.
Select and Place:

hpe2-t36 exam questions-q8

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hpe6-a66

HP HPE6-A66 exam practice test 1-8

QUESTION 1
A customer is designing a new wired network. The customer requires 50 Gbps uplinks, VSF logical switching, and smart
rate port support.
Which of the following switches would meet these requirements?
A. 3810M series
B. 6300 series
C. 5400R series
D. 8300 series
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 2
A network architect has developed a design for a new Aruba Wi-Fi network that will include a virtual Mobility Master
(MM) running the ArubaOS 8.4 operating system that will manage:
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 3
A network architect imports a floorplan defined in a PNG file format. What is the function of the measurement tool in
Aruba\\’s VisualRF?
A. Define the appropriate dimensions of each object in a Floorplan View
B. Define the appropriate dimensions of a Floorplan and Building View
C. Define the appropriate dimensions of a Floorplan View
D. Define the appropriate dimensions of each room in a Floorplan View
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
What is the main key for a network design to ensure users have a good experience running their applications\\’?
A. Provision adequate bandwidth.
B. Provide appropriate AP density.
C. Determine the number of users per location.
D. Implement appropriate security controls
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 5
A customer requires Aruba switches that support Smart Rate ports to connect to Aruba APs.
Which switching product should the customer purchase that will provide 24 Smart Rate ports per access layer switch\\’?
A. OfficeConnect 1950
B. Aruba 2930F
C. Aruba 2930M
D. Aruba 2540
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 6
Which must you perform in IRIS to assign a device to a Design Group?
A. Right-click the device and select Set Layer Membership
B. Right-click the device and select Set Design Group
C. Drag and drop the device into the Site
D. Drag and drop the device into the Design Group
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
NewRocket requires a wireless capacity design 30 Aruba 510 APs will be connected to each wiring closet using
SmartRate connections. Wireless coverage needs to be provided even if a POE+ switch loses power
Because of security concerns, wired video cameras were recently installed throughout the facility. There are 12 of these
per floor. 6 per wiring closet. The cameras are 802.11n WiFi capable and have power injectors from which to draw
power.
Based on the POE+ needs of the mentioned devices, which solution would meet the POE+ requirements while still
providing a redundant and cost-effective Wi-Fi solution for the devices that require POE+ for Building 1, Floor 2?
A. One 3810M 40G 8 HPE Smart Rate switch
B. Two 2930F 24-port POE+ switches
C. Two 2930M 24-port POE+ switches
D. One 2930M 48-port POE+ switch
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 8
A customer currently has sets of three Aruba 5406R switches deployed for an access layer in multiple wiring closets in a
building They are clustered in a VSF domain The customer wants to set up Multiple Active Detection (MAD) for the
OOBM port, as well as use this port for remote management access. To simplify the connectivity, the customer wants to
connect these three switches\\’ OOBM ports to a separate switch in the wiring closet for the OOBM connectivity. Which
would be the most cost-effective solution that would meet the customer\\’s requirements?
A. 2530
B. 5406R
C. 2930F
D. 2930M
Correct Answer: A

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hpe6-a68

HP HPE6-A68 exam practice test 1-8

QUESTION 1
Which authorization servers are supported by ClearPass? (Choose two.)
A. Active Directory
B. Cisco Controller
C. Aruba Controller
D. LDAP server
E. Aruba Mobility Access Switch
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.

hpe6-a68 exam questions-q2

An AD user\\’s department attribute value is configured as “QA”. The user authenticates from a laptop running MAC OS
X. Which role is assigned to the user in ClearPass?
A. HR Local
B. Remote Employee
C. [Guest]
D. iOS Device
E. Executive
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.

hpe6-a68 exam questions-q3

Which statement accurately describes the cp82 ClearPass node? (Choose two.)
A. It stays as a Subscriber when the Publisher fails.
B. It becomes the Publisher when the primary Publisher fails.
C. It operates as a Publisher in a separate cluster when the Publisher is active.
D. It operates as a Publisher in the same cluster as the primary Publisher when the primary is active.
E. It operates as a Subscriber when the Publisher is active.
Correct Answer: AE


QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.

hpe6-a68 exam questions-q4

What is the purpose of the `Clock Skew Allowance\\’ setting? (Choose tow.)
A. to ensure server certificate validation does not fail due to client clock sync issues
B. to set expiry time in client certificate to a few minutes longer that the default setting
C. to adjust clock time on client device to a few minutes before current time
D. to ensure client certificate validation does not fail due to client clock sync issues
E. to set start time in client certificate to a few minutes before current time
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.

hpe6-a68 exam questions-q5

Based on the configuration for the client\\’s certificate private key as shown, which statements accurately describe the
settings? (Choose two.)
A. More bits in the private key will increase security.
B. The private key for TLS client certificates is not created.
C. The private key is stored in the ClearPass server.
D. More bits in the private key will reduce security.
E. The private key is stored in the user device.
Correct Answer: AE


QUESTION 6
A customer with an Aruba Controller wants to set it up to work with ClearPass Guest.
Hoe should they configure ClearPass as an authentication server in the controller so that guests are able to authenticate
successfully?
A. Add ClearPass as RADIUS CoA server.
B. Add ClearPass as a TACACS+ authentication server.
C. Add ClearPass as a RADIUS authentication server.
D. Add ClearPass as a HTTPS authentication server.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.

hpe6-a68 exam questions-q7

Based on the Enforcement Policy configuration, when a user with Role Engineer connects to the network and the
posture token assigned is Unknown, which Enforcement Profile will be applied?
A. RestrictedACL
B. HR VLAN
C. Remote Employee ACL
D. [Deny Access Profile]
E. EMPLOYEE_VLAN
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.

hpe6-a68 exam questions-q8

What does the Cache Timeout Value refer to?
A. The amount of time the Policy Manager caches the user credentials stored in the Active Directory.
B. The amount of time the Policy Manager waits for a response from the Active Directory before checking the backup
authentication source.
C. The amount of time the Policy Manager caches the user attributes fetched from Active Directory.
D. The amount of time the Policy Manager waits for response from the Active Directory before sending a timeout
message to the Network Access Device.
E. The amount of time the Policy Manager caches the user\s client certificate.
Correct Answer: C

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hpe6-a70

HP HPE6-A70 exam practice test 1-8

QUESTION 1
Which APs operate in an autonomous or standalone mode?
A. remote APs (RAPs)
B. spectrum analyzers (SAs)
C. mesh points (APs)
D. instant AP (IAP) clusters
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.

hpe6-a70 exam questions-q2

The alias in the rule shown in the exhibit is network 10.1.1.0/24. A wireless client is assigned IP address 10.1.2.10/24
and the “admins” role. The wireless client at 10.1.2.10 attempts to initiate a Web session with a server at 10.1.1.2. A
wired
client at 10.1.1.3 attempts to initiate an SSH session with the wireless client at 10.1.2.10.
How does the Aruba firewall handle these attempts?
A. The firewall drops the traffic from the wireless client. The firewall drops the traffic from the wired client.
B. The firewall permits the traffic from the wireless client, but drops the return traffic from the server.The firewall drops
the traffic from the wireless client.
C. The firewall permits the traffic from the wireless client and also permits the return traffic from the server. The firewall
permits the traffic from the wired client and also permits the return traffic from the wireless client.
D. The firewall permits the traffic from the wireless client and also permits the return traffic from the server. The firewall
drops the traffic from the wired client.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Network administrators use the wizard to create a WLAN that uses WPA2-Enterprise security to a RADIUS server at
10.21.98.55. They do not manually change any settings. Which device determines the EAP type that the wireless clients
must support?
A. Mobility Master (MM)
B. Mobility Controller (MC)
C. RADIUS server
D. AP
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.

hpe6-a70 exam questions-q4

A network administrator sets up the Exam_Employees WLAN on an Aruba solution with a default role of guest, as
shown in the exhibit. To which users does the guest role apply?
A. users who successfully authenticate and are assigned to the default role by the RADIUS server
B. users who successfully authenticate and are not assigned a different role by the RADIUS server
C. users who have connected to the SSID, but have not yet attempted authentication
D. users who fail authentication
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibits.
Exhibit 1

hpe6-a70 exam questions-q5

Exhibit 2 A network administrator configures a guest WLAN on an Aruba Mobility Master (MM)-based solution. The
exhibits show some of the settings for this WLAN. Which settings must the administrator configure on each Mobility
Controller (MC) at the device level for this configuration to function properly?

hpe6-a70 exam questions-q5-2

A. an IPsec preshared key
B. CPSec certificates
C. a portal page
D. VLAN 99 IP settings
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 6
A company has an Aruba solution and wants to provide guests with wireless access. The company wants to assign
guests IP addresses in subnets that exist only within the Aruba solution. Which feature should network administrators
set up so guests can send traffic on the Internet without changes to the company routing solution?
A. Enable NAT on the VLAN assigned to the guest WLAN.
B. Set up a dynamic default gateway on the Mobility Controllers (MCs).
C. Create destination NAT rules for the guest role.
D. Enable policy-based routing for the guest traffic.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
A network administrator has installed PEF licenses in the global pool of a Mobility Master (MM) solution. When the
administrator tries to configure roles and policies, an error indicates that the PEF licenses must be installed.
What should the administrator do to correct this issue?
A. Ensure the PEF licenses were installed at the Managed Network and not at the MM level.
B. Enable Building 1 as a local license pool.
C. Enable the PEF feature in the Global Usage window.
D. Activate the PEF licenses through an Aruba Activate account.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 8
What is one difference between how a network administrator can monitor clients in the Mobility (MM) interface and in
the AirWave Management Platform?
A. AirWave shows trends for the past several minutes, while MM shows longer trends.
B. AirWave combines information from more sources, such as RADIUS authenticating servers and APs.
C. AirWave shows the current signal level for the client connection, while MM does not show RF statistics.
D. MM shows user and role information associated with clients, while AirWave does not.
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
With MTA (Mail Transfer Agent) enabled the gateways to manages SMTP traffic and holds external email with potentially
malicious attachments. What is required in order to enable MTA (Mail Transfer Agent) functionality in the Security
Gateway?
A. Threat Cloud Intelligence
B. Threat Prevention Software Blade Package
C. Endpoint Total Protection
D. Traffic on port 25
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 2
If you needed the Multicast MAC address of a cluster, what command would you run?
A. cphaprob -a if
B. cphaconf ccp multicast
C. cphaconf debug data
D. cphaprob igmp
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 3
In which formats can Threat Emulation forensics reports be viewed in?
A. TXT, XML and CSV
B. PDF and TXT
C. PDF, HTML, and XML
D. PDF and HTML
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 4
The back end database for Check Point R80 Management uses:
A. DBMS
B. MongoDB
C. PostgreSQL
D. MySQL
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 5
What are the types of Check Point APIs available currently as part of the R80.10 code?
A. Security Gateway API Management API, Threat Prevention API, and Identity Awareness Web Services API
B. Management API, Threat Prevention API, Identity Awareness Web Services API, and OPSEC SDK API
C. OSE API, OPSEC SDK API, Threat Extraction API, and Policy Editor API
D. CPMI API, Management API, Threat Prevention API, and Identity Awareness Web Services API
Correct Answer: B
Reference: http://dl3.checkpoint.com/paid/29/29532b9eec50d0a947719ae631f640d0/CP_R80_CheckPoint_API_ReferenceGuide.pdf?HashKey=1517088487_4c0acda205460a92f44c83d399826a7bandxtn=.pdf


QUESTION 6
What are the steps to configure the HTTPS Inspection Policy?
A. Go to ManageandSettings > Blades > HTTPS Inspection > Configure in SmartDashboard
B. Go to Applicationandurl filtering blade > Advanced > Https Inspection > Policy
C. Go to ManageandSettings > Blades > HTTPS Inspection > Policy
D. Go to Applicationandurl filtering blade > Https Inspection > Policy
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 7
Which of the SecureXL templates are enabled by default on Security Gateway?
A. Accept
B. Drop
C. NAT
D. None
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 8
While using the Gaia CLI. what is the correct command to publish changes to the management server?
A. json publish
B. mgmt publish
C. mgmt_cli commit
D. commit
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 9
What is the protocol and port used for Health Check and State Synchronization in ClusterXL?
A. CCP and 18190
B. CCP and 257
C. CCP and 8116
D. CPC and 8116
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_ClusterXL_AdminGuide/index.html

QUESTION 10
There are two R77.30 Security Gateways in the Firewall Cluster. They are named FW_A and FW_B. The cluster is
configured to work as HA (High availability) with default cluster configuration. FW_A is configured to have a higher priority
than FW_B. FW_A was active and processing the traffic in the morning. FW_B was on standby. Around 1100 am, its
interfaces went down and this caused a failover. FW_B became active. After an hour, FW_A\\’s interface issues were
resolved and it became operational.
When it re-joins the cluster, will it become active automatically?
A. No, since the `maintain\\’ current active cluster member\\’ option on the cluster object properties is enabled by default.
B. No, since the `maintain\\’ current active cluster member\\’ option is enabled by default on the Global Properties.
C. Yes, since the `Switch to higher priority cluster member\\’ option on the cluster object properties is enabled by default.
D. Yes, since the `Switch to higher priority cluster member\\’ option is enabled by default on the Global Properties.
Correct Answer: A   Reference: http://dl3.checkpoint.com/paid/7e/7ef174cf00762ceaf228384ea20ea64a/CP_R77_ClusterXL_AdminGuide.pdf?HashKey=1479822138_31410b1f8360074be87fd8f1ab682464andxtn=.pdf


QUESTION 11
Which command shows detailed information about VPN tunnels?
A. cat $FWDIR/conf/vpn.conf
B. vpn tu tlist
C. vpn tu
D. cpview
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80.20_GA/WebAdminGuides/EN/CP_R80.20_CLI_ReferenceGuide/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R80.20_GA/WebAdminGuides/EN/CP_R80.20_CLI_ReferenceGuide/209239


QUESTION 12
In R80, where do you manage your Mobile Access Policy?
A. Access Control Policy
B. Through the Mobile Console
C. Shared Gateways Policy
D. From the Dedicated Mobility Tab
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 13
What is the least amount of CPU cores required to enable CoreXL?
A. 2
B. 1
C. 4
D. 6
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_PerformanceTuning_WebAdmin/6731.htm
 

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QUESTION 1
Which three requirements should be gathered during a design workshop? (Choose three.)
A. Constraints
B. Recoverability
C. Manageability
D. Risks
E. Requirements
Correct Answer: ACD


QUESTION 2
A company is starting a cloud deployment project. They have a requirement to provide one time and operational pricing
for virtual machine provisioning by line of business. Which two vRealize Suite products will meet the requirements?
A. vRealize Automation
B. vRealize Operations Manager
C. vRealize Organizer
D. vRealize Orchestrator
E. vRealize Business
Correct Answer: AE
Reference: https://www.vmware.com/products/vrealize-automation.html


QUESTION 3
Which feature of VMware vSphere will enable migration of powered-on virtual machines to another host in an ESXI
environment?
A. High Availability
B. vMotion
C. vSphere Replication
D. Fault Tolerance
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
A supervisor wants employees to seamlessly log into remote applications without having to enter their credentials
multiple times. What is required to support true Single Sign On (SSO)?
A. Horizon 7 and Windows Server 2016
B. Horizon 7 and any Linux Operating System
C. Only Horizon 7 is required
D. Horizon 7 and Identity Manager
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-Horizon-7/7.3/horizon-architecture-planning/GUIDE8152572-1B10-42C2-B605-1EF738AC2D20.html


QUESTION 5
In which form does Virtual SAN store and manage data?
A. Files
B. Disks
C. Objects
D. Blocks
Correct Answer: C
Virtual SAN stores and manages data in the form of flexible data containers called objects. An object is a logical volume
that has its data and metadata distributed and accessed across the entire cluster. Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-vSphere/5.5/com.vmware.vsphere.storage.doc/GUID-2B3B720F-0A7E-4B4B-883F-85A39C1A6C5A.html

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QUESTION 1
One of your virtual machines (VM) has performance issues and sometimes is unresponsive. Which VM file must be
checked in order to find the root cause?
A. vpxd.log
B. ds.log
C. vminst.log
D. vmware.log
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 2
A vSphere administrator has been tasked with ensuring that 500 virtual desktops are unable to communicate with one
another, but can communicate with required services. Which two solutions does VMware recommend? (Choose two.)
A. vSphere Host Firewall
B. Private VLAN
C. VMware NSX Distributed Firewall
D. Port Filtering
Correct Answer: BC


QUESTION 3
Which is a valid requirement for deploying the vCenter Server Appliance 6.x to a DRS cluster?
A. At least one host in the cluster must be in maintenance mode or lockdown mode.
B. One ESXi host in the cluster must not be in maintenance mode or lockdown mode.
C. All ESXi hosts in the cluster must not be in maintenance mode.
D. One ESXi host in the cluster must not be in lockdown mode.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which two statements are correct when licensing an ESXi 6.x host? (Choose two.)
A. ESXi licenses can only applied to ESXi hosts connected to a vCenter Server.
B. Bulk licensing requires vSphere Auto Deploy to be enabled.
C. ESXi licenses can be assigned utilizing the ESXi host client.
D. Bulk licensing requires vSphere PowerCLI.
Correct Answer: CD
Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMwarevSphere/6.5/com.vmware.vsphere.install.doc/GUID-28D25806-748B-49C0-97A1-E7DE5CB335A9.html


QUESTION 5
What are two requirements needed to enable a 4 vCPU virtual machine with Fault Tolerance? (Choose two.)
A. vSphere Enterprise Plus license
B. 1 GbE uplink for FT logging network
C. vSphere Standard license
D. 10 GbE uplink for FT logging network
Correct Answer: AD
Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMwarevSphere/6.5/com.vmware.vsphere.avail.doc/GUID-57929CF0-DA9B-407A-BF2E-E7B72708D825.html

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QUESTION 1
An NSX administrator has been tasked with deploying a NSX Edge Virtual machine through an ISO image.
Which virtual network interface card (vNIC) type must be selected while creating the NSX Edge VM to allow participation
in overlay and VLAN transport zones?
A. VMXNET3
B. VMXNET2
C. e1000
D. Flexible
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://vdc-download.vmware.com/vmwb-repository/dcr-public/182d387c-eaa8-4cdc-812d-8cb25812fefd/d09cad1f-553d-4c9e-a5b1-6544280eec25/NSX-T%20Command-Line%20Interface%20Reference.html


QUESTION 2
Which CLI command is used to start the NSX Manager virtual machine in the KVM environment?
A. virsh start
B. virsh poweron
C. virsh poweron
D. virsh start
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-NSX-T-DataCenter/2.1/com.vmware.nsxt.install.doc/GUID-928BAF6E-4684-43A0-8766-8FE191FE1FA7.html

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initiate communication with public networks?
A. Reverse NAT
B. SNAT
C. 1:1 NAT
D. DNAT
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which NSX CLI command is used to change the authentication policy for local users?
A. set cli-timeout
B. set hardening-policy
C. get auth-policy minimum-password-length
D. set auth-policy
Correct Answer: C
Reference https://vdc-download.vmware.com/vmwb-repository/dcr-public/182d387c-eaa8-4cdc-812d-8cb25812fefd/d09cad1f-553d-4c9e-a5b1-6544280eec25/NSX-T%20Command-Line%20Interface%20Reference.html


QUESTION 5
Which TraceFlow traffic type should an NSX administrator use for validating connectivity between App and DB virtual
machines that reside on different segments?
A. Multicast
B. Anycast
C. Broadcast
D. Unicast
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://images.nsx.techzone.vmware.com/sites/default/files/NSXT%20Reference%20Design%20Guide%20Version%202.0.pdf

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QUESTION 1
When do Development Team members take ownership of a Sprint Backlog item?
A. At the Sprint planning meeting.
B. During the Daily Scrum.
C. Never. All Sprint Backlog Items are “owned” by the entire Development Team, even though each one may be done
by an individual Development Team member.
D. Whenever a team member can accommodate more work.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which of the following might the Scrum Team discuss during a Sprint Retrospective?
A. Methods of communication.
B. The way the Scrum Team does Sprint Planning.
C. Skills needed to improve the Development Team\\’s ability to deliver.
D. Its Definition of “Done”.
E. All of the above.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 3
Who must attend the Daily Scrum?
A. The Scrum Master and Product Owner.
B. The Development Team.
C. The Development Team and Product Owner.
D. The Scrum Team.
E. The Development Team and Scrum Master.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
You are the Scrum Master for four Scrum Teams working from the same Product Backlog. Several of the developers
come to you complaining that work identified for the upcoming two Sprints will require full-time commitment from a
technical specialist who is external to the teams. What are two key concerns for the Scrum Master to take into account
in this situation? (Choose two.)
A. The desire to maintain a stable velocity.
B. The benefit of Development Teams figuring out a solution for themselves.
C. The need to have enough work to keep all Development Team members busy.
D. The ability of the Development Teams to produce integrated Increments.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 5
Which two activities will a Product Owner engage in during a Sprint? (Choose two.)
A. Run the Daily Scrum.
B. Prioritize the Development Team\\’s work on the Sprint Backlog.
C. Update the Sprint burndown chart.
D. Answer questions from the Development Team about items in the current Sprint.
E. Work with the stakeholders.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 6
When is implementation of a Product Backlog item considered complete?
A. At the end of the Sprint.
B. When the item has no work remaining in order to be potentially released.
C. When QA reports that the item passes all acceptance criteria.
D. When all work in the Sprint Backlog related to the item is finished.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
A properly functioning Scrum Team will have at least one Release Sprint and may well have several.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which of the following are roles on a Scrum Team? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Users
B. Scrum Master
C. Product Owner
D. Development Team
E. Customers
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 9
Cross-functional teams are optimized to work on one technical layer of a system only (e.g. GUI, database, middle tier,
interfaces).
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Multiple Scrum Teams working on the same product or system all select work from the same Product Backlog.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Why does the Product Owner want the Development Team to adhere to its definition of “Done”?
A. To have complete transparency into what has been done at the end of each Sprint.
B. To be able to reprimand the team when they don\\’t meet their velocity goal for the Sprint.
C. To know what the team will deliver over the next three Sprints.
D. To predict the team\\’s productivity over time.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
What are three ways Scrum promotes self-organization? (Choose three.)
A. By not allowing documentation.
B. By the Development Team deciding what work to do in a Sprint.
C. By preventing stakeholders from entering the development room.
D. By removing titles for Development Team members.
E. By being a lightweight framework.
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 13
The Product Owner makes sure the team selects enough from the Product Backlog for a Sprint to satisfy the
stakeholders.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B

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Exam Name: Certified Information Privacy Technologist

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QUESTION 1
How can a hacker gain control of a smartphone to perform remote audio and video surveillance?
A. By performing cross-site scripting.
B. By installing a roving bug on the phone.
C. By manipulating geographic information systems.
D. By accessing a phone\\’s global positioning system satellite signal.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 2
SCENARIO Carol was a U.S.-based glassmaker who sold her work at art festivals. She kept things simple by only
accepting cash and personal checks. As business grew, Carol couldn\\’t keep up with demand, and traveling to festivals
became burdensome. Carol opened a small boutique and hired Sam to run it while she worked in the studio. Sam was a
natural salesperson, and business
doubled. Carol told Sam, “I don\\’t know what you are doing, but keep doing it!”
But months later, the gift shop was in chaos. Carol realized that Sam needed help so she hired Jane, who had business
expertise and could handle the back-office tasks. Sam would continue to focus on sales. Carol gave Jane a few weeks
to get acquainted with the artisan craft business, and then scheduled a meeting for the three of them to discuss Jane\\’s
first impressions. At the meeting, Carol could not wait to hear Jane\\’s thoughts, but she was unprepared for what Jane
had to say. “Carol, I know that he doesn\\’t realize it, but some of Sam\\’s efforts to increase sales have put you in a
vulnerable position. You are
not protecting customers\\’ personal information like you should.”
Sam said, “I am protecting our information. I keep it in the safe with our bank deposit. It\\’s only a list of customers\\’
names, addresses and phone numbers that I get from their checks before I deposit them. I contact them when you finish
a piece
that I think they would like. That\\’s the only information I have! The only other thing I do is post photos and information
about your work on the photo sharing site that I use with family and friends. I provide my email address and people send
me
their information if they want to see more of your work. Posting online really helps sales, Carol. In fact, the only
complaint I hear is about having to come into the shop to make a purchase.”
Carol replied, “Jane, that doesn\\’t sound so bad. Could you just fix things and help us to post even more online?”
`I can,” said Jane. “But it\\’s not quite that simple. I need to set up a new program to make sure that we follow the best
practices in data management. And I am concerned for our customers. They should be able to manage how we use
their
personal information. We also should develop a social media strategy.”
Sam and Jane worked hard during the following year. One of the decisions they made was to contract with an outside
vendor to manage online sales. At the end of the year, Carol shared some exciting news. “Sam and Jane, you have done
such a great job that one of the biggest names in the glass business wants to buy us out! And Jane, they want to talk to
you about merging all of our customer and vendor information with theirs beforehand.”
Which regulator has jurisdiction over the shop\\’s data management practices?
A. The Federal Trade Commission.
B. The Department of Commerce.
C. The Data Protection Authority.
D. The Federal Communications Commission.
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://fas.org/sgp/crs/misc/R45631.pdf

QUESTION 3
A user who owns a resource wants to give other individuals access to the resource. What control would apply?
A. Mandatory access control.
B. Role-based access controls.
C. Discretionary access control.
D. Context of authority controls.
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/bs-latn-ba/azure/role-based-access-control/overview

QUESTION 4
What is a mistake organizations make when establishing privacy settings during the development of applications?
A. Providing a user with too many choices.
B. Failing to use “Do Not Track” technology.
C. Providing a user with too much third-party information.
D. Failing to get explicit consent from a user on the use of cookies.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
What is a main benefit of data aggregation?
A. It is a good way to perform analysis without needing a statistician.
B. It applies two or more layers of protection to a single data record.
C. It allows one to draw valid conclusions from small data samples.
D. It is a good way to achieve de-identification and unlinkabilty.
Correct Answer: C

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Exam Name: Certified Information Security Manager

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QUESTION 1
The PRIMARY benefit of integrating information security risk into enterprise risk management is to:
A. ensure timely risk mitigation.
B. justify the information security budget.
C. obtain senior management\\’s commitment.
D. provide a holistic view of risk.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which of the following BEST describes an information security manager\\’s role in a multidisciplinary team that will
address a new regulatory requirement regarding operational risk?
A. Ensure that all IT risks are identified
B. Evaluate the impact of information security risks
C. Demonstrate that IT mitigating controls are in place
D. Suggest new IT controls to mitigate operational risk
Correct Answer: B
The job of the information security officer on such a team is to assess the risks to the business operation. Choice A is
incorrect because information security is not limited to IT issues. Choice C is incorrect because at the time a team is
formed to assess risk, it is premature to assume that any demonstration of IT controls will mitigate business operations
risk. Choice D is incorrect because it is premature at the time of the formation of the team to assume that any
suggestion of new IT controls will mitigate business operational risk.

QUESTION 3
The PRIMARY benefit of performing an information asset classification is to:
A. link security requirements to business objectives.
B. identify controls commensurate to risk.
C. define access rights.
D. establish ownership.
Correct Answer: B
All choices are benefits of information classification. However, identifying controls that are proportional to the risk in all
cases is the primary benefit of the process.

QUESTION 4
A third-party service provider has proposed a data loss prevention (DLP) solution. Which of the following MUST be in
place for this solution to be relevant to the organization?
A. Senior management support
B. A data classification schema
C. An adequate data testing environment
D. A business case
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which of the following is a benefit of information security governance?
A. Reduction of the potential for civil or legal liability
B. Questioning trust in vendor relationships
C. Increasing the risk of decisions based on incomplete management information
D. Direct involvement of senior management in developing control processes
Correct Answer: A
Information security governance decreases the risk of civil or legal liability. The remaining answers are incorrect. Option
D appears to be correct, but senior management would provide oversight and approval as opposed to direct
involvement in developing control processes.

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following motions is identified with the corresponding action?
(Action – Turning palm of hand over to face in the anterior direction, dorsum of the hand is pointed downward toward the
floor.)
A. Pronation
B. Supination
C. Abduction
D. Adduction
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Supination – “Holding a bowl of soup in your hand.”

QUESTION 2
A 35-year-old Latin-American client wishes to lose weight to reduce her chances of developing heart disease and
diabetes. The client states, “I do not know how to make my diet work with the kind of foods that my family eats.”
What should the nurse do first to help the client determine a suitable diet for disease prevention?
A. Provide her with copies of the approved dietary guidelines for the American Diabetic Association and the American
Heart Association.
B. Ask the client to provide a list of the types of foods she eats to determine how to best meet her needs.
C. Provide a high-protein diet plan for the client.
D. Provide the client with information related to risk factors for heart disease and diabetes.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Assessment is the first step. Assessing what the client eats helps the nurse determine a plan for dietary
recommendations based on the ADA and AHA guidelines.
Providing the client with a copy of the guidelines is important but is not the first priority.
Based on the client\\’s wish to reduce her chances of heart disease and diabetes, a high-protein diet plan might not be
appropriate.
Providing information to the client related to risk factors for heart disease and diabetes is important but is not the first
step.

QUESTION 3
A couple from the Philippines living in the United States is expecting their first child.
In providing culturally competent care, the nurse must first __________.
A. review their own cultural beliefs and biases
B. respectfully request that the couple utilize only medically approved health care providers
C. realize that the clients have to learn their new country\\’s accepted medical practices
D. study family dynamics to understand the male and female gender roles in the clients’ culture
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
The nurse needs to recognize her own beliefs and biases and learn about the client\\’s cultural beliefs.

QUESTION 4
A client asks the nurse what risk factors increase the chances of getting skin cancer.
The risk factors include all except __________.
A. light or fair complexion.
B. exposure to sun for great periods of time.
C. certain diet and foods.
D. history of bad sunburns.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Conditions that increase risks for skin cancer are: light or fair complexion, history of having bad sunburns or scars from
previous burns, personal or family history of skin cancer, frequently working or playing outdoors with exposure to the
sun,
exposure to X-rays or radiation, exposure to certain chemicals through work or hobbies (coal, pitch, asphalt, petroleum),
repeated trauma or injury to an area resulting in scars, older than age 50, male gender, and living in a geographic
location near the equator or at high altitudes.
Ways to prevent skin cancer are avoiding exposure to the sun, wearing a hat to protect the face, avoiding all sun lamps,
and using a sunscreen with a minimum of 15 sun protection factor (SPF) if exposure to the sun is unavoidable.
Teaching clients how to recognize a potential problem involves inspecting the skin frequently; noting all birthmarks,
freckles, and moles; and seeking medical assistance if any of the following are noted: change in color, change in
shape,
change in surface texture, change in size, change in the surrounding skin, or a new mole or a sore that does not heal.

QUESTION 5
Following the change of shift report, the nurse should analyze the information and set priorities accordingly.
When the plan has been formulated, at what point during the shift can or should the nurse\\’s plan be altered or
modified?
A. halfway through the shift
B. at the end of the shift before the nurse reports off
C. when needs change
D. after the top-priority tasks have been completed
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The nurse changes the plan to respond to changes in needs.

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QUESTION 1
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Your company plans to migrate all its data and resources to Azure.
The company\\’s migration plan states that only platform as a service (PaaS) solutions must be used in Azure.
You need to deploy an Azure environment that supports the planned migration.
Solution: You create an Azure App Service and Azure Storage accounts.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Your company plans to migrate all on-premises data to Azure. You need to identify whether Azure complies with the
company\\’s regional requirements. What should you use?
A. the Knowledge Center
B. Azure Marketplace
C. the Azure portal
D. the Trust Center
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
HOTSPOT
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

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This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
An Azure region contains one or more data centers that are connected by using a low-latency network.
Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the
statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed
B. Is found in each country where Microsoft has a subsidiary office
C. Can be found in every country in Europe and the Americas only
D. Contains one or more data centers that are connect by using a high-latency network
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
HOTSPOT
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

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QUESTION 7
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
Resource groups provide organizations with the ability to manage the compliance of Azure resources across multiple
subscriptions.
Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the
statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed
B. Management groups
C. Azure policies
D. Azure App Service plans
Correct Answer: C

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Your company hosts an accounting named App1 that is used by all the customers of the company.
App1 has low usage during the first three weeks of each month and very high usage during the last week of each
month.
Which benefit of Azure Cloud Services supports cost management for this type of usage pattern?
A. high availability
B. high latency
C. elasticity
D. load balancing
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
You create a resource group named RG1 in Azure Resource Manager.
You need to prevent the deletion of the resources in RG1.
Which setting should you use? To answer, select the appropriate setting in the answer area.
Hot Area:

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QUESTION 12
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
Your company implements Azure policies to automatically add a watermark to Microsoft Word documents that contain
credit card information.
Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the
statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed.
B. DDoS protection
C. Azure Information Protection
D. Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) Identity Protection
Correct Answer: C
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/information-protection/infoprotect-quick-start-tutorial

QUESTION 13
Your company plans to move several servers to Azure.
The company\\’s compliance policy states that a server named FinServer must be on a separate network segment.
You are evaluating which Azure services can be used to meet the compliance policy requirements.
Which Azure solution should you recommend?
A. a resource group for FinServer and another resource group for all the other servers
B. a virtual network for FinServer and another virtual network for all the other servers
C. a VPN for FinServer and a virtual network gateway for each other server
D. one resource group for all the servers and a resource lock for FinServer
Correct Answer: B
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CompTIA Cloud Essentials CLO-001 Online Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
Which of the following can a company leverage, when migrating a criticalapplication to a SaaS model, in order to gain a
competitive edge over another company that is not outsourcing its critical application?
A. Application availability
B. Security
C. Hardware independence
D. Compliance
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which of thefollowing would help an organization\\’s IT department set their objectives and expectations for a cloud
computing solution?
A. Service Transition
B. Service Operation
C. Service Strategy
D. Service Design
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which of the following is the BEST example of a cloud vendor\\’s monthly hosting fee changing based on cost
allocations?
A. The company\\’s fee varies based on the projected quarterly revenue of the client\\’scompany.
B. The company\\’s fee varies based on the number of their IT staff required to support the infrastructure.
C. The company\\’s fee varies based on the number of servers needed to house data in the datacenter.
D. The company\\’s fee varies based on the energy consumption of each server in the datacenter.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
A companydecides to reduce its IT labor force by hiring an external company to manage various aspects of IT
administration, such as software patch management, desktop virtualization, and remote network maintenance. The
company will still retain technicians for maintenance and storage administration. Which of the following services has this
company implemented?
A. Outsourcing
B. Virtualization
C. PaaS
D. IaaS
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which of the following is a business reason for IT outsourcing and cloud computing?
A. Improvingcost structure
B. Improving customer satisfaction
C. Increasing control over IT systems
D. Decrease of security issues
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which of the following is the risk when an IT department restricts itself to solely being an infrastructure provider?
A. Business users will bypass the IT department
B. Cloud providers will take over the role of the IT department
C. Service providers will bypass the IT department
D. All ofthe above are correct
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which of the following are the keys needed to successfully adopt cloud computing? (Select TWO).
A. Establish executive support
B. Conduct a code review
C. Migrate infrastructure
D. Create a Work Breakdown Structure
E. Comply with regulatory requirements
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 8
Using https instead of http for accessing a cloud service is considered more secure.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which of the following technologies are related to Web services?
A. HTML, IDM, JSON
B. HTML, IDM, XML
C. HTML, JSON, XML
D. DM, JSON, XML
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which of the following is a primary compliance and regulatory requirement any international company faces regarding
employee and customer data?
A. Data access
B. Data transparency
C. Data availability
D. Data localization
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which of the following describes the amount of data that can be sent across a link in agiven time?
A. Network bandwidth
B. Network QoS
C. Network latency
D. Network speed
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which of the following enables hardware independence?
A. In-sourcing
B. Outsourcing
C. Virtualization
D. Abstraction
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
How can an organization successfully implement a PaaS strategy?
A. Open up internal databases with Web service access.
B. Take inventory of the application portfolio and select external suppliers
C. Standardize on a limited set of virtual machines.
D. Continuously execute performance analytics to monitor providers
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following WAN technologies provides a guaranteed throughput rate?
A. DSL
B. T-1
C. Cable broadband
D. Dial-up
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which of the following is a proprietary routing protocol?
A. RIP
B. EIGRP
C. OSPF
D. BGP
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which of the following will listen on the line to ensure there is no traffic transmitting and implement a back-off timer if a
collision occurs?
A. CSMA/CD
B. CSMA/CA
C. MPLS
D. OSPF
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
A technician replaces a failed router with a spare that has been in inventory for some time. After attempting to enable
HTTPS on the spare router, the technician discovers the feature is unavailable. The support office was able to connect
to the previous router. Which of the following actions should the technician perform to enable HTTPS access for the
support team?
A. Reboot the router
B. Enable HTTP on the router
C. Update the firmware of the spare router
D. Perform a factory reset on the router
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
A company decides to deploy customer-facing, touch-scan kiosks. The kiosks appear to have several open service
ports that could potentially become compromised. Which of the following is the MOST effective way to protocol the
kiosks?
A. Install an IDS to monitor all traffic to and from the kiosks.
B. Install honeypots on the network to detect and analyze potential kiosk attacks before they occur.
C. Enable switchport security on the ports to which the kiosks are connected to prevent network – level attacks.
D. Create a new network segment with ACLs, limiting kiosks\\’ traffic with the internal network.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
A university has a lecture hall containing 100 students. Currently, the lecture hall has two 802.11ac wireless access
points, which can accommodate up to 50 devices each. Several students report they are unable to connect devices to
the wireless network. Which of the following is MOST likely the issue?
A. One of the wireless access points is on the wrong frequency
B. The students are attempting to connect 802.11g devices
C. The students are using more than one wireless device port seat.
D. Distance limitations are preventing the students from connecting.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which of the following are characteristic of jumbo frames? (Select TWO).
A. Commonly used on SAN
B. MTU size greater than 1500
C. MTU size greater than 10000
D. Commonly used on laaS
E. MTU size greater that 12000
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 8
In which of the following ways does a DDoS attack differ from a spoofing attack?
A. DDoS attacks target multiple networks
B. Spoofing attacks originate from a single host
C. DDoS attacks are launched from multiple hosts
D. Spoofing attacks require physical presence
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Keeping an authoritative and timely record of network devices and their settings is a key activity of which of the
following?
A. Project management
B. Quality of service
C. Configuration management
D. Bandwidth shaping
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which of the following cable types have a rated MAXIMUM bandwidth of 100Mbps?
A. CAT3
B. CAT5
C. CAT5e
D. CAT6
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
A technician is replacing a switch at a branch office and discovers the existing backbone cable does not fit in the new
switch. The fiber patch panel has circular connections. The new switch has a transceiver that accepts a smaller square
adapter of two strands. Which of the following patch cables would the technician need to complete the installation?
A. LC to SC
B. SC to ST
C. LC to ST
D. ST to ST
E. SC to SC
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
An end-user device requires a specific IP address every time it connects to the corporate network; however, corporate
policy does not allow the use of static IP addresses. Which of the following will allow the request to be fulfilled without
breaking the corporate policy?
A. DHCP relay
B. DHCP exclusion
C. DHCP option
D. DHCP reservation
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
A company finds that many desktops are being reported as missing or lost. Which of the following would BEST assist in
recovering these devices?
A. Asset tracking tags
B. Motion detectors
C. Security guards
D. Computer locks
Correct Answer: D

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Q&As: 219

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4.HOTSPOT
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. You manage an on-premises Microsoft Exchange Server 2003 environment that has 500 users and an externally-hosted Exchange environment that has 500 users. The hosted Exchange environment does not allow Outlook Anywhere connectivity. You do not have administrative access to all mailboxes in the hosted environment. You plan to migrate and consolidate both environments into Office 365. You have the following 070-347 exam migration requirements:
– Migrate on-premises mailboxes in batches by department.
– Migrate email, calendar, and contact items from the on-premises environment.
– Migrate only email from the hosted environment.
In the table below, identify the migration type that must be used for each environment. Make only one selection in each column. Each correct selection is worth one point.
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You are the Office 365 administrator for your company’s Microsoft Exchange Online environment. The company recently subscribed to the Office 365 Enterprise El plan. The company wants to filter email messages based on the following criteria:
– Reverse DNS lookup
– Sender open proxy test
– HELO/EHLO analysis
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6.Your company is planning to migrate to Microsoft Exchange Online. The company employs 5,000 people, each with a mailbox currently located on Exchange Server 2000. The company has the following migration requirements:
– Move mailboxes in batches.
– Do not migrate calendar or contact items.
– Provide migration status reports to administrators.
You need to select the appropriate migration strategy.
Which migration strategy should you use?
A. Staged migration
B. Cutover migration
C. IMAP migration
D. Hybrid migration
Answer: C
7.You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. The company has established the following new 70-347 dumps requirements:
– Members of the legal team must be able to conduct eDiscovery searches.
– Employees must be notified when they send email messages that contain confidential information.You need to configure the environment. Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Configure journaling to a Microsoft Exchange Online mailbox for all mailboxes.
B. Add the members of the legal team to the Discovery Management role group.

C. Create a Data Loss Prevention policy.
D. Place all executive mailboxes on In-Place Hold for 365 days and use In-Place eDiscovery for mailbox
searches.
E. Enable Microsoft Exchange Online Archiving for the executive mailboxes.
F. Place all executive mailboxes on Retention Hold.
Answer: B, C

8. Which WebLogic technology is defined in a cluster as an “exactly-once” service?
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B. JMS
C. JNDI
D. EJBs
E. Servlets
Answer: B
9. You want your application to pass control to another resource. Which tag can you use to accomplish
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A. jsp:plugin B.
jsp:forward C.
jsp:include D.
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E. jsp:fallback
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10. To manipulate XML-defined data in an application, which tool is directly supported by Workshop?
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B. Castor
C. XMLBeans
D. None of these
E. DOM/SAX-based parsing
Answer: C
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B. out.flush()

C. session.flush()
D. session.clear()
E. session.invalidate()
070-347 vce Answer: E
12. Within a portal project, where are user-properties sets stored?
A. None of these
B. In the Web project
C. In a Schema project
D. In a Datasync project
E. In the Web user interface project
Answer: D
13. You want your application to pass control to another resource and then return control to the calling JSP. Which tag can you use?
A. jsp:plugin B.
jsp:include C.
jsp:forward
D. jsp:useBean
E. jsp:fallback
070-347 exam Answer: B
14. When Workshop generates a Session Bean, it creates a template for which method?
A. ejbFind()
B. None of these
C. ejbCreate()
D. onMessage()
E. setMessageContext()
Answer: C

15. On a WebLogic system, you successfully deployed an application that uses a conversational Web
service. You ported it to another WebLogic system, on which the application fails. There appears to be a race condition. What is most likely cause of the problem?
A. The application was not re-built.
B. The application was incorrectly deployed.
C. Parts of the application were not ported to the new system.
D. Temporary and supporting files specific to the original system were ported to the new system
E. WebLogic Workshop must perform invocations on conversational Web services serially, and the
<ejb-concurrency-strategy> has not been set appropriately for the persistent store.
70-347 dumps Answer: E
16. Which statement correctly compares a Parallel node to Event Choice node?
A. More than one branch of a Parallel node can be executed; this is not true of an Event Choice node.
B. If the Parallel node specifies an OR join condition, there is no difference between the two node types.
C. If the Parallel node specifies an AND join condition, there is no difference between the two node types.
D. If the Event Choice node specifies an OR join condition, there is no difference between the two node types.
E. A Parallel Node must have exactly two branches; an Event Choice node can have an unlimited number
of branches.
Answer: A
17. Which of these is a direct result of starting a server in Production mode?
A. Multi-processor platforms are supported.
B. Users must be authenticated before deploying applications.
C. Only users in the Administration Group can access the server.
D. Applications CANNOT be deployed in exploded directory format.
E. The administration server can be part of a WebLogic Server cluster.
070-347 pdf Answer: B

18.It has come to your attention that some host on the web has tried to do some reconnaissance on your network and send a VRFY command to try and steal user names. What type of attack was used against your network?
A. SMTP attack
B. Web browser attack
C. IMAP attack
D. IP Spoofing E.
Account scan
Answer: A
19.What technology is being employed to resist SYN floods by having each side of the connection attempt create its own sequence number (This sequence number contains a synopsis of the connection so that if/when the connection attempt is finalized the fist part of the attempt can be re-created from the sequence number)?
A. SYN cookie
B. SYN floodgate
C. SYN gate
D. SYN damn
E. SYN flood break
070-347 exam Answer: A
20.The main reason you have been hired at a company is to bring the network security of the
organization up to current standards. A high priority is to have a full security audit of the network
as soon as possible. You have chosen an Independent Audit and are describing it to your coworkers.
Which of the following best describes an Independent Audit?
A. An independent audit is usually conducted by external or outside resources and may be a review or audit of detailed audit logs.
B. The independent audit is usually done by the current network administrators who ensure the security measures are up to international standards.
C. The independent audit is typically done by an internal team who ensures the security measures are up to international standards.
D. The independent audit is usually done by internal resources to examine the current daily and on-going activities within a network system for compliance with an established security policy.
E. The independent audit is typically done by a contracted outside team of security experts who check for policy compliance.
Answer: A
21.The main reason you have been hired at a company is to bring the network security of the
 organization up to current standards. A high priority is to have a full security audit of the network as soon as possible. You have chosen an Operational Audit and are describing it to your coworkers. Which of the following best describes an 70-347 dumps Operational audit?
A. This type of audit is typically done by a contracted external team of security experts who check for policy compliance.
B. This type of audit is usually done by internal resources to examine the current daily and on-going activities within a network
system for compliance with an established security policy.
C. This type of audit is typically done by an internal team who ensures the security measures are up to international standards.
D. This type of audit is usually done by the current network administrators who ensure the security measures are up to international standards.
E. This type of audit is usually conducted by external resources and may be a review or audit of detailed audit logs.
Answer: B

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