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CySA+ (Plus) Cybersecurity Analyst Certification | CompTIA IT Certifications: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/cybersecurity-analyst

CompTIA CySA+ CS0-001 Online Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
DRAG DROP
You suspect that multiple unrelated security events have occurred on several nodes on a corporate network. You must
review all logs and correlate events when necessary to discover each security event by clicking on each node. Only
select
corrective actions if the logs shown a security event that needs remediation. Drag and drop the appropriate corrective
actions to mitigate the specific security event occurring on each affected device.
Instructions:
The Web Server, Database Server, IDS, Development PC, Accounting PC and Marketing PC are clickable. Some
actions may not be required and each actions can only be used once per node. The corrective action order is not
important. If
at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please select the Reset button. When you
have completed the simulation, please select the Done button to submit. Once the simulation is submitted, please select
the
Next button to continue.pass4itsure cl0-001 exam question q1

Select and Place:

pass4itsure cl0-001 exam question q1-1

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure cl0-001 exam question q1-2

 

QUESTION 2
An administrator has been investigating the way in which an actor had been exfiltrating confidential data from a web
server to a foreign host. After a thorough forensic review, the administrator determined the server\\’s BIOS had been
modified by rootkit installation. After removing the rootkit and flashing the BIOS to a known good state, which of the
following would BEST protect against future adversary access to the BIOS, in case another rootkit is installed?
A. Anti-malware application
B. Host-based IDS
C. TPM data sealing
D. File integrity monitoring
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 3
The development team currently consists of three developers who each specialize in a specific programming language:
Developer 1 ?C++/C# Developer 2 ?Python Developer 3 ?Assembly
Which of the following SDLC best practices would be challenging to implement with the current available staff?
A. Fuzzing
B. Peer review
C. Regression testing
D. Stress testing
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 4
A university wants to increase the security posture of its network by implementing vulnerability scans of both centrally
managed and student/employee laptops. The solution should be able to scale, provide minimum false positives and high
accuracy of results, and be centrally managed through an enterprise console. Which of the following scanning
topologies is BEST suited for this environment?
A. A passive scanning engine located at the core of the network infrastructure
B. A combination of cloud-based and server-based scanning engines
C. A combination of server-based and agent-based scanning engines
D. An active scanning engine installed on the enterprise console
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 5
An investigation showed a worm was introduced from an engineer\\’s laptop. It was determined the company does not
provide engineers with company-owned laptops, which would be subject to company policy and technical controls.
Which of the following would be the MOST secure control implement?
A. Deploy HIDS on all engineer-provided laptops, and put a new router in the management network.
B. Implement role-based group policies on the management network for client access.
C. Utilize a jump box that is only allowed to connect to clients from the management network.
D. Deploy a company-wide approved engineering workstation for management access.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 6
DRAG DROP
You suspect that multiple unrelated security events have occurred on several nodes on a corporate network. You must
review all logs and correlate events when necessary to discover each security event by clicking on each node. Only
select
corrective actions if the logs shown a security event that needs remediation. Drag and drop the appropriate corrective
actions to mitigate the specific security event occurring on each affected device.
Instructions:
The Web Server, Database Server, IDS, Development PC, Accounting PC and Marketing PC are clickable. Some
actions may not be required and each actions can only be used once per node. The corrective action order is not
important. If
at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please select the Reset button. When you
have completed the simulation, please select the Done button to submit. Once the simulation is submitted, please select
the
Next button to continue.pass4itsure cs0-001 exam question q6 pass4itsure cs0-001 exam question q6-1

Select and Place:

pass4itsure cs0-001 exam question q6-2

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure cs0-001 exam question q6-3

 

QUESTION 7
NOTE: Question IP must be 192.168.192.123
During a network reconnaissance engagement, a penetration tester was given perimeter firewall ACLs to accelerate the
scanning process. The penetration tester has decided to concentrate on trying to brute force log in to destination IP
address 192.168.192.132 via secure shell.pass4itsure cs0-001 exam question q7

A. B. C. D.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 8
During an investigation, a computer is being seized. Which of the following is the FIRST step the analyst should take?
A. Power off the computer and remove it from the network.
B. Unplug the network cable and take screenshots of the desktop.
C. Perform a physical hard disk image.
D. Initiate chain-of-custody documentation.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
HOTSPOT
A security analyst suspects that a workstation may be beaconing to a command and control server. Inspect the logs
from the company’s web proxy server and the firewall to determine the best course of action to take in order to
neutralize the
threat with minimum impact to the organization.
Instructions:
Modify the firewall ACL, using the Firewall ACL form to mitigate the issue.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please select the Reset All button.
Hot Area:

pass4itsure cl0-001 exam question q9

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure cl0-001 exam question q9-1

 

QUESTION 10
A company has implemented WPA2, a 20-character minimum for the WiFi passphrase, and a new WiFi passphrase
every 30 days, and has disabled SSID broadcast on all wireless access points. Which of the following is the company
trying to mitigate?
A. Downgrade attacks
B. Rainbow tables
C. SSL pinning
D. Forced deauthentication
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 11
A cybersecurity analyst has identified a new mission-essential function that utilizes a public cloud-based system. The
analyst needs to classify the information processed by the system with respect to CIA. Which of the following should
provide the CIA classification for the information?
A. The cloud provider
B. The data owner
C. The cybersecurity analyst
D. The system administrator
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 12
A computer at a company was used to commit a crime. The system was seized and removed for further analysis. Which
of the following is the purpose of labeling cables and connections when seizing the computer system?
A. To capture the system configuration as it was at the time it was removed
B. To maintain the chain of custody
C. To block any communication with the computer system from attack
D. To document the model, manufacturer, and type of cables connected
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 13
A SIEM analyst noticed a spike in activities from the guest wireless network to several electronic health record (EHR)
systems. After further analysis, the analyst discovered that a large volume of data has been uploaded to a cloud
provider in the last six months. Which of the following actions should the analyst do FIRST?
A. Contact the Office of Civil Rights (OCR) to report the breach
B. Notify the Chief Privacy Officer (CPO)
C. Activate the incident response plan
D. Put an ACL on the gateway router
Correct Answer: D

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CompTIA Cloud Essentials CLO-001 Online Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
Which of the following can a company leverage, when migrating a criticalapplication to a SaaS model, in order to gain a
competitive edge over another company that is not outsourcing its critical application?
A. Application availability
B. Security
C. Hardware independence
D. Compliance
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 2
Which of thefollowing would help an organization\\’s IT department set their objectives and expectations for a cloud
computing solution?
A. Service Transition
B. Service Operation
C. Service Strategy
D. Service Design
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 3
Which of the following is the BEST example of a cloud vendor\\’s monthly hosting fee changing based on cost
allocations?
A. The company\\’s fee varies based on the projected quarterly revenue of the client\\’scompany.
B. The company\\’s fee varies based on the number of their IT staff required to support the infrastructure.
C. The company\\’s fee varies based on the number of servers needed to house data in the datacenter.
D. The company\\’s fee varies based on the energy consumption of each server in the datacenter.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 4
A companydecides to reduce its IT labor force by hiring an external company to manage various aspects of IT
administration, such as software patch management, desktop virtualization, and remote network maintenance. The
company will still retain technicians for maintenance and storage administration. Which of the following services has this
company implemented?
A. Outsourcing
B. Virtualization
C. PaaS
D. IaaS
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
Which of the following is a business reason for IT outsourcing and cloud computing?
A. Improvingcost structure
B. Improving customer satisfaction
C. Increasing control over IT systems
D. Decrease of security issues
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 6
Which of the following is the risk when an IT department restricts itself to solely being an infrastructure provider?
A. Business users will bypass the IT department
B. Cloud providers will take over the role of the IT department
C. Service providers will bypass the IT department
D. All ofthe above are correct
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 7
Which of the following are the keys needed to successfully adopt cloud computing? (Select TWO).
A. Establish executive support
B. Conduct a code review
C. Migrate infrastructure
D. Create a Work Breakdown Structure
E. Comply with regulatory requirements
Correct Answer: CD

 

QUESTION 8
Using https instead of http for accessing a cloud service is considered more secure.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
Which of the following technologies are related to Web services?
A. HTML, IDM, JSON
B. HTML, IDM, XML
C. HTML, JSON, XML
D. DM, JSON, XML
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 10
Which of the following is a primary compliance and regulatory requirement any international company faces regarding
employee and customer data?
A. Data access
B. Data transparency
C. Data availability
D. Data localization
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 11
Which of the following describes the amount of data that can be sent across a link in agiven time?
A. Network bandwidth
B. Network QoS
C. Network latency
D. Network speed
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 12
Which of the following enables hardware independence?
A. In-sourcing
B. Outsourcing
C. Virtualization
D. Abstraction
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 13
How can an organization successfully implement a PaaS strategy?
A. Open up internal databases with Web service access.
B. Take inventory of the application portfolio and select external suppliers
C. Standardize on a limited set of virtual machines.
D. Continuously execute performance analytics to monitor providers
Correct Answer: A

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The latest Oracle Logistics Cloud 1z0-988 exam practice questions test your strength

QUESTION 1
If you have just installed OTM, which domain would not be created by default?
A. GUEST
B. STAGE
C. MASTER
D. BLUEPRINT
E. SERVPROV
Correct Answer: A
After installation, the following default domains are automatically created:
GUEST is a sample domain that you can use to get started and experiment with all the functions and public data.
Reference: https://tms.caleres.com/html/help/webhelp/en/user_management/add_domain.htm

 

QUESTION 2
How should you set up permissions for users to access data in other domains?
A. Use domain Grants.
B. Assign User Preference via Manage User access.
C. Use Insert User Role in VPD Profile.
D. Assign Access Control List in User Role.
Correct Answer: A
Using the Domain Grants option, administrators can grant access from subdomains to domains, and between domains
for increased functional security.
Reference: https://tms.caleres.com/html/help/webhelp/en/user_management/add_domain.htm

 

QUESTION 3
While reviewing Invoices in OTM, you want to search for Invoices based on the “Financial Consolidation Type”.
Identify two Types that you can choose from. (Choose two.)
A. BUY
B. SYSTEM
C. SELL
D. PARENT
E. STANDARD
Correct Answer: DE


QUESTION 4
You are creating a Shipment Agent and you need to Raise an Event to trigger another agent for the Order Release that
is linked to the shipment.
Which agent action do you have to use?
A. SCHEDULE EVENT
B. FOR EACH
C. RAISE EVENT
D. RAISE RELEASE EVENT
E. FOR
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 5pass4itsure 1z0-988 exam question q5

View the exhibit. Bob is a user in the “3PL COMPANY” domain and has been assigned the “Admin” User Role ID.
What must you do to make sure that Bob has the authority to view and plan all the orders from all the Client domains
shown?
A. Create a Role in the 3PL COMPANY domain that has at least “Default” authority, and use OTM\\’s GRANTS to
assign Bob\\’s user ID in each of the Client domains.
B. Use OTM\\’s VPD to assign Bob\\’s user ID in each of the Client domains.
C. Do nothing, because Bob will automatically be authorized to plan all of the orders.
D. Create a Role in each of the Client domains with the same name, and add Bob\\’s user ID to the Role.
E. Use OTM\\’s to add Bob to the Planner Role in the 3PL COMPANY domain.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 6
In which two ways can you determine which tables have “parent” or “child” relationships to the CONTACT table?
(Choose two.)
A. View the data dictionary to identify the relationships.
B. Refer to Power Data under Configuration and Administration.
C. In OTM, navigate to Configuration and Administration > Contacts > Contacts. Select “Help” and review the data table
relationships.
D. Export the CONTACTS table, and use the “scsvwpcd” command.
Correct Answer: AB

 

QUESTION 7
If a Rate Record and a Rate Offering are configured with conflicting values in the same data elements, how does OTM
address this?
A. OTM\\’s planning engine will run the solver for both settings, but only consider the least cost result.
B. Such a conflict cannot exist in OTM.
C. The Rate Offering will take priority over the Rate Record configuration.
D. The Rate Record will take priority over the Rate Offering configuration.
E. During planning, the user will have the option of indicating if OTM should prioritize either the Rate Offering or the
Rate Record setting.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 8
Why is OTM considered to be based on an n-Tier model?
A. because the OTM presentation layer, the application processing layer, and the data management layers are logically
separate processes
B. because OTM supports third party application integrations (PCMiler, Rand McNally, etc.)
C. because it supports the tiered domain structure, from Public, to Parent, to Child, to grandchild domain levels
D. because OTM\\’s data is based on whether it is Master data, Static data, or Transactional data
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 9
Which statement is false about the User Role?
A. User Role controls data visibility via function security (Level).
B. User Role controls data visibility via a private database (VPD).
C. You can assign multiple roles to a master role.
D. Only one role can be assigned to one User.
Correct Answer: D
You can assign one or more of these roles to a user and the user could switch between the roles as needed without
logging in and out.
Reference: https://tms.caleres.com/html/help/webhelp/en/user_management/user_role.htm

 

QUESTION 10
In which two of the following cases is it useful to use the “Show Routing Options” shipment planning method? (Choose
two.)
A. when you want to view OTM\\’s recommendation without actually planning the shipment
B. when you want to auto-tender the shipment after planning is complete
C. when you want to specify the carrier that you want to receive the shipment tender
D. when you want to override the delivery constraints on the Order Base
E. when you want to specify the itinerary that you want to use for the shipment
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 11
Identify the option which cannot be performed by the Screen Set Manager.
A. Define default criteria for search fields.
B. Customize the Actions menu.
C. Customize the Results page columns.
D. Create multi-panel layouts containing tables, maps, Gantt charts.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 12
To import Rates in OTM, which are four key components that you must configure? (Choose four.)
A. Accessorial
B. Lanes
C. Rate Record
D. Rate Quality
E. Rate Service
F. Rate Offering
G. Itinerary
Correct Answer: ACEF

 

QUESTION 13
Your customer has implemented OTM and has a requirement to have a selected menu to be displayed separately.
How should you assign this to a user?
A. Assign it in User Role ID.
B. Assign it via Manage User Access.
C. Assign it in User Preference and assign this preference to User.
D. It is a customization that OTM does not support.
Correct Answer: B

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  • Key cloud computing best practices and typical service models
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QUESTION 1
Which of the following WAN technologies provides a guaranteed throughput rate?
A. DSL
B. T-1
C. Cable broadband
D. Dial-up
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which of the following is a proprietary routing protocol?
A. RIP
B. EIGRP
C. OSPF
D. BGP
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which of the following will listen on the line to ensure there is no traffic transmitting and implement a back-off timer if a
collision occurs?
A. CSMA/CD
B. CSMA/CA
C. MPLS
D. OSPF
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
A technician replaces a failed router with a spare that has been in inventory for some time. After attempting to enable
HTTPS on the spare router, the technician discovers the feature is unavailable. The support office was able to connect
to the previous router. Which of the following actions should the technician perform to enable HTTPS access for the
support team?
A. Reboot the router
B. Enable HTTP on the router
C. Update the firmware of the spare router
D. Perform a factory reset on the router
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
A company decides to deploy customer-facing, touch-scan kiosks. The kiosks appear to have several open service
ports that could potentially become compromised. Which of the following is the MOST effective way to protocol the
kiosks?
A. Install an IDS to monitor all traffic to and from the kiosks.
B. Install honeypots on the network to detect and analyze potential kiosk attacks before they occur.
C. Enable switchport security on the ports to which the kiosks are connected to prevent network – level attacks.
D. Create a new network segment with ACLs, limiting kiosks\\’ traffic with the internal network.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
A university has a lecture hall containing 100 students. Currently, the lecture hall has two 802.11ac wireless access
points, which can accommodate up to 50 devices each. Several students report they are unable to connect devices to
the wireless network. Which of the following is MOST likely the issue?
A. One of the wireless access points is on the wrong frequency
B. The students are attempting to connect 802.11g devices
C. The students are using more than one wireless device port seat.
D. Distance limitations are preventing the students from connecting.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which of the following are characteristic of jumbo frames? (Select TWO).
A. Commonly used on SAN
B. MTU size greater than 1500
C. MTU size greater than 10000
D. Commonly used on laaS
E. MTU size greater that 12000
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 8
In which of the following ways does a DDoS attack differ from a spoofing attack?
A. DDoS attacks target multiple networks
B. Spoofing attacks originate from a single host
C. DDoS attacks are launched from multiple hosts
D. Spoofing attacks require physical presence
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Keeping an authoritative and timely record of network devices and their settings is a key activity of which of the
following?
A. Project management
B. Quality of service
C. Configuration management
D. Bandwidth shaping
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which of the following cable types have a rated MAXIMUM bandwidth of 100Mbps?
A. CAT3
B. CAT5
C. CAT5e
D. CAT6
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
A technician is replacing a switch at a branch office and discovers the existing backbone cable does not fit in the new
switch. The fiber patch panel has circular connections. The new switch has a transceiver that accepts a smaller square
adapter of two strands. Which of the following patch cables would the technician need to complete the installation?
A. LC to SC
B. SC to ST
C. LC to ST
D. ST to ST
E. SC to SC
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
An end-user device requires a specific IP address every time it connects to the corporate network; however, corporate
policy does not allow the use of static IP addresses. Which of the following will allow the request to be fulfilled without
breaking the corporate policy?
A. DHCP relay
B. DHCP exclusion
C. DHCP option
D. DHCP reservation
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
A company finds that many desktops are being reported as missing or lost. Which of the following would BEST assist in
recovering these devices?
A. Asset tracking tags
B. Motion detectors
C. Security guards
D. Computer locks
Correct Answer: D

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The latest Cisco CCNP Security 300-208 exam practice questions test your strength

QUESTION 1
A network administrator configured DUAL SSID , where the first SSID is used for guest provisioning and the other SSID
for Employee provisioning which option he can use for layer 2 security provision?
A. MAB
B. 802.1x
C. authentication open
D. option
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 2
A network engineer is configuring HTTP based CWA on a switch. Which three configuration elements are required?
(Choose three.)
A. HTTP server enabled
B. Radius authentication on the port with MAB
C. Redirect access-list
D. Redirect-URL
E. HTTP secure server enabled
F. Radius authentication on the port with 802.1x
G. Pre-auth port based access-list
Correct Answer: ABC

 

QUESTION 3
What are Supplicant and Authentication server that support EAP Chaining?
A. Cisco Anyconnect NAM
B. ACS
C. ISE
D. NFL
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 4
Which components must be selected for a client provisioning policy to do a Posture check on the Cisco ISE?
A. Configuration Wizard, Wizard Profile
B. Remediation Actions, Posture Requirements
C. Operating System, Posture Requirements
D. Agent, Profile, Compliance Module
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 5
Which option in the SSID must be enable to immediately connect to the corp SSID in DUAL SSID deployment?
A. AP Fallback
B. SSID fast transition
C. AAA override
D. option
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 6
Which two identity databases are supported when PEAP-MSCHAPv2 is used as EAP type? (Choose two.)
A. Windows Active Directory
B. LDAP
C. RADIUS token server
D. internal endpoint store
E. internal user store
F. certificate authentication profile
G. RSA SecurID
Correct Answer: AE

 

QUESTION 7
Which feature of Cisco ASA allows VPN users to be postured against Cisco ISE without requiring an inline posture
node?
A. RADIUS Change of Authorization
B. device tracking
C. DHCP snooping
D. VLAN hopping
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8
Which mechanism does Cisco ISE use to force a device off the network if it is reported lost or stolen?
A. CoA
B. dynamic ACLs
C. SGACL
D. certificate revocation
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
What are two actions that can occur when an 802.1X-enabled port enters violation mode? (Choose two.)
A. The port is error disabled.
B. The port drops packets from any new device that sends traffic to the port.
C. The port generates a port resistance error.
D. The port attempts to repair the violation.
E. The port is placed in quarantine state.
F. The port is prevented from authenticating indefinitely.
Correct Answer: AB

 

QUESTION 10
What is a feature of Cisco WLC and IPS synchronization?
A. Cisco WLC populates the ACLs to prevent repeat intruder attacks.
B. The IPS automatically send shuns to Cisco WLC for an active host block.
C. Cisco WLC and IPS synchronization enables faster wireless access.
D. IPS synchronization uses network access points to provide reliable monitoring.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 11
What is the first step that occurs when provisioning a wired device in a BYOD scenario?
A. The smart hub detects that the physically connected endpoint requires configuration and must use MAB to
authenticate.
B. The URL redirects to the Cisco ISE Guest Provisioning portal.
C. Cisco ISE authenticates the user and deploys the SPW package.
D. The device user attempts to access a network URL.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 12
Where is client traffic decrypted in a controller-based wireless network protected with WPA2 Security?
A. Access Point
B. Switch
C. Wireless LAN Controller
D. Authentication Server
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
Which configuration is required in the Cisco ISE Authentication policy to allow Central Web Authentication?
A. Dot1x and if authentication failed continue
B. MAB and if user not found continue
C. MAB and if authentication failed continue
D. Dot1x and if user not found continue
Correct Answer: B

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Latest effective Oracle 1Z0-071 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
Examine the commands used to create department details and course details:pass4itsure 1z0-071 exam question q1You want to generate a list of all department IDs that do not exist in the COURSE_DETAILS table. You execute the
SQL statement: pass4itsure 1z0-071 exam question q1-1What is the outcome?
A. it fails because the Join type used is Incorrect
B. It executes successfully and displays the required list.
C. It executes successfully but displays an incorrect list.
D. It fails because the ON clause condition is not valid
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 2
Which statement is true about transactions?
A. A set of Data Manipulation Language (DML) statements executed in a sequence ending with a SAVEPOINT forms a
single transaction.
B. Each Data Definition Language (DDL) statement executed forms a single transaction.
C. A set of DDL statements executed in a sequence ending with a COMMIT forms a single transaction.
D. A combination of DDL and DML statements executed in a sequence ending with a COMMIT forms a single
transaction.
Correct Answer: B
https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/CNCPT/transact.htm#CNCPT038


QUESTION 3
View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the EMP table which is not partitioned and not an index-organized table.
(Choose two.)pass4itsure 1z0-071 exam question q3Evaluate this SQL statement:
ALTER TABLE emp
DROP COLUMN first_name;
Which two statements are true?
A. The FIRST_NAME column can be dropped even if it is part of a composite PRIMARY KEY provided the CASCADE
option is added to the SQL statement.
B. The FIRST_NAME column would be dropped provided at least one column remains in the table.
C. The FIRST_NAME column would be dropped provided it does not contain any data.
D. The drop of the FIRST_NAME column can be rolled back provided the SET UNUSED option is added to the SQL
statement.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 4
Examine the structure of the BOOKS_ TRANSACTIONS table:pass4itsure 1z0-071 exam question q4Examine the SQL statement: pass4itsure 1z0-071 exam question q4-1Which statement is true about the outcome?
A. It displays details only for members who have borrowed before today with RM as TRANSACTION_TYPE.
B. It displays details for members who have borrowed before today\\’s date with either RM as TRANSACTION_TYPE or
MEMBER_ID as A101 and A102.
C. It displays details for only members A101and A102 who have borrowed before today with RM as
TRANSACTION_TYPE.
D. It displays details for members who have borrowed before today with RM as TRANSACTION_TYPE and the details
for members A101 or A102.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 5
The following are the steps for a correlated subquery, listed in random order:
1.
The WHERE clause of the outer query is evaluated.
2.
The candidate row is fetched from the table specified in the outer query.
3.
This is repeated for the subsequent rows of the table, till all the rows are processed.
4.
Rows are returned by the inner query, after being evaluated with the value from the candidate row in the outer query.
Which is the correct sequence in which the Oracle server evaluates a correlated subquery?
A. 2, 1, 4, 3
B. 4, 1, 2, 3
C. 4, 2, 1, 3
D. 2, 4, 1, 3
Correct Answer: D
http://rajanimohanty.blogspot.co.uk/2014/01/correlated-subquery.html


QUESTION 6
Evaluate the following two queries: SQL> SELECT cust_last_name, cust_city FROM customers WHERE
cust_credit_limit IN (1000, 2000, 3000); SQL> SELECT cust_last_name, cust_city FROM customers WHERE
cust_credit_limit = 1000 or cust_credit_limit = 2000 or cust_credit_limit = 3000 Which statement is true regarding the
above two queries?
A. Performance would improve in query 2 only if there are null values in the CUST_CREDIT_LIMIT column.
B. There would be no change in performance.
C. Performance would degrade in query 2.
D. Performance would improve in query 2.
Correct Answer: B
http://oraclexpert.com/restricting-and-sorting-data/


QUESTION 7
View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the ORDERS table. The ORDER_ID column is the PRIMARY KEY in the
ORDERS table.pass4itsure 1z0-071 exam question q7Evaluate the following CREATE TABLE command:
CREATE TABLE new_orders(ord_id, ord_date DEFAULT SYSDATE, cus_id)
AS
SELECT order_id.order_date,customer_id
FROM orders;
Which statement is true regarding the above command?
A. The NEW_ODRDERS table would not get created because the DEFAULT value cannot be specified in the column
definition.
B. The NEW_ODRDERS table would get created and only the NOT NULL constraint defined on the specified columns
would be passed to the new table.
C. The NEW_ODRDERS table would not get created because the column names in the CREATE TABLE command and
the SELECT clause do not match.
D. The NEW_ODRDERS table would get created and all the constraints defined on the specified columns in the
ORDERS table would be passed to the new table.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 8
Which two statements are true regarding subqueries? (Choose two.)
A. A subquery can appear on either side of a comparison operator.
B. Only two subqueries can be placed at one level.
C. A subquery can retrieve zero or more rows.
D. A subquery can be used only in SQL query statements.
E. There is no limit on the number of subquery levels in the WHERE clause of a SELECT statement.
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 9
Examine the structure of the EMPLOYEES table. NameNull-Type
EMPLOYEE_IDNOT NULLNUMBER(6)
FIRST_NAMEVARCHAR2(20)
LAST_NAMENOT NULLVARCHAR2(25)
EMAILNOT NULLVARCHAR2(25)
PHONE NUMBERVARCHAR2(20)
HIRE_DATENOT NULLDATE
JOB_IDNOT NULLVARCHAR2(10)
SALARYNUMBER(8,2)
COMMISSION_PCTNUMBER(2,2)
MANAGER_IDNUMBER(6)
DEPARTMENT_IDNUMBER(4)
There is a parent/child relationship between EMPLOYEE_ID and MANAGER_ID.
You want to display the last names and manager IDs of employees who work for the same manager as the employee
whose EMPLOYEE_ID is 123.
Which query provides the correct output?
A. SELECT e.last_name, m.manager_idFROM employees e RIGHT OUTER JOIN employees mon (e.manager_id =
m.employee_id)AND e.employee_id = 123;
B. SELECT e.last_name, m.manager_idFROM employees e RIGHT OUTER JOIN employees mon (e.employee_id =
m.manager_id)WHERE e.employee_id = 123;
C. SELECT e.last_name, e.manager_idFROM employees e RIGHT OUTER JOIN employees mon (e.employee_id =
m.employee_id)WHERE e.employee_id = 123;
D. SELECT m.last_name, e.manager_idFROM employees e LEFT OUTER JOIN employees mon (e.manager_id =
m.manager_id)WHERE e.employee_id = 123;
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 10
Examine the commands used to create DEPARTMENT_DETAILS and COURSE_DETAILS:pass4itsure 1z0-071 exam question q10You want to generate a report that shows all course IDs irrespective of whether they have corresponding department
IDs or not but no department IDs if they do not have any courses. Which SQL statement must you use?
A. SELECT course_id, department_id, FROM department_details d RIGHT OUTER JOIN course_details c USING
(department_id)
B. SELECT c.course_id, d.department_id FROM course_details c RIGHT OUTER JOIN .department_details d ON
(c.depatrment_id=d.department_id)
C. SELECT c.course_id, d.department_id FROM course_details c FULL OUTER JOIN department_details d ON
(c.department_id=d. department_id)
D. SELECT c.course_id, d.department_id FROM course_details c FULL OUTER JOIN department_details d ON
(c.department_idd. department_id)
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 11
Which three statements are true about the ALTER TABLE….DROP COLUMN…. command?
A. A column can be dropped only if it does not contain any data.
B. A column can be dropped only if another column exists in the table.
C. A dropped column can be rolled back.
D. The column in a composite PRIMARY KEY with the CASCADE option can be dropped.
E. A parent key column in the table cannot be dropped.
Correct Answer: BDE


QUESTION 12
View the Exhibit and examine, the description for the SALES and CHANNELS tables. (Choose the best answer.) You
issued this SQL statement:
INSERT INTO SALES VALUES (23, 2300, SYSDATE,
(SELECT CAHNNEL_ID
FROM CHANNELS
WHERE CHANNEL_DESC=\\’DIRECT SALES\\’), 12, 1, 500);
Which statement is true regarding the result?
A. The statement will fail because the sub-query in the VALUES clause is not enclosed within single quotation marks.
B. The statement will fail because a subquery cannot be used in a VALUES clause.
C. The statement will execute and a new row will be inserted in the SALES table.
D. The statement will fail because the VALUES clause is not required with the subquery.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 13
Examine the command:
SQL> ALTER TABLE books_transactions
ADD CONSTRAINT fk_book_id FOREIGN KEY (book_id)
REFERENCES books (book_id) ON DELETE CASCADE;
What does ON DELETE CASCADE imply?
A. When the BOOKS table is dropped, the BOOK_TRANSACTIONS table is dropped.
B. When the BOOKS table is dropped, all the rows in the BOOK_TRANSACTIONS table are deleted but the table
structure is retained.
C. When a row in the BOOKS table is deleted, the rows in the BOOK_TRANSACTIONS table whose BOOK_ID
matches that of the deleted row in the BOOKS table are also deleted.
D. When a value in the BOOKS.BOOK_ID column is deleted, the corresponding value is updated in the
BOOKS_TRANSACTIONS.BOOK_ID column.
Correct Answer: C

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Pass4itsure offers the latest Microsoft Dynamics AX MB6-890 practice test free of charge (22Q&As)

QUESTION 1
You need to write an expression to calculate the compound interest that a bank needs
The formula for compound interest after one period is as follows:
I = (P * (1 + R)) – P
Where
I = Compound interest
P = Principal that was invested
R = Rate of interest
after one period.
Which X++ expression is equivalent to the formula above using operator precedence in X+- +-?
A. I = P* 1 + R- P
B. I = P*(1 + R-P)
C. I = P*(1 + R)-P
D. I = (P* 1) + (R-P)
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
You have a table named CustTable. which has the following three fields: AccountNum, Currency, and CustGroup. You need to wnte X++ code to insert a record into CustTable and set the values of the three fields as follows:
AccountNum = “5000-
Currency = “USD”
CustGroup=”30″
Which two code segments can you use to achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution
pass4itsure MB6-890 question
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 3
You have an X++ class that has the following code
pass4itsure MB6-890 question
You are writing a static method. You have an object of AssetBookCompareContract named assetBookCompareContractObj that is initialized within this method.
You need to print the current value of the firstAssetBookld variable from the assetBookCompareContractObj object.
Which piece of code should you use to achieve this goal?
A. irvFo(assetBookCompareContractObj : :fIrstAssetBookld);
B. info(assetBookCompareContractObj.f IrstAssetBookld);
C. info(assetBookCompareContractObj.panmFirstAssetBookId(“”));
D. info(assetBookCompareContractObj.parmFirstAssel:BookId());
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
You have the following X++ statement
pass4itsure MB6-890 question
What is the output of the statement?
A. An error has occurred.
VariableB cannot be less than variableA.
B. An error has occurred.
Process was aborted.
C. An error has occurred.
VariableB cannot be less than variableA.
D. VariableB cannot be less than variableA.
Process was aborted.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
You want to have a form where you can display an image in a fast tab. Which type of sub- pattern should you apply to the fast tab?
A. Horizontal fields and Button group
B. Section tiles
C. Custom filters
D. Image preview
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
You are using Visual Studio to manage development with Microsoft Dynamics AX. You need to complete a project for use within the application. Which step must be performed?
A. best practice check
B. synchronization
C. build
D. validation
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
You have two classes written in X++ with the following code:
pass4itsure MB6-890 question
Which three methods of the DirParty class are accessible from the Write method? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution.)
A. duplicateCurrentParty()
B. addLocation()
C. update()
D. getContactlnfo()
E. add LocationCI ientO
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 8
You need to develop a new XDS policy for employees. You employees’ expense records.
Where should you apply the filter?A. Constrained tables
B. Query
C. Policy group
D. Context string
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
You are developing a form that allows users to update an order status. You create a table named Tablel that you will use as a data source for this form.
You want to include a radio-button style selection so that the end user can choose between three different order statuses: “Canceled”, “Delivered”, “Processing”.
What should you add to Table1 so that you can add the radio button selection to the form?
A. three different string fields that represent each order status
B. three different Extended Data Types (EDTs) of type string with each order status
C. a Boolean data type with values that represent each choice
D. a base enumeration with three elements that represent each order status
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
You need to ensure that the custom roles that are created for your company comply with the segregation of duties. What are three possible ways to achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Verification
B. Authorization
C. Application
D. Validation
E. Contextualization
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 11
You have an X+ + class that has the following code:
public class CustAdvancelnvoiceJourDP
{
private void insertCustVendAdvanceInvoiceJourTmp()
{
// do work
}
public void processReport()
{
// call InsertCustVendAdvancelnvoiceJourTmp
}
}
You need to call insertCustVendAdvancelnvoiceJourTmpO from the processReport method on the current instance of the object Which piece of code should you write within the processReport method to achieve this goal?
A. CustiAdvancelnvoiceJourDP newObj = new CustAdvanceInvoiceDourDP(); newObj.insertCustVendAdvanceInvoiceDourTmp();
B. CustAdvancelnvoiceDourDP.insertCustVendAdvancelnvoiceJourTmp();
C. CustAdvancelnvoiceDourOP: :insertCustVendAdvanceInvoiceDourTmp( ) ;
D. this.insertCustVendAdvanceInvoice3ourTmp();
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
You are writing a class named Asset Copy.
You need to create a menu item that, when clicked, runs code written in the Asset Copy class.
What should you do to achieve this goal?
A. Create a method in the AssetCopy class which has a prototype of “client static void main(Args args)’ Create an Action Menu item, and set the ObjectType to Class and the Object to “AssetCopy”.
B. Create a method in the AssetCopy class which has a prototype of “void run()”.
Create an Action Menu item, and set the ObjectType to Class and the Object to “AssetCopy”.
C. Create a method in the AssetCopy class which has a prototype of “void new(AssetTable _assetTable)”.
Create an Action Menu item, and set the ObjectType to Class and the Object to “AssetCopy”.
D. Create a method in the AssetCopy class which has a prototype of “Object dialogO”.
Create an Action Menu item, and set the ObjectType to Class and the Object to “AssetCopy”.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
You are using the Visual Studio development environment to perform a customization for your client.
You need to follow best practices to create a new table to store customer ranking information for each custom
What should you name this new table element?
A. Custrankinginfo
B. CustRankinglnfo
C. CustRankinglnfo
D. custrankinginfo
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
You have the following X++ classes:
class ProductDimensionAttribute;
{
string attribute
void getAttribute()
{
return “Color”;
}
}
Class ColorDiraensionAttnibute extends ProductDimensionAttribute
{
void getAttribute( )
{
return “Green”;
}
}
You also have a runnable class which has the following co
ProductDimensionAttribute dimension;ColorDimensionAttribute color = new ColorDimensionAttribute();
info(color.getAttnibute());
dimension = color;
inf o(dimension . getAttribute()) ;
Which output is correct if you run the above code that is part of the runnable class?
A. Green Color
B. Green Green
C. Color Color
D. Color Green
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
You are working in the Visual Studio development environment of Microsoft Dynamics AX. You need to delete the data in a specific table. What should you use?
A. Table Browser
B. Delete Actions
C. Code Profiler
D. Type Hierarchy Browser
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
You create a duty to maintain customer master information.
Which two elements can you add to the duty?
A. permissions
B. policies
C. privileges
D. process cycles
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
You need to create several reports that use the same combination of tables as data sources. You know that you will need a relation between these tables so that the report outputs as desired. You also want the ability to change details, such
as report parameters or sorting options, at run time.
Which element should you create to store these tables and the relations so that you can reuse the element as the data source on future reports?
A. a new table
B. a query
C. a view
D. a table map
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
Your company needs a new table that will track customer names and numbers for three new types of transactions, along with the date for each transaction.
You need to create the new table and fields.
Which field should you create using a base enumeration?
A. customer name
B. transaction type
C. customer account number
D. transaction date
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
You need to explain the attributes of a package in Microsoft Dynamics AX.
Which three statements are true? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. A package can be associated with one or more projects.
B. A package can only be associated with one project.
C. A package can contain one or more models.
D. A package can only be associated with one model.
E. A package can be exported to a file.
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 20
You have two tables: CustTable and CustTrans.
CustTrans has a foreign key relation with CustTable on the “AccountNum” field. Multiple CustTrans records refer to a single CustTable record. Each CustTrans record can refer to a single CustTable record.
You want to write code to display records of customers and their corresponding transactions. You need to display the following fields:
AccountNum from CustTable table
CustGroup from CustTable table
AmountCur from CustTrans table
Finally, you want to select only the approved transactions. An approved transaction is a CustTrans record where the value of the Approved field is NoYes::Yes.
You need to choose the data that meets these requirements.
Which select statement should you use?
A. CustTable custTable;
CustTrans custTrans;
while select: AccountNum, CustGroup -From custTable join AmountCur -from custTrans
where custTrans.AccountNum == custTable.AccountNum && custTrans.Approved == NoYes::Yes
{
// do work
}
B. CustTable custTable;
CustTrans custTrans;
while select: AccountNum, CustGroup from custTable exists join AmountCur -from custTrans
where custTrans.AccountNum == custTable.AccountNum && custTrans-Approved == NoYes::Yes
{
// do work
}
C. CustTable custTable;
CustTrans custTrans;
while select AccountNum, CustGroup from custTable where custTrans .AccountNum == custTable. AccountNum join AmountCust -from custTrans where custTrans.Approved == NoYes:;Yes {
// do work
}
D. CustTable custTable;
CustTrans custTrans;
while select AccountNum, CustGroup, AmountCur -from custTable join custTrans
where custTrans-AccountNum == custTable.AccountNum && custTrans.Approved == NoYes::Yes
{
// do work
}
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
You are working in Visual Studio to manage development with Microsoft Dynamics AX.What are three capabilities of the Application Explorer? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Searching
B. Filtering
C. Server view
D. Model view
E. Project view
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 22
You are writing a function “SumOflnt(n)” that returns the sum of numbers from 0 to n as shown in the following exhibit:
SumOflnt(l) = 0 + 1 = 1
SumOflnt(2) = 0+1 + 2 = 3
SumOflnt(n) = 0 + 1 + … (n-1) + n
The function prototype is the following:
public static int SumOflnUint n)
{
}
Which two functions return the correct answer? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. public static int SumOflnt(int n)
{
int total = O;
int i = O;
do
{
I++;
total = total + i;
}
while (i < n);
return total;
}
B. public static int SumOfInt(int n)
{
int total = 0;
int i = 0;
while(i < n)
{
total = total + i;
i + + ;
}
return total;
}
C. public static int SumOflnt(int n)
{
int total = 0;
int i = O;
do
{
i++;
total = total + i;
}
while (i <= n);
return total;
}
D. public static int SumOflnt(int n)
{
int total = 0;
int i = 0;
while(i <= n)
{
total = total + i;
i + +;
}
return total;
}
Correct Answer: BC

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QUESTION 1
You are a purchasing agent.
Your company agrees on a purchase price with a supplier. You create a purchase agreement.
Which two tasks can you perform with the agreement? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Createa release order when no commitment is defined for quantity of a product.
B. Create purchase agreements based on quality or weight.
C. Define a validity period for the purchase agreement.
D. Put purchase agreements on hold during ordering.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 2
You are working with a vendor who supplies you with apparel and sporting good products. You are
negotiating a new purchase agreement with the vendor.
The agreement terms you have arranged with the vendor are for a 3 percent discount on all of the sporting
good products when the order volume over the next month is at least 50,000 USD.
Which commitment type should you use?
A. product quantity
B. product value
C. product category value
D. value
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
You are the controller at Contoso, Ltd. You have configured the chart of accounts for the company and
included two main accounts that should be used for posting vendor account balances. One is used for
regular external vendor accounts, and the other is used for intercompany vendor accounts.
You need to configure the system to use these two main accounts.
What should you do?
A. Create a vendor posting profile.
B. Create a journal name.
C. Create an inventory posting profile.
D. Create an allocation journal.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
You are implementing Microsoft Dynamics AX Distribution and Trade for a new customer.
You need to configure the costing methodology to be a Weighted Average for all items.
What should you configure?
A. product dimension groups
B. item model groups
C. tracking dimension groups
D. item groups
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
You need to configure commissions to be calculated on sales, only after all discounts are taken on the line
items of a sales order.
What should you use?
A. The Sales order journal
B. The Price/discount agreement journal
C. The Commission percentage field
D. The Discount field
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
You need to set up locations for a warehouse that will store finished goods for one of your company’s
divisions.
What are three possible details that you can specify for the locations? Each correct answer presents a
complete solution.
A. The maximum number of pallets
B. The physical dimensions
C. The inventory dimensions
D. The maximum dimensions of the items
E. The maximum weight that can be stored
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 7
You need to ensure that a shipment from a vendor can be accepted into inventory, even if the quantity of
the product received is greater than the amount ordered.
What should you configure?
A. The inventory and warehouse management parameters
B. The procurement and sourcing parameters
C. The product Information management parameters
D. The accounts payable parameters
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
You are presenting sales quotations to your client for review.
What are the two statuses that can be selected on an open sales quotation? Each correct answer presents
a complete solution.
A. Order status is sent.
B. Run in the background is selected.
C. Order status is confirmed.
D. Reason lost or cancelled is selected.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 9
You are the purchasing administrator for your company.You need to create a purchasing policy.
Which two policy rules should be selected to manage employee access to specific categories in the
procurement category hierarchy and to define rules that control the requisition creation process? Each
correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Category access policy rule.
B. Replenishment category access policy rule.
C. Requisition purpose rule
D. Purchase requisition control rule
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 10
You are the accounts receivable manager. You need to match customer invoices to payments that will be
recorded by searching invoice lines that meet selected criteria.
Which search option should you use?
A. Bridging method
B. Settlements
C. Create lines
D. Payment proposal
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
You are the purchasing agent for your company.
You need to create a request for quotation (RFQ) for a product that is not in the item drop- down list.
Which type of line item should you create?
A. Category
B. Open
C. Solicitation
D. Item
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
You need to register a pallet controlled item.
What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Complete a pallet transport.
B. Post an arrival journal.
C. Use the Direct registration function on the Arrival overview form.
D. Use the registration function on the order line.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 13
You plan to create a sales order for an item.
Currently, you do not have the item on hand, but you have a purchase order for the item.
You need to ensure that the item can be reserved against the purchase order.
What should you do?A. From the Accounts payable parameters form, set Reservation to Automatic.
B. From the Inventory and warehouse management parameters form, select Reserve items automatically.
C. From the Accounts receivable parameters form, set Reservation to Automatic.
D. From the Inventory and warehouse management parameters form, select Reserve ordered items.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
The bill of exchange process needs to be set up on your new Microsoft Dynamics AX Distribution and
Trade system.
Which three configuration steps are required? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. journal names for eachstage
B. bridging account
C. posting profiles
D. remittance format
E. a method of payment
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 15
You need to add freight and handling charges when you enter a new purchase order.
What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Create a journal for the freight and handling charges.
B. Add two additional lines to the purchase order, one for the freight service item and one for the handling
service items.
C. Add two additional supplementary items to the purchase order, one for freight and one for handling.
D. Add two charges transactions that each has a charges code.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 16
You are an accounts receivable manager.
Your company wants its top 10 customers in August to receive a best-selling product at a reduced price.
You need to establish a price.
Which two actions should you perform to configure Microsoft Dynamics AX Distribution and Trade for this
task? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Set up the item sales price in the released product table.
B. Set up a Customer group for the 10 customers to be assigned to.
C. Set up a price/discount journal.
D. Set up a Price/Discount group for the 10 customers.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 17
Your department manager wants an estimate of the actual invoice amounts that you will bill for a customer
this month. However, the department manager does not want these amounts posted.
From which two types of invoices can you create a pro forma invoice? Each correct answer presents a
complete solution.A. subledger
B. customer
C. payment schedule
D. free text
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 18
You are an order processor at Contoso, Ltd.
You create a new sales order for a wholesale company. Later, the sales manager at Contoso, Ltd. for the
wholesales account informs you that their company has a sales agreement for a 10 percent discount on
apparel items.
You need to ensure that the discount is applied correctly to the order and that the order updates the
fulfillment of the sales agreement.
What should you do?
A. Put the sales order on hold, and then create a release from the sales agreement.
B. Update the existing sales order lines to link to the sales agreement by using the Price details option
under the Sales orderline button on the sales order.
C. Delete the sales order, and then create a new sales order by using the Copy from journal function.
D. Update the existing sales order lines to link to the sales agreement by using the Create link option
under the Update line button on the sales order.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
You are the purchasing agent for your company. You create a request for quotation (RFQ) and send it to
vendors.
You need to categorize the responses you receive from the vendors.
What should you set up?
A. Purchase agreement classification
B. Results view
C. Reason codes
D. Vendor reply status
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20
You are the accounts payable manager for your company. You and the vendor agree that defective items
will be returned with a reference to the original purchase order.
You need to create a vendor credit note.
What are three methods that can be used? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Copy the original purchase invoice.
B. Createa purchase order with the purchase type blanket order.
C. Create a purchase order with the purchase type journal.
D. Create a purchase order with the purchase type returned order.
E. Create a purchase order line for a negative quantity.
Correct Answer: CDE

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QUESTION 1
You are processing a customer payment and want to generate a payment line based on due date so that you can search the invoice lines that meet selected search criteria.
What should you do?
A. Use Settlement
B. Use payment transfer.
C. Use Manual Payment Journal
D. Use Payment proposal
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
In Microsoft Dynamics AX Financial, you generate a fixed assets acquisition transaction directly from a purchase order invoice. Where will the associated General Ledger postings be made?
A. To only the Fixed asset issue account.
B. To only the Fixed asset receipt account.
C. To only the Fixed asset suspense account.
D. To the Fixed asset issue and Fixed asset receipt accounts.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Your company creates a policy that requires invoice matching information on documents.
Which three types of documents are used for invoice matching? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. purchase order
B. vendor invoice
C. receipts list
D. purchase order confirmation
E. product receipt
Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 4
A controller wants to run a Trial Balance report by main account and department
What does that controller need to set up so that Microsoft Dynamics AX Financial will allow this selection during the generation of the Trial Balance report?
A. derived financial hierarchies
B. advanced rule structures
C. financial dimension sets
D. account structures
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Your company needs to reuse a check number in case a check was printed incorrectly or the check stock was not used. You need to allow reuse of the check number. Where do you define this action?
A. in the Vendors area of the Accounts payable parameters setup form
B. in the Customers area of Accounts receivable parameters setup form
C. in the Cash and bank management parameters form of the Cash and bank management parameters setup form
D. in the Posting area of the General ledger parameters setup form
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
You are implementing fixed assets for your company. Your company buys a machine for 100.000 USD and recognizes 10,000 USD of depreciation per year over the following ten years. At that time, the machine is not only fully depreciated,
but the company is eliminating the machine without receiving any payment in return.
What are two available methods to eliminate a fixed asset? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Revaluation
B. Provision for reserve
C. Disposal scrap
D. Disposal sale
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 7
You are setting up an allocation rule and distributing amounts based on revenue dollars.
You need to share the cost of corporate advertising expenses across all departments and base each department’s sales in proportion to the total sales of all departments.
Which allocation should you choose?
A. Fixed Percentage
B. Equally
C. Fixed Weight
D. Basis
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
You need to consolidate multiple subsidiary company transactions into the consolidation company in Microsoft Dynamics AX Financial.
You need to modify the financial dimensions at the time of consolidation, such as including the originating company code on each transaction.
When performing a consolidation in Dynamics AX, which three specifications can be selected for each dimension? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. group dimension
B. main accounts
C. dimension
D. operating units
E. company accounts
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 9
You are an accounts receivable manager.
You have an agreement with a customer that they will pay installments on the 25th day of the month every three months.
On the customer terms of payment, which three settings do you need to specify? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. cash payment
B. payment method
C. payment type
D. payment day
E. payment schedule
Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 10
You are the controller in a foreign subsidiary of your company.
You are creating a sales order with no sales tax for a foreign customer. You need to report this sales by creating a tax code.
What should you set up in this situation?
A. conditional sales tax
B. withholding sales tax
C. standard sales tax
D. sales tax exemption
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Your company has decided to add five new vendors for purchasing and you are responsible for confi-guring the vendors in the new system.
You want to group vendors by some specific values that are shared across multiple vendors and you have indentified vender groups on the vendor group from, which two specific values can be defined? Each correct answer presents a
complete solution.
A. Terms of payment
B. aging periods
C. matching policy
D. default tax group
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 12
You decide that department managers must submit budget plans to you each quarter.
You need to use the budget planning template wizard to generate a budget planning template that each department submit to you.
What are three prerequisites for creating a template for budget plan worksheets? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Create a budget plan and review its information by using a worksheet template.
B. Decide which matrix fields to creat.
C. Select the worksheet template to use for the budget planning process.
D. Decide which fields to use for the header.
E Decide which columns to include on the worksheet.
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 13
You are implementing consolidations for your company. You want to use the consolidation conversion principles to convert subsidiary data in foreign currencies.
What are three requirements for starting the consolidation process? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Consolidation accounts
B. Balance control account
C. Consolidation account group
D. Legal Entity
E. Ledger elimination rule
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 14
You are an accounts receivable manager.
You need to generate a document that you can send to for a period.
What should you do?
A. Generate an internal accounts statement.
B. Generate a report for customer transactions.
C. Generate a collection letter note.
D. Generate a customer accounts statement.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
Your customer needs to set up Fixed assets and treat them as though they were purchased and placed in service at the mid-point of the first year, no matter when during that year the purchase was actually made.
Which depreciation convention should you use when creating the depreciation profile?
A. full month
B. half year
C. mid quarter
D. mid month
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Your company creates a bank account for U.S. payroll disbursements.
You need to configure the new bank account in Microsoft Dynamics AX Financial and configure the check layout. You notice the date is printing in DD-MM-YYYY format, and you are not able to change the date format on the check layout
form.
What determines the format of the date?
A. bank group on the bank groups form
B. check form setting on the check layout form
C. bank on the bank account form
D. vendor on the vendor form
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
You are creating a budget register entry. You notice that a manual budget reservation will exceed the budget.
What should you do within the budget register entry to satisfy the over-budget condition?
A. enter recurrence
B. transfer balances
C. allocate across periods
D. allocate across dimensions
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
You are setting up taxes on customer invoices. You need to report a sales tax on the invoice, as and when it is settled, to the tax authorities
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When the customer settles the invoice with the second payment of 625 USD, you report the remaining sales tax. What should you set up in this situation?
A. Withholding sales tax
B. Sales tax exemption
C. Standard sales tax
D. Conditional sales taxes
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 19
You are creating a new budget and realize that you need to allocate a certain percentage of the total budget amount across defined periods.
In order to do this on the budget register entry, you need to define the percentage that will be allocated in each period.
What should you set up in order to achieve this goal?
A. budget transfer
B. period allocation key
C. budget allocation term
D. budget cycle
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20
An accountant needs to define which main accounts and financial dimensions can t>e used together when entering journals and transactions.
The accountant sets up the chart of accounts and creates the financial dimensions.
What are two possible actions the accountant can perform next to achieve the goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Configure Account Structure.
B. Create Derived Financial Hierarchies.
C. Set up Advanced Rules.
D. Set up Financial Dimension Sets.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 21
Because of an agreement that your company has with a customer about when a payment can be posted, you need to prevent users from posting payments until a specified date.
Which field should you update on the customer payment journal to achieve this goal?
A. Due date
B. Approval date
C. Release date
D. Payment date
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
You are a credit and collections manager.
You need to group all customers who are based in a single city and have balances greater than 10,000 USD so that the collections process is streamlined for the collections agent.
What should you do?
A. Set up collection agents.
B. Set up collections case category.
C. Set up customer pools.
D. Create a collections team.
Correct Answer: D

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Which of the following BEST describes a protective countermeasure for SQL injection?
A. Eliminating cross-site scripting vulnerabilities
B. Installing an IDS to monitor network traffic
C. Validating user input in web applications
D. Placing a firewall between the Internet and database servers
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which of the following MOST interferes with network-based detection techniques?
A. Mime-encoding
B. SSL
C. FTP
D. Anonymous email accounts
JK0-018 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
A certificate authority takes which of the following actions in PKI?
A. Signs and verifies all infrastructure messages
B. Issues and signs all private keys
C. Publishes key escrow lists to CRLs
D. Issues and signs all root certificates
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Use of a smart card to authenticate remote servers remains MOST susceptible to which of the following attacks?
A. Malicious code on the local system
B. Shoulder surfing
C. Brute force certificate cracking
D. Distributed dictionary attacks
JK0-018 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Separation of duties is often implemented between developers and administrators in order to separate which of the following?
A. More experienced employees from less experienced employees
B. Changes to program code and the ability to deploy to production
C. Upper level management users from standard development employees
D. The network access layer from the application access layer
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
A security administrator needs to update the OS on all the switches in the company. Which of the following MUST be done before any actual switch configuration is performed?
A. The request needs to be sent to the incident management team.
B. The request needs to be approved through the incident management process.
C. The request needs to be approved through the change management process.
D. The request needs to be sent to the change management team.
JK0-018 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Jane, an individual, has recently been calling various financial offices pretending to be another person to gain financial information. Which of the following attacks is being described?
A. Phishing
B. Tailgating
C. Pharming
D. Vishing
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
A user in the company is in charge of various financial roles but needs to prepare for an upcoming audit. They use the same account to access each financial system. Which of the following security controls will MOST likely be implemented within the company?
A. Account lockout policy
B. Account password enforcement
C. Password complexity enabled
D. Separation of duties
JK0-018 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
A CRL is comprised oF.
A. Malicious IP addresses.
B. Trusted CA’s.
C. Untrusted private keys.
D. Public keys.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
Sara, a user, downloads a keygen to install pirated software. After running the keygen, system performance is extremely slow and numerous antivirus alerts are displayed. Which of the following BEST describes this type of malware?
A. Logic bomb
B. Worm
C. Trojan
D. Adware
JK0-018 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Which of the following may significantly reduce data loss if multiple drives fail at the same time?
A. Virtualization
B. RAID
C. Load balancing
D. Server clustering
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
Which of the following should be considered to mitigate data theft when using CAT5 wiring?
A. CCTV
B. Environmental monitoring
C. Multimode fiber
D. EMI shielding
JK0-018 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
To help prevent unauthorized access to PCs, a security administrator implements screen savers that lock the PC after five minutes of inactivity. Which of the following controls is being described in this situation?
A. Management
B. Administrative
C. Technical
D. Operational
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Pete, a network administrator, is capturing packets on the network and notices that a large amount of the traffic on the LAN is SIP and RTP protocols. Which of the following should he do to segment that traffic from the other traffic?
A. Connect the WAP to a different switch.
B. Create a voice VLAN.
C. Create a DMZ.
D. Set the switch ports to 802.1q mode.
JK0-018 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
Which of the following IP addresses would be hosts on the same subnet given the subnet mask 255.255.255.224? (Select TWO).
A. 10.4.4.125
B. 10.4.4.158
C. 10.4.4.165
D. 10.4.4.189
E. 10.4.4.199
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 21
Which of the following algorithms has well documented collisions? (Select TWO).
A. AES
B. MD5
C. SHA
D. SHA-256
E. RSA
JK0-018 pdf Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 22
Which of the following is BEST used as a secure replacement for TELNET?
A. HTTPS
B. HMAC
C. GPG
D. SSH
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 23
An email client says a digital signature is invalid and the sender cannot be verified. The recipient is concerned with which of the following concepts?
A. Integrity
B. Availability
C. Confidentiality
D. Remediation
JK0-018 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
Which of the following is an effective way to ensure the BEST temperature for all equipment within a datacenter?
A. Fire suppression
B. Raised floor implementation
C. EMI shielding
D. Hot or cool aisle containment
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 25
Which of the following transportation encryption protocols should be used to ensure maximum security between a web browser and a web server?
A. SSLv2
B. SSHv1
C. RSA
D. TLS
JK0-018 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26
Developers currently have access to update production servers without going through an approval process. Which of the following strategies would BEST mitigate this risk?
A. Incident management
B. Clean desk policy
C. Routine audits
D. Change management
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 27
Which of the following is a difference between TFTP and FTP?
A. TFTP is slower than FTP.
B. TFTP is more secure than FTP.
C. TFTP utilizes TCP and FTP uses UDP.
D. TFTP utilizes UDP and FTP uses TCP.
JK0-018 dumps Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
Matt, an administrator, notices a flood fragmented packet and retransmits from an email server. After disabling the TCP offload setting on the NIC, Matt sees normal traffic with packets flowing in sequence again. Which of the following utilities was he MOST likely using to view this issue?
A. Spam filter
B. Protocol analyzer
C. Web application firewall
D. Load balancer
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 29
Which of the following is characterized by an attacker attempting to map out an organization’s staff hierarchy in order to send targeted emails?
A. Whaling
B. Impersonation
C. Privilege escalation
D. Spear phishing
JK0-018 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
Which of the following would a security administrator implement in order to discover comprehensive security threats on a network?
A. Design reviews
B. Baseline reporting
C. Vulnerability scan
D. Code review
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 31
Which of the following is an example of a false positive?
A. Anti-virus identifies a benign application as malware.
B. A biometric iris scanner rejects an authorized user wearing a new contact lens.
C. A user account is locked out after the user mistypes the password too many times.
D. The IDS does not identify a buffer overflow.
JK0-018 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 32
Data execution prevention is a feature in most operating systems intended to protect against which type of attack?
A. Cross-site scripting
B. Buffer overflow
C. Header manipulation
D. SQL injection
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 33
Use of group accounts should be minimized to ensure which of the following?
A. Password security
B. Regular auditing
C. Baseline management
D. Individual accountability
JK0-018 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 34
Privilege creep among long-term employees can be mitigated by which of the following procedures?
A. User permission reviews
B. Mandatory vacations
C. Separation of duties
D. Job function rotation
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 35
In which of the following scenarios is PKI LEAST hardened?
A. The CRL is posted to a publicly accessible location.
B. The recorded time offsets are developed with symmetric keys.
C. A malicious CA certificate is loaded on all the clients.
D. All public keys are accessed by an unauthorized user.
JK0-018 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 36
Configuring the mode, encryption methods, and security associations are part of which of the following?
A. IPSec
B. Full disk encryption
C. 802.1x
D. PKI
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 37
Which of the following assessments would Pete, the security administrator, use to actively test that an application’s security controls are in place?
A. Code review
B. Penetration test
C. Protocol analyzer
D. Vulnerability scan
JK0-018 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 38
A security administrator has just finished creating a hot site for the company. This implementation relates to which of the following concepts?
A. Confidentiality
B. Availability
C. Succession planning
D. Integrity
Correct Answer: B

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