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HPE6-A81 Dumps [Real Training] Questions To Pass Aruba Certified ClearPass Expert Written Exam

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QUESTION 1

Refer to the Exhibit:

A customer wants to integrate posture validation into an Aruba Wireless 802.1X authentication service
During testing, the client connects to the Aruba Employee Secure SSID and is redirected to the Captive Portal page.

where the user can download the OnGuard Agent After the Agent is installed, the client receives the Healthy token the client remains connected to the Captive Portal page ClearPass is assigning the endpoint the following roles: T2-StaffUser. (Machine Authenticated! and T2-SOL-Device.

What could cause this behavior?

A. The Enforcement Policy conditions for rule 1 are not configured correctly.
B. Used Cached Results: has not been enabled In the Aruba 802.1X Wireless Service
C. RFC-3576 Is not configured correctly on the Aruba Controller and does not update the role.
D. The Enforcement Profile should bounce the connection instead of a Terminate session

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2

Under Onboard management and control, which option will deny the user from re-provisioning the device a second time?

A. Revoke and Delete certificate
B. Delete user
C. Revoke certificate
D. Delete certificate

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3

A Customer has these requirements:

*2.000 loT endpoints that use MAC authentication
*6,000 endpoints using a mix of username/password and certificate (Corporate/BYOD) based authentication
*1,000 guest endpoints at peak usage that use guest self-registration
*1500 BYOD devices estimated as 3 devices per User (500 users)
*2,500 endpoints that have OnGuard installed and connect on a daily basis

What licenses should be installed to meet customer requirements?

A. 11,500 Access, 500 Onboard, 2,500 Onguard
B. 13.000 Access, 1.500 Onboard, 2,500 Onguard
C. 11,500 Access, 1,500 Onboard, 2.500 Onguard
D. 9,000 Access, 500 Onboard. 2.500 Onguard

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4

A customer has acquired another company that has its own Active Directory infrastructure The 802 1X authentication works with the customer’s original Active Directory servers but the customer would like to authenticate users from the acquired company as well. What steps are required, in regards to the Authentication Sources, in order to support this request? (Select two.)

A. Create a new Authentication Source, type Active Directory.
B. Join the ClearPass server(s) to the new AD domain.
C. Add the new AD server(s) as backup into the existing Authentication Source.
D. There is no need to Join ClearPass to the new AD domain.
E. Create a new Authentication Source, type Generic LDAP.

Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 5

A customer has created a Guest Sett-Registration page that they would like to use as a `template\\’ for all the new pages that are going to be created from now on. Their goal is to ensure that the header and footer on every page are the same, and any edits made to them are automatically reflected on every Self-Registration Page. What should be configured in order to accomplish this request?

A. Save the “template” page as the Master Self-Registration page
B. Create child pages when creating new Self-Registration pages and select the “template” as Parent
C. Save this “template” page as a new Skin to be used on other Self-Registration pages
D. Copy the “template” page and edit it each time a new Self-Registration Page is needed

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6

Refer to the exhibit:

When creating a new report, there is an option to send report Notifications by Email. Where is the email server configured?

A. In the ClearPass Policy Manager Endpoint Context servers under Administration.
B. In the Insight Reports Interface under Administration on the sidebar menu.
C. In the insight report on the next screen of the report definition.
D. In the ClearPass Policy Manager Messaging setup under Administration.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7

Refer to the exhibit:

What is true about the Insight Master Server? {Select two)

A. It Is recommended to have an insight server for every zone to limit the traffic between sites.
B. The Publisher is selected by default as Insight Master Server but It can be changed.
C. There is no need to configure an insight Master Server when using default reports and alerts.
D. An insight Master Server should be selected in order to configure reports and alerts.
E. When enabling a server to be the insight Master any existing insight Master is overwritten.

Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 8

Refer to the exhibit:

A customer has configured onboard in a cluster with two nodes All devices were onboarded in the network through node1 but those clients tail to authenticate through node2 with the error shown. What steps would you suggest to make provisioning and authentication work across the entire cluster? (Select three.)

A. Have all of the BYOD clients re-run the Onboard process
B. Configure the Onboard Root CA to trust the Policy Manager EAP certificate root.
C. Have all of the BYOD clients disconnect and reconnect to my network
D. Make sure that the EAP certificates on both nodes are issued by one common root Certificate Authority (CA).
E. Make sure that the HTTPS certificate on both nodes is issued as a Code Signing certificate
F. Configure the Network Settings on Onboard to trust the Policy Manager EAP certificate

Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 9

You are integrating a Postgres SQL server with the ClearPass Policy Manager. What steps will you follow to complete the integration process? (Select three)

A. Click on the default filter name with pre-defined filter queries and a check box to enable as role.
B. Specify a new filter with filter queries to fetch authentication and authorization attributes.
C. Attribute Name under filter configuration must match one of the columns being requested from the database table.
D. Create a new Endpoint context server and add the SQL server IP, credentials, and database name.
E. Alias Name under filter configuration must match one of the columns being requested from the database table.
F. Create a new authentication source and add the SQL server IP, credentials, and database name.

Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 10

Refer to the exhibit:

A customer with multiple Aruba Controllers has just installed a new certificate for “*.customerdomain com” on all Aruba Controllers. While testing the existing guest Self-Registration page the customer noticed that the logins are failing. While troubleshooting they are finding no entries in the Event Viewer or Access Tracker for the tests.

Suspecting that the Aruba Controllers may not be properly posting the credentials from the guest browser, they open the NAS Vendor Settings for the Guest Self-Registration Page. From the screen shown, how can you fix the errors?

A. Change the “IP Address: field to” securelogin.customerdomain.com.
B. Change the “Secure Login:” field to “Use Vendor Default”.
C. Change the “IP Address field to “captive portal-login.customerdomain.com”.
D. Add PTR records on the DNS server for “securelogin.arubanetworks.com”.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11

What is the Secure SSID {otherwise referred to as Single SSID) OnBoard deployment service workflow?

A. OnBoard Provisioning RADIUS service, OnBoard Authorization RADIUS service. OnBoard Pre-Auth Application service, OnBoard Provisioning RADIUS service
B. OnBoard Provisioning RADIUS service, OnBoard Pre-Auth RADIUS service, OnBoard Authorization Application service. OnBoard Provisioning RADIUS service
C. OnBoard Provisioning RADIUS service, OnBoard Pre-Auth Application service. OnBoard Authorization Application service, OnBoard Provisioning RADIUS service
D. OnBoard Provisioning RADIUS service, OnBoard Authorization Application service, OnBoard Pre- Auth Application service, OnBoard Provisioning RADIUS service

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12

Refer to the exhibit:

After the helpdesk revoked the certificate of a device reported to be lost by an employee, the lost device
was seen as connected successfully to the secure network. Further testing has shown that the device
revocation is not working.

What steps should you follow to make device revocations work?

A. Copy the default [EAP-TLS with OSCP Enabled] authentication method and set The Verify certificate using the OSCP option as required then update the correct OSCP URL link of the OnBoard CA. Remove EAP-TLS and map the custom-created method to the OnBoard Authorization Service.

B. copy the default [EAP-TLS with OSCP Enabled] authentication method and set the verify certificate using the OSCP: option as “required” then configure the correct OSCF URL link for the OnBoard CA. Remove EAP-TLS and map the new [EAP-TLS with OSCP Enabled] method to the 802 1X Radius Service.

C. Remove the EAP-TLS authentication method configuration changes are required and add the “EAP-TLS with OCSP Enabled” authentication method in the OnBoard Provisioning service. No other configuration changes are required.

D. Edit the default [EAP-TLS with OSCP Enabled] authentication method and set the Verify certificate using the OSCP option as required then update the correct OSCP URL link of the OnBoard CA Remove EAP-TLS and map the new [EAP-TLS with OSCP Enabled] method to the OnBoard Provisioning Service.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13

Refer to the exhibit:

You configured the 802 1 x service enforcement conditions with the Endpoint profiling data. When the client connects to the network. ClearPass successfully profiles the client but the client always receives an incorrect enforcement profile The configurations in the Aruba controller are completed correctly. What is the cause of the issue?

A. An additional authorization source should be configured for profiling to work.
B. The enforcement policy conditions configured with profiling data are not correct.
C. The enforcement policy rules evaluation algorithm Is not configured correctly.
D. The option, to use cached roles and posture from previous sessions should be enabled.

Correct Answer: B
//////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////

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Q1
An administrator configures the MultiZone feature for a company network, where a mobility cluster is a primary zone and a standalone controller in the company\\’s DMZ represents a secondary data zone. The administrator configures two AP Groups and respective VAPs for the zones on the Mobility Master (MM) in the primary zone.
When the APS boots up and establish connections to both zones, the administrator notices that no data connections are established to the data zone. What must the administrator do to fix this problem?

A. Configure the same AP Groups and VAPs on the standalone controller, and associate the MultiZone APs to both groups.
B. Configure the same AP Group in the data zone as it is in the primary zone, and configure the VAPs in the data zone.
C. Have the MultiZone APS initially boot from the standalone controller in the data zone.
D. Create different AP groups and VAPs on the Mobility Master and standalone controllers, and associate the MultiZone APS to both groups.

Correct Answer: D

Q2
Which statement is true about the databases in ClearPass?

A. Entries in the guest user database do not expire.
B. A Static host list can only contain a list of IP addresses.
C. Entries in the guest user database can be deleted.
D. Entries in the local user database cannot be modified.
E. The endpoints database can only be populated by manually adding MAC addresses to the table.

Correct Answer: A

Q3
Refer to the exhibit.
Several interfaces on an AOS-Switch enforce 802. IX to a RADIUS server at 10.254.378.521. The interface 802. IX settings are shown in the exhibit and 802. IX is also enabled globally. The security team has added a requirement for port security on the interfaces as well. Before administrators enable port security, which additional step must they complete preventing issues?

A. Set an 802. l X client limit on the interfaces.
B. Manually add legitimate MAC addresses to the switch authorized MAC list.
C. Enable eavesdropping protection on the interfaces.
D. Enable DHCP snooping on VLAN 20.

Correct Answer: D

Q4

Refer to the exhibit.

The network administrator wants to reduce failover time If a switch link m VIAN 100 goes down. What should the administrator do?

A. Configure echo mode BFD on VLAN 100 on all OSPF routing devices on VLAN 100.
B. Lower the dead timer on the BDR of VLAN 100.
C. Lower the hello timer only on the BDR of VLAN 100.
D. Configure graceful restart on all of the OSPF routing devices on VLAN 100.

Correct Answer: A

Q5

Refer to the exhibit.

Switch-1 and Switch-2 connect on interface A23. The switches experience a connectivity issue. The network administrator sees that both switches show this interface as up. The administrator sees the output shown in the exhibit on Switch-1. What is a typical issue that could cause this output?

A. a hardware issue, such as a broken cable
B. asymmetric routing introduced by a routing configuration error
C. an issue with queuing, caused by mismatched QoS settings
D. mismatched IP addresses on the VLAN for the link

Correct Answer: A

Q6
An administrator creates service-based policies for AirGroup on the Mobility Master (MM). The administrator can define location-based policy limits based on which information?

A. AP names, AP groups, controller names, and controller groups
B. AP Fully Qualified Location Names (FQLNs) and controller Fully Qualified Domain Names (FQDNs)
C. AP names, AP groups, and AP Fully Qualified Location Names (FQLNs)
D. Controller names, controller groups, and controller Fully Qualified Domain Names (FQDNs)

Correct Answer: C

Q7
Refer to the exhibit.
An administrator implements AP licensing on a Mobility Master (MM).
Each campus is responsible to purchase its own AP licenses.
There are 900 AP licenses deployed in the global pool
There are three dedicated pools.
From the global pool, 300 AP licenses are assigned to each dedicated pool.
Network engineers at CampusA want to deploy an additional 100 APs. Currently, all of the AP licenses in CampusA and CampusB are allocated, but only 200 of the AP licenses m CampusC are allocated.
What can the administrator do to add capacity for the campus in alignment with campus policies?

A. Allow CampusA to share from the CampusC pool.
B. Add 100 more AP licenses and assign them to the CampusA pool.
C. Move 100 licenses from the CampusC pool to the global pool.
D. Add 100 more AP licenses to the global pool.

Correct Answer: B

Q8

Refer to the exhibits.

The network administrator enters the commands shown in Exhibit 2. What is the spanning-tree status on Al and A2?

A. A1 towards traffic, and A2 blocks traffic.
B. Both Al and A2 block traffic.
C. A1 blocks traffic and A2 forwards traffic.
D. Both A1 and A2 forward traffic

Correct Answer: D

Q9
Which is a valid policy simulation type in ClearPass? (Select three.)

A. Enforcement Policy
B. Posture token derivation
C. Role Mapping
D. Endpoint Profiler
E. Chained simulation

Correct Answer: ACE

Q10
A network administrator can set the OSPF metric-type on an AOS-Switch to Type 1 or Type 2. What is the difference?

A. A Type 2 metric marks external routes that can be advertised in NSSAs, while a Type 1 metric marks external routes that can only be advertised in normal areas.
B. A Type 2 metric assigns cost 1 to a 100 Gbps link, while a Type 1 metric assigns cost 1 to all links of 100 Mbps or higher.
C. A Type 2 metric is assigned to multiple external routes that are aggregated together, while a Type 1 metric does not permit external route aggregation.
D. A Type 2 metric stays the same as the external route is advertised, while a Type 1 metric increments with internal OSPF link costs.

Correct Answer: D

Q11

What is the purpose of the captive portal URL hash key on an AOS-Switch?

A. It authenticates guest users based on the password the users enter hi the portal.
B. It encrypts and secures the RADIUS messages that the AOS-Switch sends to ClearPass.
C. It does not let users alter the URL that redirects them to the portal.
D. It specifies the captive portal URL and conceals the setting in the config.

Correct Answer: C

Q12
A university wants to deploy ClearPass with the Guest module. They have two types of users that need to use web login authentication. The first type of users are students whose accounts are in an Active Directory server. The second type of user is friends of students who need to self-register to access the network.
How should the service be set up in the Policy Manager for this Network?

A. Guest User Repository and Active Directory server both as authentication sources
B. Active Directory server as the authentication source, and Guest User Repository as the authorization source
C. Guest User Repository as the authentication source, and Guest User Repository and Active Directory server as authorization sources
D. Either the Guest User Repository or Active Directory server should be the single authentication source
E. Guest User Repository as the authentication source and the Active Directory server as the authorization source

Correct Answer: A

Q13
A customer wants to implement Virtual IP redundancy, such that in case of a ClearPass server outage, 802.1x authentications will not be interrupted. The administrator has enabled a single Virtual IP address on two ClearPass servers.
Which statements accurately describe the next steps? (Select two.)

A. The NAD should be configured with the primary node IP address for RADIUS authentication on the 802.1x network.
B. A new Virtual IP address should be created for each NAD.
C. Both the primary and secondary nodes will respond to authentication requests sent to the Virtual IP address when the primary node is active.
D. The primary node will respond to authentication requests sent to the Virtual IP address when the primary node is active.
E. The NAD should be configured with the Virtual IP address for RADIUS authentications on the 802.1x network.

Correct Answer: DE

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1 –

A customer needs all users to be authenticated before getting access to the network resources. Which product should you recommend to meet this requirement?

A. ArubaClearPass
B. Aruba Central
C. Aruba Airwave
D. Aruba Introspect

2 –

A customer contacts you for assistance with an expansion of their current HPE Synergy environment. The existing environment contains:

1. one Synergy 12000 frame
2. two Composers
3. eight SY480 Compute Modules – 1 CPU – 384GB RAM – 3820C 10/20GbE CNA
4. one D3940 Storage Module

The new requirement is 16Gb FC connectivity to a newly-deployed 3PAR storage array.
Which components should you include? (Choose two.)

A. Synergy 3830C Host Bus Adapter
B. two QSFP+ AOC/DAC cables for ICM clustering
C. a second CPU per Compute Module
D. HPE Synergy FC License Upgrade per Composer pair
E. an additional Virtual Connect SE 40Gb F8

3 –

DRAG-DROP
Match each HPE Assessment Foundry tool to its primary function.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

4 –

Which HPE ProLiant Server is ideally suited for small, dense computing environments and HPC workloads focused on the Financial Services Industry?

A. HPE ProLiant DL360 Gen10
B. HPE ProLiant DL580 Gen10
C. HPE ProLiant DL180 Gen10
D. HPE ProLiant DL380 Gen10

5 –

A customer is considering a new multi-tier storage platform. The customer likes the easy management of the Nimble platform. Which question should you ask to choose an appropriate Nimble model?

A. What is the estimated IOPS required?
B. Do you require mainframe connectivity?
C. Do you need to support multiple RAID levels?
D. Are you using FC or iSCSI host connectivity?

Reference: https://community.hpe.com/t5/array-performance-and-data/read-iops-on-nimble-storage/td-p/6986262

6 –

A customer needs to replace an existing Microsoft Hyper-V solution on aging hardware. The customer is interested in an HPE SimpliVity solution. What do you need to consider for this solution?

A. System Center Virtual Machine Manager licenses
B. a minimum of four nodes per cluster
C. SSD-only SimpliVity nodes
D. Microsoft Windows Server Datacenter licenses

Reference: http://download.microsoft.com/download/3/D/4/3D42BDC2-6725-4B29-B75AA5B04179958B/WindowsServer2016VirtualTech_VLBrief.pdf

7 –

A customer wants to implement a Microsoft Exchange 2016 solution. Why should the customer choose HPE?

A. HPE has proven reference architecture
B. HPE has more than five years of joint development with Microsoft.
C. HPE is a Microsoft Silver partner in messaging and collaboration.
D. HPE employs Microsoft MVPs.

8 –

A customer wants to deploy Microsoft Storage Spaces Direct using existing FlexFabric 5700 switches. Which RDMA technology is available through the customer\\’s switches?

A. InfiniBand
B. NPAR
C. NVMeOF
D. RoCE

Reference: https://www.mellanox.com/products/adapter-ethernet-SW/RDMA-RoCE-Ethernet-Network-Efficiency

9 –

In preparation for a customer presentation, you need to create a validated configuration, including services. Which tool should you use?

A. HPE One Configuration Advanced
B. HPE Power Advisor
C. HPE Server Memory Configurator
D. HPE Synergy Planning Tool
E. HPE Proposal Web

10 –

A customer is purchasing a full rack of DL380 Gen10 servers. They are under a severe time constraint and would like the servers to be ready to receive applications upon power-up. What should be recommended to satisfy this requirement?

A. Use HPE Proactive Care services.
B. Use HP Pointnext service patching and OS installation services.
C. Include a Customer Intent Document with the order, requesting OS installation services.
D. Nothing additional: all servers arrive from the factory ready for application deployment.

11 –

Which two metrics are key to guiding data placement decisions? (Choose two.)

A. capacity
B. cache utilization
C. power consumption
D. jitter
E. response time

12 –

DRAG-DROP
Match each item to its function. (Choose all that apply.)
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Post correct answer

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HPE0-J58 Q&As

QUESTION 1

Refer to the exhibit, which reflects the Bill of Materials (BOM) configuration for one datacenter.

A customer needs a new storage solution of two HPE 3PAR 8440 arrays. The customer\’s environment consists of eight physical servers in each data center attached to the SAN and one StoreOnce 3540 system with two FC I/O cards.
The distance between data centers is less than 75 meters.
What should you add to the BOM to meet the customer’s needs?

A. one HPE 25m Mini SAS High-Density Active Optical Cable for each HPE 3PAR 8440
B. one HPR 3PAR StoreServ AC RPS Service Processor
C. one HPE 3PAR StoreServ 8000 Direct Connect Cabling Option for Drive Enclosure for each HPE 3PAR 8440
D. one HPE SN3000B SAN Switch 12-port Upgrade E-LTU per switch, the appropriate number of SFPs and cables

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2

A customer needs a new replication solution that makes use of capacity efficiency technologies, even though data is being replicated to another array. You have been developing a solution that includes two HPE 3PAR arrays. What should you emphasize in your proposal?

A. The arrays share deduplication hash tables, and the target array only needs to compress the replicated data from the source array
B. Compression technologies increase the effective bandwidth being available for replication and disaster recovery
C. Thin Technologies, deduplication, and compression can be used on both sides with volumes in Remote Copy groups
D. The data being replicated will travel the connection between the arrays fully compressed and deduplicated

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3

An HPE Nimble customer needs to consolidate storage and scale performance. They are looking to purchase additional hardware to meet these requirements. What is the best solution to offer this customer?

A. Add additional SSDs to the cache
B. Use multiple single-array storage pools
C. Add additional HBAs in the arrays
D. Use multi-array storage pools

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4

A customer is interested in using HPE InfoSight Cross-stack Analytics for VMware.
Where does the customer need to make the appropriate configuration changes to make this active?

A. VMware vCenter
B. HPE 3PAR SSMC
C. HPE InfoSight Portal
D. HPE 3PAR Service Processor

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5

A customer has two HPE 3PAR arrays which are using Remote Copy and AO. The customer notices a large portion of the data is residing in the NL tier of the secondary array, while all tiers are utilized evenly on the primary array. Which statement about the secondary array behavior is true?

A. The NL CPG in the second array is larger
B. This is normal behavior for AO
C. There is an improper AO configuration on the secondary array
D. AO should not be used with Remote Copy configurations

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6

Refer to the exhibit.

A customer is considering a new HPE 3PAR for the purpose of implementing deduplication and compression. Based on the output returned from the NinjaCrawler tool, what do you know about the customer data?

A. This data is a good candidate for HPE 3PAR deduplication
B. This data has a video data workload profile
C. This data is from an HP-UX system
D. This data has a block size that is not optimal for HPE 3PAR

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7

A customer has two HPE Nimble arrays that are replication partners. The replication schedule is set to every hour. After replication is completed at 1:00 pm, the array at the primary site suffers a power failure.
Applications were failed over successfully by the administrators, and production continued on the secondary site array as designed.

At 3:00 pm, the power was restored to the primary site array.
What does the administrator need to do first to restore services in the primary site?

A. Perform handover from the second array to the primary array
B. Create a new replication partnership from the primary array to the secondary array
C. Create a new replication partnership from the second array to the primary array
D. Perform a failback of the existing replication partnership to the primary array

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8

A customer has a Tier 1 application that has high bandwidth and is sensitive to latency.
The customer needs a solution to support this application. The solution must support replication between two sites over dark fiber links and support an RPO of zero.

Which solution meets the customer requirements?

A. dual HPE 3PAR 9450 arrays with data replicated using RCFC
B. dual Nimble AF40 arrays with data replicated over FC
C. dual HPE 3PAR 8400 arrays with data replicated using iSCSI
D. dual Nimble HF20 arrays with data replicated over iSCSI

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9

A customer needs to upgrade their existing HPE 3PAR environment. They ask you to present a solution to gather data from all 200 of their HPE 3PARs arrays, which are spread across the globe. The arrays consist of various generations and OS levels, and they are managed by regional instances of SSMC. What should you present to the customer as a solution?

A. using an HPE 3PAR CLI script with the check upgrade command
B. using a script based on the HPE 3PAR Web Services API
C. using the upgrade report tool in HPE InfoSight
D. using the SSMC array configuration reports

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://support.hpe.com/hpsc/doc/public/display?docId=c05243943

QUESTION 10

Refer to the Exhibit.

A customer with an existing HPE Nimble installation sends you the output shown. The administrator who initially set up the replication has left the company. They ask you what the current RPO level for their replication is. How should you respond?

A. They need to verify the RPO level from the host vc-ms-fileserver
B. They have an RPO of four minutes
C. They need to send a screenshot of the volumes tab
D. They have an RPO of two minutes

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11

How does the HPE Nimble Storage product strategy support a customer\’s investment protection requirements for today and the future?

A. by supporting replication with arrays from other vendors
B. by supporting the implementation of third party cache, spinning media, and flash media
C. by supporting replication between current and previous-generation array models
D. by supporting the repurposing of obsolete array controllers as high-density servers

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12

A customer has three 4-node HPE 3PAR arrays. Two of the arrays are deployed at a primary site, and the third array is deployed at a disaster recovery site. Both arrays at the primary site are replicated to the single array at the disaster recovery site.

All replication is asynchronous periodic. All arrays are utilizing 4 RCIP links for replication.
The customer needs to add a third array at the primary site. They would like to use the existing array at the disaster recovery site as a replication target for this additional array.

What must the architect consider to meet this customer requirement?

A. A single pair of RCIP ports on one array can have a Remote Copy relationship with up to two other arrays
B. Remote Copy fan-in ratios of greater than 2:1 are only supported with RCIP when using 10 Gb Ethernet links
C. Arrays involved in a Remote Copy relationship must have the same number of node pairs
D. Asynchronous streaming replication must be used for Remote Copy fan-in ratios greater than 2:1

Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1

A customer has a large network, which includes a main site and many branch sites. The network has a total of about
10.000 wireless devices at the main site and 15,000 wireless devices total at branches. To fulfill the requirements for a
wireless network upgrade, the architect plans to propose;

*
2 7205 MCs at the main site
*
2 7210 MCs at the main site
*
10 7030 MCs at branch sites
*
200 RAPs at branch sites
*
500 CAPS at the main site
*
300 CAPS at branch sites

What is the most cost-effective Mobility Master solution that meets the requirements\\’?

A. MM-HW-5K appliance
B. MM-HW-5K appliance + MM-HW-5k appliance
C. MM-HW-1K appliance
D. MM-HW-1OK appliance

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2

A hospital needs an upgrade to 802.11ax for its wireless network, which needs to provide complete coverage The
hospital has a concrete exterior and uses drywalls for all of the interior walls with a few exceptions as mandated for
safety The building has 10fool (3 m) ceilings. The hospital prefers to avoid the deployment of APs in rooms if possible.
Exceptions include reception areas and lounges.

The wireless network must support wireless medical devices, voice communicators for the medical stars, laptops in nurse stations, medical staff tablets, and visitor and patient personal devices. All of these devices support both the 2.4GHz and5GHz band.

The exhibits below show one wing of one floor of the hospital. This wing is about 2S.Q0D square feet {2GQQ sq, m).
The unlabeled rooms along the bottom of the wing are patient rooms\’ other rooms such as lounges and the MR] room are labeled.

This area has:
*
up to SO concurrent patients and visitors, who might have up to two devices
*
about 200 medical and other types of wireless devices
The architect has already planned to place APs in stairwells on another floor.

Which AP plan for this wing of this floor meets the customer needs?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3

Refer to the exhibit.

The exhibit shows the topology for a new Aruba solution. The MCs are in a cluster and support all of the wireless traffic
in the network The core switches route all traffic and support all VLANs. The access layer switches do NOT use
tunneled nodes. or dynamic segmentation.

The customer has indicated that it has these VLANS for user devices.

* VLAN 11 for Floor employee wired devices
* VLAN 12 for Floor 2 employee wired devices
* VLAN 13 tor Floor 3 employee wired devices
* VLAN 14 for Floor 4 employee wired devices
* VLAN 15 for Floor 5 employee wired devices
* VLAN 101 for all employee wireless devices
* VLAN 102 for all guest wireless devices

In which locations should the architect plan the VLANs?
A. VLANs 11-15 on one MC. VLANs 101 and 102 on the other MC. (Other VLANs will be used on the access layer
switches.)
B. VLANs 11-15. 101. and 102 on both MCs. (Other VLANs will be used on the access layer switches.)
C. VLANs 11-15 on the access layer switches on the corresponding floor; VLAN 101 on one MC and VLAN 102 on me
other MC
D. VLANs 11-15 on the access layer switches on the corresponding floor; VLANs 101 and 102 on both MCS.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4

A company already has an Aruba wireless network The network currently consists of:

* oneMM-HW-1k
* two 7210 MCs in the network core
* two 721GMCsintheDMZ
* 200 AP-515S in Building 1 and Building 5
100 AP-515S each In Building 2r Building 3, and Building 4

The customer now wants to assess if it needs local Mobility controllers (MC) for any buildings:

Building 1 is the main office building for the campus. It supports the highest number of APs. It connects to the network
core without an aggregation layer.


* Building 2 is further away from Building i. and no roaming is provided between it and the other buildings its access layer connects to the network cone with a pair of Aruba CX 6300M aggregation switches.

* Building 3 is further away from the other buildings, it connects to the network core without an aggregation layer.
The Guest SSID traffic should be tunneled to the DMZ controllers \’ Building 4 has its own local data center and Internet connection. The company would like it to be able to operate completely autonomously if its aggregation layer loses connectivity with the core.

* Building 5 is further away from the other buildings, it connects to the network core without an aggregation layer.

This building has been assigned to a partner that would like to manage a dedicated SS1D using the shared AP
infrastructure.

In which two buildings should the network architect plan local mobility controllers (MCs)? (Select two)

A. Building 1
B. Building 4
C. Building 5
D. Building 3
E. Building 2

Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 5

What is one piece of additional information architects should obtain from the customer before they design the wireless
solution?

A. the power requirements for the wireless loT devices and security cameras
B. the authentication and encryption capabilities for loT devices and security cameras
C. the distance between the locations where cameras will be installed and the wiring closet on each floor
D. the average number of users per loT device

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6

A customer has multiple medium and large branch sites, each of which requires between S and 16 APs and supports
between 200 and 600 wireless clients, Every branch site has an Internet connection, which it uses to reach the central
data center. The customer would prefer the WAN links to be optimized in the solution.

Different use cases require SSID\’s for tunneled traffic from remote sites to central locations, traffic that must remain
local on the remote site, and traffic that would need to egress out from remote site Internet connection.
Which branch office solution best meets the customer needs?

A. lAPs with Aruba central
B. RAPs and branch office controllers
C. IAPs with branch office controllers
D. CAPS and branch office controllers

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7

A hospital needs a Getter way to track its inventory Including wireless medical devices that are moved around the site a
lot. Which solution meets these needs?

A. Aruba asset tags and beacons
B. Aruba beacons. APS. and AirWave
C. Aruba beacons and Meridian
D. Aruba asset tags, APs; and Meridian

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8

Refer to the exhibit.

A company needs a new wireless solution for its multi-site network. All branch sites must connect to the main site
through secure tunnels over the Internet. The customer requires full redundancy for the Mobility Controllers (MC). Including stateful failover and seamless roaming for the main site.

The architect plans to propose:

-500 RAPS

-100 APs at the main campus two 7205 MCs

– one MM appliance The exhibit snows the existing wired network at the main site, which has a single
building with two large floors.

Following the best practices on design, performance, and security, where should the architect plan to connect the MCs?
{Potential locations are numbered in the exhibit.)

A. two 7205 MCs at 2; two 7210 MCs at 1
B. one 7205 MC at 3 and one at 4; two 7210 MCs at 1
C. all of the MCs at 2
D. two 7205 MCS at 1; two 7210 MCS at 2

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9

What is one customer requirement that can drive the need for a relatively dense AP deployment? In which ire coverage
areas of at least three AP radios overlap?

A. AP operation as hybrid AMs for IDS/WIPS
B. the deployment of dual GHz radio APs
C. support for beacon management
D. location tracking of wireless loT devices

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10

An indoor sports stadium has 5.000 seats in two rings:
The stadium has a ceiling height of 72 feet (22 m).
There is a catwalk around the perimeter of my stadium that is 54 feet (13 m) from my floor.
There are two scoreboards at either end of the stadium
The construction of the stadium is concrete and steel.

The customer has indicated a preference for overhead coverage, and the wireless network should support 3500
concurrent clients. The architect plans to install the APs on the catwalk to service sections of the floor below

Which type of antennas are recommended for the APS that provide the overhead coverage?

A. downtilt
B. high gain directional
C. high gain omnidirectional
D. vagi

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11

The architect plans to recommend an upgrade to Aruba CX switches What is one requirement for the new solution that
justifies this recommendation?

A. the requirement to support secure IPsec tunneling at the aggregation layer
B. the requirement to support larger ARP tables at the aggregation layer
C. the requirement to support smart Rate at the access layer
D. the requirement to support tunneled-node at the access layer

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12

Refer to the exhibit.

A customer needs a wired upgrade for a building on its main campus. The exhibit shows the switches that the architect
has selected for each closet and my existing cabling. The customer is not open to changing the cabling.

The customer requires link redundancy for the uplinks from each closet and for the links from the building to the core. In nonlink failure situations, the uplinks from each closet must support at least 20Gbps, and the building as a whole must have at least 20 Gbps to the core in non link failure situations Which two options Tor connecting the closets to the network core are valid? (select two.)

A. Connect me Floor 2 switch stack to Floor 1 with two fiber connections, DO me same for Floor 3. connect the Floor 1
switch stack to the network cone with two fiber connections.

B. Connect the switch stack on each floor directly to the network cone on two “fiber connections per floor. Achieve this
by patching the inter-floor fiber through to the inter-building fiber.

C. Combine the nine switches on the three floors into a single switch stack with the MM QM3 fiber cables in a ring
topology. Connect two Floor 1 members to the network core with one fiber connection each.

D. Combine the nine switches on all three floors into a single switch slack with stacking cables in a ring topology.
Connect two Floor f members to the network core with one fiber connection each

E. Add two aggregation switches in the Floor 1closet. Connect the switch stack for each closet to the aggregation
switches on two fiber links each and the aggregation switches to the core on two fiber links.

Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 13

An indoor basketball stadium has 5.000 seats in two rings:

The stadium has a ceiling height of GO feet (18 m).
There is a catwalk around the perimeter of the basketball court, between the court and the seating areas.

This catwalk is 40 feet (12 m) from the floor.
There are two scoreboards at either end of the stadium.
The construction of the stadium is concrete and sleet.
The customer does not want an under-seat, picocell deployment.

Which AP model is appropriate to provide coverage in the main stadium bawl?

A. AP-577
B. AP-555
C. AP-575
D. AP-505

Correct Answer: A

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[HPE6-A77 Q&As] Aruba Certified ClearPass Expert Written Exam Answers

QUESTION 1

While configuring a guest solution, the customer is requesting that guest users receive access for four hours from their
first login. Which Guest Account Expiration would you select?

A. expire_after
B. do_expire
C. expire_time
D. expire_ post login

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2

Refer to the exhibit:

You are doing a ClearPass PoC at a customer site with a single Aruba Mobility Controller. The customer asked for a
demonstration of a simple Web Login functionality. You used a service template to create the guest services. During
testing, the user gets redirected back to the weblogin page with an Authentication failed message. The guest configurations on the Aruba Mobility Controller are configured correctly.

Why would the guest fail to authenticate successfully?

A. The authentication source mapped in the service is incorrect, it should be mapped as (Guest Device Repository]
[Local SQL DB].
B. The username and/or password used for authentication is incorrect Re-enter the correct password on the web login
page.
C. The username used for authentication does not exist in the Guest User Database Create a new user and
authenticate again.
D. The Unique-Device-Count does not allow any Client devices. Update the Enforcement policy condition: UniqueDevice-Count.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3

Refer to the exhibit: The customer created a new enforcement policy condition to allow VIP Users access without
additional security compliance checks but cannot gel it working. The customer has sent you the above screenshots.
How would you resolve the issue?

A. Ask the VIP user to complete the one-time web health check to get the VIP profile.
B. Set the Enforcement Policy rules evaluation algorithm to evaluate all.
C. Include VIP User role along with the Healthy posture enforcement condition.
D. Modify the Enforcement Policy and re-order the VIP user condition to the lop.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4

A customer has completed all the required configurations in the Windows server in order for Active Directory Certificate Services (ADCS) to sign Onboard device TLS certificates. The Onboard portal and the Onboard services are also configured. Testing shows that the Client certificates ate still signed by the Onboard Certificate Authority and not ADCS.

How can you help the customer with the situation?

A. Educate the customer that, when integrating with Active Directory Certificate Services (ADCS) the Onboard CA will
the same authority was used for signing me final TLS certificate of the device.

B. Configure the identity certificate signer as Active Directory Certificate Services and enter the ADCS URL
http://ADCSVVeoEnrollmentServemostname/certsrv in the OnBoard Provisioning settings.

C. Enable access to EST servers from the Certificate Authority to make ClearPass Onboard use of the Active
Directory Certificate Services (ADCS) web enrollment to sign the device TLS certificates.

D. Enable access to SCEP servers from the Certificate Authority to make ClearPass Onboard use of the Active
Directory Certificate Services (ADCS) web enrollment to sign the device TLS certificates.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5

Refer to the exhibit: After the helpdesk revoked the certificate of a device reported to be lost oy an employee, the lost
device was seen as connected successfully to the secure network. Further testing has shown that device revocation is
not working. What steps should you follow to make device revocations work?

A. Copy the default [EAP-TLS with OSCP Enabled] authentication method and set The Verify certificate using the OSCP
option as required then update the correct OSCP URL link of the OnBoard CA. Remove EAP-TLS and map the custom-created method to the OnBoard Authorization Service.

B. copy the default [EAP-TLS with OSCP Enabled] authentication method and set the verify certificate using OSCP:
option as “required” then configure the correct OSCF URL link for the OnBoard CA. Remove EAP-TLS and map the
new [EAP-TLS with OSCP Enabled] method to the 802 1X Radius Service.

C. Remove the EAP-TLS authentication method configuration changes are required and add “EAP-TLS with OCSP
Enabled” authentication method in the OnBoard Provisioning service. No other configuration changes are required.

D. Edit the default [EAP-TLS with OSCP Enabled] authentication method and set the Verify certificate using OSCP
option as required then update the correct OSCP URL link of the OnBoard CA Remove EAP-TLS and map the new
[EAP-TLS with OSCP Enabled] method to the OnBoard Provisioning Service.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6

Refer to the exhibit: What could be causing the error message received on the OnGuard client?

A. The Service Selection Rules for the service are not configured correctly
B. The Web-Based Health Check service needs to be configured to use the Posture Policy
C. There is a firewall policy not allowing the OnGuard Agent to connect to ClearPass
D. The client\’s OnGuard Agent has not been configured with the correct Policy Manager Zone

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7

A customer is planning to implement machine and user authentication on infrastructure with one Aruba Controller and a single ClearPass Server. What should the customer consider while designing this solution? (Select three.)

A. The Windows User must log off, restart or disconnect their machine to initiate a machine authentication before the
cache expires.

B. The machine authentication status is written in the Multi-master cache on the ClearPass Server for 24 hrs.

C. Onboard must be used to install the Certificates on the personal devices to do the user and machine authentication.

D. The Customer should enable Multi-Master Cache Survivability as the Aruba Controller will not cache the machine
state.

E. Machine Authentication only uses EAP TLS, as such a PKI infrastructure should be in place for machine
authentication.

F. The customer does not need to worry about Multi-Master Cache Survivability because the Controller will also cache
the machine state.

Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 8

Under Onboard management and control, which option will deny the user from re-provisioning the device a second
time?

A. Revoke and Delete certificate
B. Delete user
C. Revoke certificate
D. Delete certificate

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9

You have recently implemented a serf-registration portal in ClearPass Guest to be used on a Guest SSID broadcast
from an Aruba controller. Your customer has started complaining that the users are not able to reliably access the
internet after clicking the login button on the receipt page. They tell you that the users will click the login button multiple times and alter about a minute they gain access.

What could be causing this issue?

A. The self-registration page is configured with a 1-minute login delay.
B. The guest client is delayed getting an IP address from the DHCP server.
C. The guest users are assigned a firewall user role that has a rate limit.
D. The enforcement profile on ClearPass is set up with an lETF: session delay.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10

A customer has a ClearPass cluster deployment with one Publisher and one Subscriber configured as a Standby
Publisher at the Headquarters DataCenter They also have a large remote site that is connected with an Aruba SD
Branch solution over a two Mbps Internet connection. The Remote Site has two ClearPass servers acting as Subscribers.

The solution implemented for the customer includes OnGuard, Guest Self Registration, and Employee 802. ix
authentication.

The client is complaining that users connecting to an IAP Clusters Guest SSID located at the Remote Site are
experiencing a significant delay in accessing the Guest Captive Portal page.

What could be a possible cause of this behavior?

A. The configuration of the captive portal is pointing to a link located on one of the servers in the Headquarters
B. The ClearPass Cluster has no zones defined and the guest captive portal request is being redirected to the
Publisher
C. The guest page is not optimized to work with the client browser and a proper theme should be applied
D. The captive portal page was only created on the Publisher and requests are getting redirected to a Subscriber

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11

A customer has deployed an OnGuard Solution to all the corporate devices using a group policy rule to push the
OnGuard Agents. The network administrator is complaining that some of the agents are communicating to the
ClearPass server that is located in a DMZ, outside the firewall The network administrator wants all of the agent’s System Health Validation traffic to stay inside the Management subnets.

What can the ClearPass administrator do to move the traffic only to the ClearPass Management Ports?

A. Edit the agent. conf file being deployed to the clients to use the ClearPass Management Port for SHV updates.
B. Select the correct OnGuard Agent installer and use the one configured for Management Port for the clients.
C. Configure a Policy Manager Zone mapping so the OnGuard agent will use the Management Port IP.
D. Filter TCP port 6658 on the firewall, forcing the OnGuard agent to use the ClearPass Management port.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12

Refer to the exhibit:

A customer is deploying Guest Self-Registration with Sponsor Approval but does not like the format of the sponsor
email. Where can you change the sponsor email?

A. in the Receipt Page – Actions
B. in the Sponsor Confirmation section
C. in me Configuration – Receipts – Email Receipts
D. in the Configuration – Receipts – Templates

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13

Refer to the exhibit:

You configured a new Wireless 802.1X service for a Cisco WLC broadcasting the Secure-ADM-5007 SSID. The client
falls to connect to the SSID. Using the screenshots as a reference, how would you fix this issue? (Select two.)

A. Update the service condition Radius: IETF Called-Station-ld CONTAINS secure-adm-5007
B. Make sure that the Network Devices entry for the Cisco WLC has a vendor setting of “Airspace”
C. Remove the service condition Radius:lETF Service-Type BELONGSJTO Login-User (1). 2. 8
D. Change the service condition to Radius:lETF Calling-Station-ld EQUALS Secure-ADM-5007

Correct Answer: AC

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QUESTION 1

What connectivity commands are available on AOS-CX switches? (Choose two.)

A. netstatus
B. traceroute
C. ping
D. pathping
E. tracert

Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 2

The following command is issued:
Switch# checkpoint rollback start
What is the result?

A. The command will fail because rollback commands must be issued from global-config mode.
B. The switch will revert the running-configuration to the checkpoint called “start” without a reboot.
C. The command will fail because it is incomplete.
D. The switch will use the checkpoint “rollback” as the starting configuration on next reboot.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3

Refer to the exhibit

Which command on Access-2 port 1/1/4 will enable connectivity between PC-1 and Server-1 without any routing
enabled in the network?

A. Access-2 (config-if-1/1/4)# vlan access 1, 10, 20, 255
B. Access-2 (config-if-1/1/4)# vlan access 20
C. Access-2 (config-if-1/1/4)# vlan 20 untag 1/1/4
D. Access-2 (config-if-1/1/4)# vlan trunk allow 1, 10, 255

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4

What are two features of the three-tier designs? (Choose two.)

A. removes the distribution layer in favor of a spine-leaf design used in modern data center deployments
B. adds a distribution layer to free up resources from the Core for improved performance and routing throughput
C. a more scalable design over by leveraging a distribution layer to handle Layer 3 routing and access control in large
deployments
D. uses only Layer 2 access on the Access and the Core with Layer 3 routing and access control provided at the
distribution layer
E. is considered legacy by requiring a large flat layer-two broadcast domain from Core to Access and should be
avoided

Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 5

Which switches support Aruba Virtual Switching Extension (VSX)? (Choose two.)

A. Aruba 6405
B. Aruba 2930F
C. Aruba 8400
D. Aruba 5406R
E. Aruba 8350

Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 6

Refer to the exhibit.

What command (output shown above) gives the optics serial number and part number information?

A. show interface physical
B. show interface transceiver
C. show inventory
D. show interface optics

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://techhub.hpe.com/eginfolib/networking/docs/switches/WB/15-18/5998-8162_wb_2920_mcg/content/ch11s05.html

QUESTION 7

Refer to the exhibit.

The above scenario shows a packet from the Server destined for the Firewall. Switch-A and Switch-B are bundled as
VSF stack. The LAG between the VSF stack and the firewall indicates a hash function to forward the packet on port
2/1/2. Which statement is true regarding how Switch-A will forward the packet?

A. Switch-A will forward the packet on port 1/1/2. VSF will override the typical LAG hash function used for the physical
interface selection.
B. Switch-A will drop the packet. Multi-Chassis lag to multi-chassis lag is not a supported feature of VSF.
C. Switch-A will encapsulate the packet using GRE to forward to Switch-B in order for the packet to egress on port 2/1/2 per the hash function.
D. Switch-A will forward the packet along the VSF link to Switch-B so that it will egress on port 2/1/2 per the hash
function.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8

DRAG DROP
Match each network protocol to the correct server listening port. Not all answers will be used.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 9

With what other technology does Half Duplex communication closely match?

A. a pair of fiber optic strands allowing transmit on one and receive on the other at the same time
B. a mobile phone call
C. point-to-point connections between two switches allowing concurrent transmit and receive
D. CB radio using push-to-talk

Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1

An administrator implements machine authentication in an 802.1X profile. Which user role will be assigned to the
user\\’s session if machine authentication passes, but the 802.1X user authentication fails for a user who connects?

A. 802.1X default user role
B. Machine authentication default machine role
C. 802.1X initial user role
D. Machine authentication default user role

QUESTION 2

What is true about clustering and AP connections to cluster members?

A. The AP will always stay connected to the LMS IP address configured in the AP profile.
B. During rebalancing, the active load is redistributed first.
C. The default thresholds are 75% for the Rebalanced Threshold and 25% for the Unbalanced Threshold.
D. AP load balancing is disabled by default.

QUESTION 3

IEEE 802.11r relies on which technology to reduce re-authentication delays when clients roam between APs?

A. Fast BSS Transition
B. Temporal Key Integrity
C. Robust Security Network
D. Opportunistic Key Caching

QUESTION 4

An administrator wants to implement bandwidth limits for guest users to restrict their Internet usage. On the Mobility
Master (MM), where would the administrator define these limits?

A. User role
B. Firewall policy
C. AAA policy
D. 802.1X policy

QUESTION 5

An administrator troubleshoots a roaming problem where a user loses connectivity to the network during the roaming
process. To help troubleshoot this problem, which device or devices in a wireless network initiate the roaming
process?

A. Both the client and the controller
B. The AP
C. The Client
D. The Controller

QUESTION 6

An administrator sets up a firewall policy that implements split tunneling for RAPs. Which firewall rule action should the
the administrator specifies for traffic that the RAP should forward directly to the Internet?

A. split-tunnel
B. route:src-nat
C. route: DST-nat
D. permit

QUESTION 7

Refer to the exhibit.

A user uses Microsoft Windows for a wireless session. Based on the output shown in the exhibit for selected Aruba
AP, what is the possible problem with this user\\’s wireless session?

A. The AP has reached the limit for the number of users that are allowed to connect to the radio.
B. The controller cannot reach the AAA server to perform the authentication.
C. The user is configured for PEAP, but the WLAN profile on the controller implemented EAP-TLS.
D. The user misconfigured the Managed Network Settings profile in Windows.

QUESTION 8

An administrator creates a User Rule for role derivation on the Mobility Master (MM). Which client information can an
Does the administrator specify to identify that a particular user should be assigned a different role from the initial role?

A. IP address
B. VLAN
C. MAC address
D. Profiling information

QUESTION 9

An administrator wants to deploy Zero Touch Provisioning (ZTP) with Activate. The controllers run ArubaOS.8.x.
Which Aruba architecture should the administrator deploy?

A. Master-Local
B. Standalone
C. AirWave
D. Mobility Master-Mobility Controller

QUESTION 10

Which forwarding mode is used for a WLAN if a RAP needs to decrypt all user traffic and forward it locally?

A. Split-tunnel
B. Bridge
C. Tunnel
D. Decrypt-tunnel

QUESTION 11

Which methods can be used to configure RAP redundancy when connected to two redundant Aruba Mobility Controllers (MCs) in the DMZ? (Select two.)

A. Virtual IP address of the two controllers.
B. Active and Standby AAC.
C. Primary and backup LMS IP addresses.
D. IPSec High Availability (HA) between two cluster members.
E. AirWave direction to RAPs redundant Mobility Controllers.

QUESTION 12

Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator configures a split-tunnel policy to be used by RAPs at branch offices. Under the Configuration section
on the Mobility Master (MM) shown in the exhibit, where should the administrator configure the split-tunnel mode so that it can be deployed to the RAPs?

A. WLAN
B. Roles and Policies
C. Access Points
D. Services

QUESTION 13

An administrator implements machine authentication in an 802.1X profile. Which user role will be assigned to the
user\\’s session if machine authentication fails, but the 802.1X user authentication passes for a user who connects?

A. 802.1X default user role
B. Machine authentication initial user role
C. 802.1X initial user role
D. Machine authentication default user role

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QUESTION 1

You are planning an upgrade to a customer\\’s existing HPE 3PAR StoreServ 8200 to include 4-port 16Gb FC adapters.
The servers are zoned to see the storage via four paths. The customer is concerned about storage availability during
the upgrade.

Which statement is correct about performing this upgrade?

A. When NPIV is enabled, the HPE 3PAR Port persistence will show all four paths to the servers.
B. The MPIO service will do a failover, and the servers will continue to have access via two paths.
C. Windows servers require host explorer to be installed to ensure MPIO is unaffected.
D. As long as MEM driver is installed on VMware vSphere, no path failures are seen.

QUESTION 2

Which statement is correct when comparing functionalities of the AF and HF series in the Nimble Storage portfolio?
(Choose Two)

A. Zero Copy Clones are a unique feature of All-Flash arrays within the Nimble Portfolio.
B. >99.9999% availability is measured and guaranteed for AF and HF series arrays.
C. HF series has a dedicated read cache and the AF series does not have a dedicated reach cache.
D. HF series supports storage snapshots and replication using Veeam Backup and Replication, HF and AF series
support storage snapshots only

QUESTION 3

What allows volume level data to be copied between an HPE 3PAR and an HPE store Virtual VSA?

A. Store virtual Peer motion
B. HPE 3PAR Remote Copy
C. Recovery Manager central
D. StoreServ Peer Motion

QUESTION 4

Match the HPE converged Strategy principle with its function

A. Federated Storage:- Move data between storage systems in a peer-to-peer relationship simply, dynamically and
nondestructively
B. Deduplication:-Reduce allocated capacity by eliminating data redundancy
C. Thin provisioning:-Reduce TCO, Opex, and CPEx by using virtualization technology to make storage resources more
efficient.
D. Storage tiering:-Use combination of I/O accelerator to place data to meet price, performance, and latency
requirements.
E. Storage virtualization:- Deliver simplified management, higher utilization, efficiency, and agility by separating the logical and physical resources.

QUESTION 5

A customer needs to update the local server at each of their branches to keep up with the increasing demand for High-performance storage. The customer cannot afford to move to SAN in each state. Which HPE storage technology can
increase performance for this customer?

A. Smart Path
B. SmartCache
C. Adaptive Flash Cache
D. Persistent Cache

QUESTION 6

What has to be taken into account when performing capacity planning for HPE Nimble storage using deduplication?

A. Deduplication is performed on a per-volume basic
B. Deduplication is performed on a per array basic
C. Deduplication is performed on a per-application category basic
D. Deduplication is performed on a per pool and block size basic

QUESTION 7

Which value does a Nimble solution provide in addition to other HPE storage solutions?

A. Flat support pricing for all hardware components
B. Future-proofed for newer technologies
C. All-inclusive software licensing over 5 years and additional capacity upgrades
D. Upfront option for free controller upgrade after 3 years

QUESTION 8

Which statement is true when defining object storage?

A. It is most suited for sharing files and characterized by volumes
B. It is most suited for unstructured data and characterized by file share protocols like NFS
C. It is most suited for unstructured data and characterized by containers or buckets
D. suited for database It is most and characterized by containers or buckets

QUESTION 9

A customer wants to implement a virtualized environment and wants to provide independent storage access to individual virtual servers. Which feature needs to be enabled on the B-series FC switches to support this solution?

A. FCIP
B. NPIV
C. ALPA
D. RSCN

QUESTION 10

Which type of networking switch handles both Ethernet and fiber channel traffic?

A. Director
B. Virtual
C. Edge
D. Converged

QUESTION 11

What advantage does the Unified API that is part of HPE\\’s composable strategy provides?

A. infrastructure lifecycle managed with standard programming code
B. single portal for managing servers, networking, and storage
C. write-back capability and instant cable warmth
D. dedicated object storage platform

QUESTION 12

Which management interface uses four basic commands (Create, read, update ad delete )to enable administrators to
define ad radically simply management processes?

A. Rest API
B. WMI
C. SMI-S
D. WEBEM

QUESTION 13

Due to industry regulation a customer is required to store backup at a separate data center from the company\\’s main
data center. The customer application requires fast backup and quick restore increase of data loss. Which solution allow
the customer to meet both industry and application requirement?

A. HPE store serve 3par in a main and secondary data center with RCIP replication between arrays
B. Nimble AF series in main data center and Nimble SF series in the secondary data center
C. HPE Storeserve 3Par in main data center HPE StoreOnce in a secondary data center with RMC
D. HPR StoreServ 3PAR in main data center and HPE StoreOnce in both main and secondary data center.

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HPE6-A79 exam

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QUESTION 1 #

Refer to the exhibit.

The network administrator must ensure that the configuration will force users to authenticate periodically every eight
hours. Which configuration is required to effect this change?
A. Set the reauth-period to 28800 to enable reauthentication in the dot1x profile.
B. Set the reauth-period to 28800 to enable reauthentication in the AAA profile.
C. Set the reauth-period to 28800 to enable reauthentication in both dot1x and AAA profiles.
D. Set the reauth-period to 28800 in the dot1x profile and enable reauthentication in the AAA profile.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2 #

Users run encrypted Skype for Business traffic with no WMM support over an Aruba Mobility Master (MM) – Mobility
Controller (MC) based network. When voice, video, and application sharing traffic arrive at the wired side of the network, all the flows look alike due to the lack of L2 and L3 markings
How can the network administrator identify these flows and mark QoS accordingly?

A. Confirm the MC is the Openflow controller of the MMs and Openflow is enabled in VAP and the firewall roles. Then
enable WMM in a VAP profile.
B. Use a media firewall policy that matches these three flows, and use permit and TOS actions with 56, 40, and 34 values
for voice, video, and application sharing, respectively. Then enable the Skype4Business ALG in the UCC profiles.
C. Confirm the MC is the Openflow controller of the MMs and Openflow is enabled in VAP and the firewall roles. Then
enable the Skype4Business ALG in the UCC profiles.
D. Confirm the MM is the Openflow controller of the MCs and Openflow is enabled in VAP and the firewall roles. Then
integrate the MM with the Skype4Business SDN API, and enable the Skype4Business ALG in the UCC profiles.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3 #

An organization owns a fully functional multi-controller Aruba network with a Virtual Mobility Master (VMM) in VLAN20.
They have asked a network consultant to deploy a redundant MM on a different server. The solution must offer the
lowest convergence time and require no human interaction in case of failure.

The servers host other virtual machines and are connected to different switches that implement ACLs to protect them.
The organization grants the network consultant access to the servers only and appoints a network administrator to
assist with the deployment. What must the network administrator do so the network consultant can successfully deploy the solution? (Choose two.)

A. Allocate VLAN20 to the second server, and extend it throughout the switches, then reserve one IP address for the
second MM and another IP address for its gateway.
B. Allocate VLAN20 to the second server, and permit routing between them, then reserve one IP address for the second
MM and another IP address for its gateway.
C. Configure an ACL entry that permits IP protocol 50, UDP port 500, and multicast IP 224.0.0.18.
D. Allocate VLAN20 to the second server, and extend it throughout the switches, then reserve one IP address for the
second MM and another for the VIP.
E. Configure an ACL entry that permits UDP 500, TCP 4500, and multicast IP 224.0.0.5.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 4 #

Refer to the exhibit.

Based on the output shown in the exhibit, with which Aruba devices have Access-1 established tunnels?
A. a pair of standalone MCs
B. a pair of switches running VXLAN
C. a pair of MCs within an L3 cluster
D. a single standalone MC
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5 #

Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator is evaluating a deployment to validate that a user is assigned the proper role and reviews the
output in the exhibit. How is the role assigned to the user?
A. The MC assigned the role based on Aruba VSAs.
B. The MC assigned the machine authentication default user role.
C. The MC assigned the default role based on the authentication method.
D. The MC assigned the role based on server derivation rules.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6 #

A software development company has 764 employees who work from home. The company also has small offices
located in different cities throughout the world. During working hours, they use RAPs to connect to a data center to
upload software code as well as interact with databases.

In the past two months, cabling issues have occurred connection to the 7240XM Mobility Controller (MC) that runs
ArubaOS 8 and terminates the RAPs. These RAPs disconnect, affecting the users connected to the RAPs. This also
causes problems with code uploads and database synchronizations. Therefore, the company decides to add a second
7240XM controller for redundancy.

How should the network administrator deploy both controllers in order to provide the redundancy while preventing
failover events from disconnecting users?
A. Connect both controllers with common VLANs and create an HA fast failover group with public addresses in the
internet VLAN.
B. Connect both controllers with common VLANs and create an L2-connected cluster using public addresses in the
internet VLAN.
C. Connect both controllers with different VLANs and create an L2-connected cluster using public addresses in the
internet VLAN.
D. Connect both controllers with common VLANs, and configure LMS/BLMS values equal to public addresses in the
internet VLAN.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7 #

A network administrator has racked up a 7210 Mobility Controller (MC) that will be terminating 200+ Apps on a medium-size branch office. Next, the technician called the appliance with 4SPF+ Direct Attached Cables (DACs) distributed between two-member switching stacks and powered it up.
What must the administrator do next in the MCs to assure maximum wired bandwidth utilization?

A. Map the four physical ports to port channel 0.
B. Disable spanning tree and allocate unique VLANs to each port.
C. Manually set 10Gbps speeds on all ports.
D. Configure the same MSTP region that the switches have.
E. Make all ports trunk interfaces and permit data VLANs.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8 #

Refer to the exhibit.

An Aruba network is deployed with L2 and L3 Mobility Master (MM) redundancy across two data centers, as shown in
the exhibit. The network administrator confirms that all Mobility Controllers (MC) are currently communicating with MM1,
which is the L2 Active and, L3 Primary.
Which MM IP will MCs communicate with if MM1 fails?
A. 10.1.1.10
B. 10.1.1.12
C. 10.2.1.10
D. 10.2.1.21
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9 #

Refer to the exhibit.

After deploying several cluster pairs, the network administrator notices that all APs assigned to Cluster1 communicate
with MC1 instead of being distributed between members of the cluster. Also, no IP addresses are shown under the
Standby IP column.
What should the network administrator do to fix this situation?
A. Apply the same cluster profile to both members.
B. Enable Cluster AP load balancing.
C. Rename the cluster profile as “CLUSTER1”.
D. Place MCs at the same hierarchical group level.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10 #

Refer to the exhibit.
A network engineer deploys two different DHCP pools in an Instant AP (IAP) cluster for WLANs that will have
connectivity to a remote site using Aruba IPSec. Based on the output shown in the exhibit, which IAP-VPN DHCP
modes are being used?
A. distributed L3 and centralized L2
B. local L3 and centralized L2
C. local L3 and distributed L2
D. centralized L3 and distributed L2
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11 #

HOTSPOT
A network administrator wants to receive a major alarm every time a controller or an Aruba switch goes down for either a local or an upstream device failure. Which alarm definition must the network administrator create to accomplish this?
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 12 #

HOTSPOT
A network administrator wants to receive a warning level alarm every time the noise floor rises above -82 dBm on any of
the AP radios.
Which alarm definition must the network administrator create to accomplish this?
Hot Area:

QUESTION 13 #

A network administrator wants to permit explicit SSH, FTP and HHTP(s) access to servers in the 10.100.20.5 to
10.100.20.31 range, all devices in the 10.100.21.0/24 network, and a host with IP address 10.100.22.70. The services must work properly at all times.
Which configuration scripts accomplish this task with the fewer number lines while avoiding access to other devices
not included in these ranges? (Choose two.)

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
E. Option E
Correct Answer: AB

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