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[2021.4] Free online test of the latest IBM C1000-083 exam practice questions

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QUESTION 1
Which IBM Cloud offering brings IBM zLinux capabilities into the cloud?
A. VMware vCenter Server
B. Bare Metal Server
C. Hyper Protect Virtual Server
D. Power Systems Virtual Server
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.ibm.com/blogs/systems/the-best-of-ibm-z-and-linuxone-in-the-public-and-privatecloud/


QUESTION 2
What is a key feature of Virtual Private Cloud?
A. It is deployed on-premises for increased security
B. Applications are automatically deployed across three zones
C. To run an isolated environment within the public cloud
D. Network traffic between VSIs on the private network is charged for
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://cloud.ibm.com/docs/vpc-on-classic?topic=vpc-on-classic-about


QUESTION 3
What is one reason to choose a Single Cloud Environment over a Multicloud Environment?
A. The shared security responsibilities between the Cloud provider and the Cloud consumer is easier to define in a
Single Cloud Environment
B. Vendor lock-in policies are negotiable
C. A Single Cloud Environment is always more cost effective in comparison to Multicloud
D. The risk of vendor lock in is reduced with a Single Cloud Environment
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.stratoscale.com/blog/it-leadership/cloud-clouds-choose-single-multi-cloudapproach/

QUESTION 4
Which statement describes the IBM Cloud Pak for Multicloud Management?
A. It helps deploy on your choice of clouds, with low-code tools for business users and real-time performance visibility
for business managers. Customers can migrate their runtimes without application changes or data migration, and
automate at scale without vendor lock-in.
B. It helps to provide consistent visibility, automation, and governance across a range of hybrid and multi cloud
capabilities such as event management, infrastructure management, application management, multi-cluster
management, edge management and integration with existing tools and processes.
C. It helps to unify and simplify the collection, organization and analysis of information. Enterprises can turn data into
insights through an integrated cloud-native architecture. It is extensible, easily customized to unique client information
and AI landscapes through an integrated catalog of IBM, open source and third-party microservices add-ons.
D. It helps support the speed, flexibility, security and scale required for all of your digital integration transformation
initiatives, and comes pre-integrated with a set of capabilities including API lifecycle, application and data integration,
messaging and events, high speed transfer and security.
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.ibm.com/cloud/garage/dte/tutorial/multi-cluster-management/


QUESTION 5
Which VPC component would have a Front End Listener and Back End Pool?
A. A Floating IP
B. An Access Control List
C. A Public Gateway
D. A Load Balancer
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://cloud.ibm.com/docs/vpc?topic=vpc-load-balancers

QUESTION 6
What can be a subject of the IBM Cloud Identity and Access Management policy?
A. Resource Group
B. Service
C. Service Roles
D. Service ID
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://cloud.ibm.com/docs/account?topic=account-iamoverview


QUESTION 7
Which IBM Garage Method for Cloud practice leverages Enterprise Design Thinking?
A. Envision
B. Culture
C. Learn
D. Reason
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.ibm.com/garage/method/


QUESTION 8
An organization is building a cloud native application and wants to use the highest level of cryptographic security
available. Which IBM Cloud service can the organization use for key management?
A. Cloud HSM
B. Hyper Protect Certificate Manager
C. Key Protect
D. Hyper Protect Crypto Services
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.ibm.com/cloud/architecture/architectures/securityArchitecture/security-for-data/

QUESTION 9
When using OpenShift, what is a pre-requisite for converting a single zone cluster into a multi-zone cluster?
A. The cluster must be set up in one of the supported multi-zone locations
B. The cluster must be running on either Virtual Shared or Virtual Dedicated server nodes
C. The cluster configuration must be backed up into an Object Storage bucket in the same zone
D. The cluster must not have any pods active when converted
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://cloud.ibm.com/docs/openshift?topic=openshift-ha_clusters

QUESTION 10
What are the four storage class tiers offered by IBM Cloud Object Storage?
A. Dynamic, Encrypted, Fixed, Hard Coded
B. Dynamic, Vault, Fixed, Configured
C. Standard, Encrypted, Dynamic, Configured
D. Standard, Vault, Cold Vault, Flex
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.ibm.com/in-en/cloud/object-storage/storage-class-tiers-archive


QUESTION 11
Which service provides control of the least resources on the cloud?
A. PaaS
B. SaaS
C. BMaaS
D. VMs
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 12
Which statement is true about a Hybrid Cloud?
A. It is a deployment model that requires the largest capital expense to deploy and to scale
B. It is a platform for applications and infrastructure that is built on two or more components from public cloud, private
cloud and on-premises IT
C. It is a platform for applications and infrastructure for system-z that is built on two or more components from only
public and private cloud
D. It is a collection of cloud resources made up of IaaS and PaaS from a single provider\\’s public cloud
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
What open-source system monitoring and alerting toolkit can be used in IBM Cloud Foundry Enterprise Environment?
A. Kubernetes
B. Sysdig
C. Prometheus
D. Nagios
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://cloud.ibm.com/docs/cloud-foundry?topic=cloud-foundry-monitoring

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QUESTION 1
What is the main function of a Cisco Adaptive Security Appliance (ASA)?
A. A Proxy
B. A Switch
C. A Firewall
D. An Authentication device
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 2
Events and Flows both have multiple different timestamps available to them. Which timestamp is available to both
events and flows?
A. End Time
B. Storage Time
C. First Activity Time
D. Last Activity Time
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://developer.ibm.com/answers/questions/292620/why-do-i-see-different-time-stamps-for-qradar-even/


QUESTION 3
Which three things can be found under the Information menu when right-clicking an IP address? (Choose three.)
A. Asset Profile
B. DNS Lookup
C. Hide Offense
D. WHOIS Lookup
E. Annotation View
F. Username Lookup
Correct Answer: ABD
Reference: https://www.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/en/SS42VS_7.2.6/com.ibm.qradar.doc/c_qradar_ug_asset_rightclick.html

QUESTION 4
An event is happening regularly and frequently; each event indicates the same target username. There is a rule
configured to test for this event which has a rule action to create an offense indexed on the username. What will QRadar
do with the triggered rule assuming no offenses exist for the username and no offenses are closed during this time?
A. Each matching event will be tagged with the Rule name, but only one Offense will be created.
B. Each matching event will cause a new Offense to be created and will be tagged with the Rule name.
C. Events will be tagged with the rule name as long as the Rule Response limiter is satisfied. Only one offense will be
created.
D. Each matching event will be tagged with the Rule name, and an Offense will be created if the event magnitude is
greater than 6.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 5
While on the Offense Summary page, a specific Category of Events associated with the Offense can be investigated.
Where should a Security Analyst click to view them?
A. Click on Events, then filter on Flows
B. Highlight the Category and click the Events icon
C. Scroll down to Categories and view Top 10 Source IPs
D. Right Click on Categories and choose Filter on Network Activity
Correct Answer: B
Reference:
IBM Security QRadar SIEM Users Guide. Page: 42

QUESTION 6
What is the key difference between Rules and Building Blocks in QRadar?
A. Rules have Actions and Responses; Building Blocks do not.
B. The Response Limiter is available on Building Blocks but not on Rules.
C. Building Blocks are built-in to the product; Rules are customized for each deployment.
D. Building Blocks are Rules which are evaluated on both Flows and Events; Rules are evaluated on Offenses of Flows
or Events.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which QRadar component provides Layer 7 visibility within a physical network infrastructure?
A. QRadar Data Node
B. QRadar Flow Analyzer
C. QRadar Flow Collector
D. QRadar VFlow Collector
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.robertrojek.pl/2017/11/09/qradar-appliances-types/


QUESTION 8
What is accessible from the Offenses Tab but is not used to present a sorted list of offenses?
A. Rules
B. Category
C. Source IP
D. Destination IP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which set of information is provided on the asset profile page on the assets tab in addition to ID?
A. Asset Name, MAC Address, Magnitude, Last user
B. IP Address, Asset Name, Vulnerabilities, Services
C. IP Address, Operating System, MAC Address, Services
D. Vulnerabilities, Operative System, Asset Name, Magnitude
Correct Answer: C
Reference:
https://www.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/SS42VS_7.2.1/com.ibm.qradar.doc_7.2.1/c_qradar_ug_asset_sum.html

QUESTION 10
What is the effect of toggling the Global/Local option to Global in a Custom Rule?
A. It allows a rule to compare events and flows in real-time.
B. It allows a rule to analyze the geographic location of the event source.
C. It allows rules to be tracked by the central processor for detection by any Event Processor.
D. It allows a rule to inject new events back into the pipeline to affect and update other incoming events.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Which file type is available for a report format?
A. TXT
B. DOC
C. PDF
D. PowerPoint
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Given the following window:

C2150-612 exam questions-q10

What are the steps to get this window within an offense?
A. Right click on the IP > Information > DNS Lookup
B. Right click on the IP > Information > Reverse DNS
C. Right click on the IP > Information > WHOIS Lookup
D. Right click on the IP > Information > Asset Profile
Correct Answer: A
Reference: http://www-01.ibm.com/support/docview.wss?uid=swg21690480

QUESTION 13
What is the difference between TCP and UDP?
A. They use different port number ranges
B. UDP is connectionless, whereas TCP is connection based
C. TCP is connectionless, whereas UDP is connection based
D. TCP runs on the application layer and UDP uses the Transport layer
Correct Answer: B

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[2021.4] Free online test of the latest IBM C2090-424 exam practice questions

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QUESTION 1
In order to use Cognos TM1 Connector, which statement is TRUE?
A. Installing the Cognos TM1 API component alone is sufficient.
B. Import the IBM Cognos TM1 certificate and create a property file that stores truststore password
C. Install the Cognos TM1 API component and create a property file that stores truststore password
D. Install the Cognos TM1 API component and import the IBM Cognos TM1 certificate and create a property file that
stores truststore password
Correct Answer: D
Reference:
https://www-01.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/SSZJPZ_11.3.0/com.ibm.swg.im.iis.conn.tm1.usage.doc/topics/tm1_installing_configuring.html


QUESTION 2
Which of the following is the correct schema format for a Time column?
A. record (tField:time[hour:minute:second];)
B. record (tField:nullable time[];)
C. record (tField:time[seconds];)
D. record (tField:time[microseconds];)
Correct Answer: C
Reference:
https://www-01.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/SSZJPZ_11.3.0/com.ibm.swg.im.iis.ds.parjob.dev.doc/topics/r_deeref_Time_Columns.html

QUESTION 3
The APT_SubProcessOperator is used for what purpose?
A. It allows you to incorporate a third-party executable into the framework
B. It provides the capability to break predefined operators into sub-processes
C. It provides the capability to define custom operators at the subprocess level
D. It allows you to incorporate composite operators, which contain more than one operator
Correct Answer: A
Reference:
https://www-01.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/SSZJPZ_11.3.0/com.ibm.swg.im.iis.ds.pxop.dev.doc/topics/creatingopers.html

QUESTION 4
You are experiencing performance issues for a given job. You are assigned the task of understanding what is
happening at run time for that job. What steps should you take to understand the job performance issues? (Choose
two.)
A. Use the resource estimation tool
B. Use the performance analysis tool
C. Replace Join stages by Lookup stages
D. Run the job with $APT_TRACE_RUN set to true
E. Run the job with $APT_DUMP_SCORE set to true
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 5
Which statement about restartable sequence jobs is TRUE?
A. If a restartable sequence aborts, it can be restarted from Director.
B. Choosing “Reset job” from Director will start the job where it left off.
C. Checkpoints are always added to every eligible Job Activity stage in the sequence.
D. There is no way to force a Job Activity stage to return if the sequence got beyond it.
Correct Answer: A
Reference: http://www-01.ibm.com/support/docview.wss?uid=swg1JR46534


QUESTION 6
In order to collect operational metadata, you must do which of the following?
A. Enable “Generate operational metadata” in the Execution tab of the job properties using the Designer client
B. Enable “Generate operational metadata” in the General tab of the project properties using the Director client
C. Enable “Record job performance data” in the General tab of the project properties using the Administrator client
D. Enable “Generate operational metadata” in the General tab of the Job Run Options dialog box in the Director client
Correct Answer: C
Reference:
https://www-01.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/SSZJPZ_11.3.0/com.ibm.swg.im.iis.ds.admin.doc/topics/t_daclref_Capturing_Process_Meta_Data.html

QUESTION 7
For very large records, you may need to set the following environment variable with an appropriate value in order to
allow the job to run successfully:
A. $APT_MONITOR_SIZE
B. $APT_RECORD_COUNTS
C. $APT_DISABLE_COMBINATION
D. $APT_DEFAULT_TRANSPORT_BLOCK_SIZE
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 8
To run multiple copies of the same job within Director, which of the following must be supplied?
A. Job name
B. Invocation ID
C. Parameter values
D. Username and password
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 9
Which restructure stage has a single reject link?
A. Split Vector
B. Column Import
C. Make Subrecord
D. Combine Records
Correct Answer: D
Reference:
http://www-01.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/SSZJPZ_8.5.0/com.ibm.swg.im.iis.ds.parjob.dev.doc/topics/c_deeref_Column_Import_Stage.html

QUESTION 10
By default, how much internal memory does the Sort use per partition?
A. 10MB
B. 20MB
C. 25MB
D. 30MB
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://datastage4u.wordpress.com/2011/04/26/sorting-in-datastage/


QUESTION 11
Which statement about the ISD input stage is NOT TRUE?
A. A job must have zero or one ISD input stages
B. A job with an ISD input stage must have an ISD output stage
C. Buffer size and timeout values can be supplied as job parameters
D. Text over JMS binding is only available if you are using Network Deployment
Correct Answer: D
Reference:
https://www-01.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/SSZJPZ_11.3.0/com.ibm.swg.im.iis.infoservdir.user.doc/topics/t_isd_user_configuring_wisd_input_stage.html

QUESTION 12
Which of the following is NOT a valid use of stage variables?
A. Storing values to be used in both derivations and constraints
B. Storing values that can be referenced by name in downstream stages
C. Storing values from one row to compare with values in the next row read
D. Storing the result on an expression to be used in multiple output columns
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 13
In the Masking Policy Editor in the Data Masking stage of your job, you have specified for a column containing credit
card numbers the Random Replacement masking policy. For the Copy option you have specified “(1,2)(3,4)”. What
changes will be made to a credit card number, such as 6327664369, to mask it?
A. Digits 1 through 2 and digits 3 through 4 will be randomly changed. The rest of the digits will remain the same.
B. Digits 1 through 2 and digits 3 through 4 will remain the same. The rest of the digits will be randomly changed.
C. The 2 digits starting at digit 1 and the 4 digits starting at digit 3 will remain the same. The rest of the digits will be
randomly changed.
D. The 2 digits starting at digit 1 and the 4 digits starting at digit 3 will be randomly changed. The rest of the digits will
remain the same.
Correct Answer: D

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1. What is the first step that should be performed after setting up a new IBM Tivoli Storage Manager server?
A. prepare
B. storage manager database backup
C. process to return local scratch tapes to the library
D. cron job to back up the Tivoli Storage Manager file system
000-004 exam Answer:B

2. Using the administrative command line on the client machine, query the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (Tivoli Storage Manager) server and save the output to be used for a report later. What must a Tivoli Storage Manager administrator with Operator authority do in order for this output to be redirected for reports?
A. Add > filename to the command.
B. Set the Admin authority to System and create a file output.
C. Create a report in the ISC and direct it to outfile=”outputname”.
D. Issue Query Systeminfo and from the DOS prompt select file output.
Answer:A

3. Which type of device class is supported by random access storage?
A. Disk
B. Tape
C. Virtual
D. GenericTape
000-004 dumps Answer:A

4. Which command will add a new volume to the library, which is in the entry/exit ports of the library?
A. checkin libvolume libname volname search=no status=scratch
B. checkin libvolume libname volname search=no status=scratch waitt=0
C. checkin libvolume libname search=yes status=scratch checklabel=yes
D. checkin libvolume libname search=bulk status=scratch checklabel=barcode
Answer:D

5. What is the term for automatic data movement that frees up space on tape volumes by consolidating active data from fragmented tape volumes onto a single volume?
A. migration
B. collocation
C. reclamation
D. aggregation
000-004 pdf Answer:C

6. Which command must be used to define a schedule that archives specific files quarterly on the last Friday of the month?
A. DEFINE SCHEDULE command with SCHEDSTYLE=ENHANCED parameter
B. DEFINE SCHEDULE command with SCHEDSTYLE=ADVANCED parameter
C. DEFINE CLIENTACTION command with SCHEDSTYLE=ENHANCED parameter
D. DEFINE CLIENTACTION command with SCHEDSTYLE=ADVANCED parameter
Answer:A

7. A customer has a 3584 library with 1000 tape volumes. All of the tape volumes are in IBM Tivoli Storage Manager library inventory with private and scratch status. Now the customer wants to know the total number of ‘Private’ volumes by SQL command. What is the correct SQL statement for an automatic count?
A. SELECT * FROM volumes WHERE status=’Private’
B. SELECT * FROM libvolumes WHERE status=’Private’
C. SELECT COUNT(*) FROM volumes WHERE status=’Private’
D. SELECT COUNT(*) FROM libvolumes WHERE status=’Private’
000-004 vce Answer:D

8. A new server-to-server environment is being set up. One server is called Source and the other Target. With the define server command, the servers will be defined in one step to these two servers. But only one server is defined. On one side, there is no server definition for the issuing server to find. How can this problem be solved?
A. On the Source server, DEFINE SERVER SOURCE …
B. Set on Source and on Target server, SET CROSSDEFINE ON.
C. Set on both servers the IP address, IP port, and the server password.
D. On the Target server, DEFINE SERVER SOURCE … CROSSDEFINE=YES.
Answer:D

9. Additional LTO4 tape drives should be added to the LTO library that has LTO2 drives, what must be done to ensure that the LTO4 drives are used for off-site tapes?
A. Define additional tape drives and path to additional tape drives.
B. Define device class for LTO4, tape drive, and update copypool.
C. Remove LTO device class, and define new LTO4 device class, tape drives, and path.
D. Define the new library, the library path, device class for LTO4, new tape drives to library, path of new drives to IBM Tivoli Storage Manager server, and update storage pool to use new device class LTO4 for off-site copypool and/or primary pools that are sent off-site.
000-004 exam Answer: D

10. A customer wants to copy the file, my data/schedule.doc, retain it for 365 days, and maintain its default backup retention for 30 days. Which IBM Tivoli Storage Manager action should be performed?
A. archive
B. image backup
C. open file backup
D. incremental backup
Answer: A

11. Which statement is true about IBM Tivoli Storage Manager selective backup?
A. It causes the server to update the date and time of the last archive.
B. It expires backup versions of files that are deleted from the workstation.
C. It rebinds backup versions to a management class if the management class has not changed.
D. It backs up directory and file entries even if their size, modification timestamp, or permissions have not changed.
Answer: D

12. Which three operating systems support journal-based backups? (Choose three.)
A. AIX
B. Solaris
C. HP-UX
D. Linux Redhat
E. Windows 2003 Server
F. Windows 2008 Server
000-004 dumps Answer:AEF

13. Whenever using the backup-archive client interface to perform Network Data Management Protocol backups or restores, you are asked to authenticate yourself as an IBM Tivoli Storage Manager administrator before the operation begins. What is the minimal level of authority the administrator ID must have to complete this?
A. system authority
B. system authority for the NAS node
C. client owner authority for the NAS node
D. analyst authority for the backup-archive client server
Answer:C

14. The same backup operation can be performed with a server interface. For example, from the administrative command line client, back up the file system named /vol/vol1 on a NAS file server named NAS1, by entering the following command: backup node nas1 /vol/vol1 What is the minimal level of authority required to perform this operation?
A. storage authority
B. system authority for the NAS node
C. client owner authority for the NAS node
D. analyst authority for the backup-archive client server
000-004 pdf Answer: C

15. In order to back up a NAS device to an IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (Tivoli Storage Manager) native storage pool, set the destination storage pool in the copy group to point to the desired native storage pool. The destination storage pool provides the information about the library and drives used for backup and restore. When backing up a NAS file server to Tivoli Storage Manager native pools, the TOCDESTINATION may be the same as the destination of the NDMP data. What is required for this to
happen?
A. Define a new copygroup for the TOC.
B. Define a new device class for the TOC.
C. Define a copygroup with the TOCDestination parameter.
D. Define a device class, by using the TOCDestination parameter.
Answer: C

16. What is the latest and fastest backup method for a large customer to use Network Data Management Protocol (NDMP) for the large filer?
A. the NetAppSnapMirror to Tape
B. the traditional NDMP for full backup
C. a flash-copy with SnapMirror directly to Tape
D. a block-level copy with SnapMirror directly to Tape
000-004 vce Answer: D

17. A Network Data Management Protocol (NDMP) installation is growing fast with a large filer. For these large IBM Tivoli Storage Manager nodes, a faster backup method must be implemented. Which method should be considered?
A. NDMP full
B. SnapMirror to Tape
C. NDMP differential backup
D. Incremental backup with NDMP
Answer: B

18. The Network Data Management Protocol filers must be backed up. All definitions are complete and the access to the tape environment is working properly. The backup command is not performing optimally. To allow the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager client a backup from a NetApp filer, some additional options for the backup command are required to get optimal performance. Which option should be used?
A. TYPE = BACKUP | SNAPDisk
B. TYPE = BACKUPImage | SNAPMirror
C. TYPE = BACKUPFilespace | SNAPCopy
D. TYPE = BACKUPFiller | SNAPMultiple
Answer: B

19. Which command starts the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager administrative command line interface?
A. dsmc
B. dsmadmc
C. tsmadmin
D. dsm admin
000-004 exam Answer: B

20. What are two valid options when starting the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager administrative command line interface? (Choose two.)
A. -clientmode
B. -adminmode
C. – mountmode
D. – servermode
E. – consolemode
Answer:CE

21. The exhibit represents a simple routed network. Node 7 is a Windows 2000 Professional machine that establishes a TCP communication with Node 10, a Windows 2003 Server. The routers are Cisco 2500 series running IOS 11.2. While working at Node 10, you run a packet capture. Packets received by Node 10, and sent from Node 7 will reveal which of the following combination of source IP and source Physical addresses:
A. Source IP address 10.0.10.115, Source Physical address for Node 7
B. Source IP address 50.0.50.1, Source Physical address for Node 7
C. Source IP address for Router D’s Int E0, Source Physical address for Node 7
D. Source IP address 10.0.10.115, Source Physical address Router D’s Int E0
E. Source IP addresses for both Nodes 7 and Router D’s Int E0, Source Physical address for both Nodes 7 and Router D’s Int E0.
000-004 dumps Answer:D

22. You have implemented an IPSec policy, using only AH. You are analyzing your network traffic in Network Monitor, which of the following statements are true about your network traffic?
A. You will not be able to view the data in the packets, as it is encrypted.
B. You will not be able to identify the upper layer protocol.
C. You will be able to view the unencrypted data in the packets.
D. You will be able to identify the encryption algorithm in use.
E. You will not be able to view the packet header.
Answer: C

23. In order to perform promiscuous mode captures using the Wireshark capture tool on a Windows Server 2003 machine, what must first be installed?
A. IPv4 stack
B. IPv6 stack
C. WinPcap
D. Nothing, it will capture by default
E. At least two network adapters
000-004 pdf Answer: C

24. You are configuring the rules on your firewall, and need to take into consideration that some clients in
the network are using automatic addressing. What is the IP address range reserved for internal use for
APIPA in Microsoft networks?
A. 169.254.0.0 /4
B. 169.254.0.0 /16
C. 169.254.0.0 /8
D. 169.254.0.0 /0
E. 168.255.0.0 /16
Answer: B
000-004 dumps

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[Oct.-2017-New] Prepare For the Latest IBM C4040-252 Dumps Exams Certification Are Based On The Real Exam Video Study

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What’s New in theIBM C4040-252 dumps? “Power Systems with POWER8 Enterprise Technical Sales Skills V1” is the name of IBM C4040-252 exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real IBM exam. Prepare for the latest IBM C4040-252 dumps exams certification are based on the real exam video study. Pass4itsure IBM C4040-252 dumps exam questions answers are updated (58 Q&As) are verified by experts.

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Exam Code: C4040-252
Exam Name: Power Systems with POWER8 Enterprise Technical Sales Skills V1
Q&As: 58

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C4040-252 dumps

2017 IBM C4040-252 Dumps (All 58 Q&As) From Pass4itsure:

QUESTION: 40
Which of the following statements is false?
A. Service-orientation is a design paradigm that must be applied on an enterprise-wide
basis in order to be successful.
B. Service-orientation is a design paradigm comprised of a set of design principles.
C. Service-orientation is an evolutionary design paradigm that has been influenced by
older, established IT paradigms and platforms.
D. Service-orientation is applied to logic in order to create service-oriented logic.
C4040-252 exam 
Answer: A
QUESTION: 41
When an organization cannot implement a single enterprise service inventory, it has the
option to organize collections of services into multiple service inventories referred to as
.
A. domain service inventories
B. sub-inventories
C. sectional service inventories
D. service inventory subsets
Answer: A
QUESTION: 42
A part of a service contract that is commonly standardized is the .
A. data model

B. service agent
C. service registry
D. data agent
C4040-252 dumps 
Answer: A
QUESTION: 43
Service-oriented computing advocates a concept based on the creation of a service layer
with standardized and unified endpoints (service contracts) while allowing individual
service implementations to remain disparate and independently governed. This concept is
known as:
A. interoperability
B. transformation
C. federation
D. isolation
Answer: C
QUESTION: 44
Service-oriented computing aims to increase an organization’s responsiveness by
allowing it to adapt to change more efficiently and effectively. This is known as:
A. organizational diversity
B. organizational agility
C. organizational federation
D. organizational interoperability
C4040-252 pdf 
Answer: B
QUESTION: 45
One of the fundamental characteristics of service-oriented architecture is:
A. business-driven
B. integration-centric
C. inventory-neutral
D. silo-driven
Answer: A
QUESTION: 46
By applying a strategic scope to the technology architecture, it can be kept
in constant synch with how the business evolves over time.
A. consistently decreasing
B. middleware-centric
C. vendor-driven
D. None of the above answers correctly complete this sentence.
C4040-252 vce 
Answer: D
QUESTION: 47
Why is it recommended to establish a service-oriented architectural model that is vendor
neutral?
A. Because a vendor-neutral architectural model provides you with the opportunity to
fully leverage and form dependencies on proprietary (vendor-specific) vendor features.
B. Because a vendor-neutral architectural model provides you with the opportunity to
build service-oriented solutions only with open source technologies, thereby avoiding the
use of vendor technologies altogether.
C. Because a vendor-neutral architectural model provides you with the freedom to
diversify its implementation by leveraging multiple vendor technologies as required.
D. A vendor-neutral service-oriented architectural model is not recommended.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 48
Which two are valid configurations of an interface? (Choose two.) A. [edit interfaces]
lo0 { unit 0
{ family inet
{
address 192.168.20.1/32;
}
}
}
A. [edit interfaces]
lo0 { unit 0
{ family inet
{
address 192.168.20.1/24;
}
}
}
B. [edit interfaces]
fe-0/0/0
{ unit 0
{ family inet
{
address 10.1.20.1/32;
}
}
}

C. [edit interfaces]
C4040-252 exam
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 49
Which logical unit number must be configured on an interface using PPP encapsulation?
A. unit 0
B. unit 1
C. unit 100
D. unit 255
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 50
Which statement is true about configuring a back-to-back connection frame-relay on
Juniper Routers?
A. Both DTE and DCE will send keep-alives by default so no special configuration is required.
B. The circuit is negotiated automatically so no special configuration is required.
C. All equipment is by defaultDTE, one side should be set to DCE.
D. All equipment is by defaultDCE, one side should be set to DTE.
C4040-252 dumps 
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 51
Which two media types support asynchronous transfer mode? (Choose two.)
A. T3
B. SONET
C. Gigabit-Ethernet
D. EIA/TIA-232 serial
Answer: A,B
QUESTION NO: 52
Which user authentication methods are available in JUNOS?
A. MD5 and SHA
B. RADIUS and TACACS only
C. Local User Database
D. Local user Database, RADIUS, and TACACS+
C4040-252 pdf 
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 53
A router has been configured with the settings shown below:
[edit]
[email protected]# show system authentication-order authentication-order [ radius tacplus ];
The router also has a local database that contains the user lab with password lab123. What
would happen if both the RADIUS and the TACACS servers are not accessible?
A. The user lab will not be able to login.
B. The user lab will be authenticated against the local database and will be able to login.
C. The user lab will receive an error message indicating the router is unable to authenticate
due to the authentication servers not responding.
D. The user will be able to login only if tries to login as the root user.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 54
A router has been configured with the authentication order settings shown below:
[edit]
[email protected]# show system authentication-order authentication-order [ radius tacplus password
];
The router also has a local database that contains the user lab with password lab123.
What would happen if both the RADIUS and the TACACS servers respond with a reject for
user lab?
A. The user lab will not be able to login.
B. The user lab will be authenticated against the local database and will be able to login.
C. The user will be able to login only if tries to login as the root user.
D. The user lab will receive an error message indicating the username and password
provided could not be found on the radius and tacacs servers.
C4040-252 vce 
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 55
You have been asked to configure a login class which will permit its users to view and edit the configuration. The class should only allow the configuration of the interfaces and firewall heirarchies. Which configuration correctly accomplishes this?
A. accept-commands “(configure)”;
accept-configuration “(interfaces|firewall)”;
deny-configuration “(groups)”;
B. permissions[ clear network reset view ];
allow-commands “(configure)”;
allow-configuration “(interfaces) | (firewall)”;
deny-configuration “(groups)”;
C. permissions[ clear network reset view ];
permit-commands “(configure)”;
permit-configuration “(interfaces) | (firewall)”;
deny-configuration “(groups)”;
D. permissions[ clear network reset view ];
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 56
How are the commands a user is allowed to enter defined in JUNOS?
A. Permissions are configured individually for each user.
B. Users are associated with user classes, and each class defines the permissions for
entering commands.
C. There are four default classes with different permissions and you can only use these four.
D. Permissions are associated with each user ID.
C4040-252 exam 
Answer: B

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