Category Archives: IBM

IBM C1000-093 Dumps Updated [Free two Materials] Valid For Success

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1. What is the minimum requirement for an HA deployment of the Cloud Pak for Integration Platform Navigator?

A. 3 cores across 3 worker nodes
B. cores across 2 worker nodes
C. 1.5 cores across 3 worker nodes
D. 1 core across 2 worker nodes

Correct Answer: C

2. What is the key benefit of moving away from a centralized ESB pattern to Agile Integration?

A. Faster rollout of integrations, enhanced scalability, and resilience
B. Rapid creation of integrations using a no-code approach
C. API-led integration enabling agility and innovation
D. Multi-cloud deployment of integration artifacts

Correct Answer: B

3. Which situation would lead to the loss of an etcd quorum in an OpenShift v4 cluster?

A. The database used by all Cloud Pak for Integration components is corrupted
B. OpenShift has lost all worker nodes
C. The majority of master/control plane hosts are lost
D. One of the master nodes has gone offline

Correct Answer: A

4. Which is an IBM Cloud Pak solution advantage?

A. Full software stack support, ongoing security, compliance, and version compatibility
B. Continuous Delivery and Continuous Integration (CD/CI) tools
C. Dedicated support team for application migration to IBM Cloud
D. OpenStack integration out of the box

Correct Answer: B

5. Which active-standby pair of queue managers use a shared networked file system?

A. Double resilient queue manager
B. Replicated data queue manager
C. Integrated HA queue manager
D. Multi-instance queue manager

Correct Answer: D

6. An architect needs an agnostic provider of persistent storage for their OpenShift Container Platform, that supports file, block, and object storage, either in-house or in hybrid clouds, Which provider should the architect choose?

A. HostPath Storage
B. Red Hat OpenShift Container Storage
C. FlexVolume Drives
D. OpenStack Cinder

Correct Answer: A

7. What is the function of Kibana in the Cloud Pak For Integration logging service?

A. Collate, correlate, and interpret log data
B. Capture, collect, and forward log data
C. Index, search, and store log data
D. Query, discover, and visualize log data

Correct Answer: C

8. A new proxy API needs to be created, security added, and published to the Sandbox catalog. Which is the correct sequence of steps that should be taken to perform these tasks?’
9. What is the minimum number of CPU cores that are required to install the Cloud Pak for Integration Common Services?

A. 16 cores
B. 2 cores
C. 4 cores
D. 8 cores

Correct Answer: C

10. Which mechanism is available in IBM Event Streams to help with disaster recovery by replicating topic configuration, messages of a topic, and metadata from an origin cluster to a destination cluster?

A. Geo-configuration
B. Geo-datasync
C. Geo-recovery
D. Geo-replication

Correct Answer: D

11. What are two characteristics of storage classes that are required for API management capability deployment?

A. Any storage must be of type File System
B. Depending on the use-case both block and file system storage classes are supported
C. Only block storage classes are supported
D. Block storage for distributed and file system storage for localized
E. Requires an access mode of Read-Write-Many

Correct Answer: BE

12. An integration architect has the following requirements:
1. Enable applications and services to communicate reliably without calling each other directly
2. Introduce process independence into the application architecture
3. Improve fault tolerance and reliability throughout the system.
Which modern integration pattern should the Architect choose?

A. API integration
B. Event driven publish/subscribe
C. Application data integration
D. High speed file transfers

Correct Answer: D

13. Which format is used to export metering reports from Cloud Pak for Integration?

A. XML
B. CSV
C. DSV
D. YAML

Correct Answer: B

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C1000-065 Dumps Update | Real IBM C1000-065 Exam Questions

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01

A dashboard developer notices that Age is available in the sourced data module. A request has been made to \\’bucket\\’ those age values into 5 groups, Ages 0-6, 7-12, 13-21, 22-55, and 55 and over. How would one define this logic in the source data module?

A. set range values in the data module
B. use the Create new table feature
C. select the Age column, and select Create data group
D. define a Case..When calculated attribute in the dashboard

02

A developer may improve the look and feel of a dashboard or story by adding images and shapes from the Widgets panel. Which statement is true when adding widgets to a dashboard?

A. The widgets panel may contain an Image library tab that the administrator made available
B. Images may only be made available by URL reference.
C. Images can be uploaded to the Image through the upload option on the widgets panel.
D. Text widgets may only be positioned vertically or horizontally.

03

In which two ways can a specific visualization in a dashboard be filtered?

A. A developer can only keep or exclude data points within an axis.
B. A developer can create a Calculation within the dashboard that will filter a specific visualization.
C. A developer can also add a local filter to filter a column or to define a filter condition.
D. A developer can build an embedded filter in a data module.
E. A developer can keep or exclude a few data points in the visualization.

04

What is the significance of \\’Clothes\\’ in the following filter expression of a report query? [Product Group] = # sq( prompt( \\’productgroups\\’, \\’token\\’, \\’Clothes\\’ ) )#

A. \\’Clothes\\’ is the default text to include in the generated query at runtime.
B. The string \\’Clothes\\’ will precede the text of the prompt value selected at runtime.
C. The string \\’Clothes\\’ will be appended to the end of the text of the prompt value selected at runtime.
D. \\’Clothes\\’ is a required value to include in the generated query at runtime.

05

In an Exploration \\’Data relationships\\’ view, what does the thickness of the lines between data items represent?

A. the statistical strength of the relationship between the data items
B. the flow of information between categories, ie. money transfers between countries
C. the cardinality of one data item when grouped by another, ie. thicker signifies more unique values
D. the weighted average of each measure value compared with other measures

https://www.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/SSEP7J_11.1.0/com.ibm.swg.ba.cognos.ca_explor
ations.doc/ca_explore_relationship_diagram.html

06

Which two statements are true when creating navigation paths?

A. A data module can have multiple navigation paths.
B. A modeler must delete the navigation path and re-create it to change the path.
C. Columns from different tables cannot be added to a navigation path.
D. A navigation path is a collection of Group Data columns.
E. A navigation path is a collection of non-measure columns.

07

Which of the following can result in poor report performance?

A. reports with filters
B. models with outer joins and cross joins
C. queries with database only processing
D. an optimized metadata model

08

To create a Layout Component Reference in a report, which object property needs to be provided?

A. Conditional Reference
B. Label
C. Name
D. Render Variable

09

What technique could be used to investigate report performance?

A. Increase the size limit for the user session.
B. Review the system metrics.
C. Enable the interactive performance assistant
D. Enable legacy user interface.

10

A developer has nested two non-measures in a Column visualization in a dashboard. How would the developer manually order the columns to get the column order to show properly?

A. Use automatic sorting.
B. Uncheck sort automatically, and drag the columns to the correct order.
C. Select Sort remaining items by Auto.
D. Use custom sorting.

11

Which of the following is an example of when the query cache would avoid roundtrips to the database?

A. repetitive master-detail requests
B. drill through reports
C. reports with multiple queries
D. drill down reports

12

What property needs to be set to ensure that any JavaScript and Prompt APIs are executed when a report is run as HTML?
A. Ensure Enable bidirectional support is checked
B. Run with full interactivity is set to No
C. Enable drill up and drill down in the report output
D. Guided report layout is checked

13

After upgrading from Cognos version 10 what needs to be selected in order to create a data module on a data server?

A. Select “Allow web-based modeling” in Cognos Configuration when starting the server
B. Select “Allow web-based modeling” in the Cognos installer when upgrading the server components.
C. Under the Data Server Connection in the Administration Console configuration select “Allow Framework Manager”.
D. Under the Data Source Connection in the Administration Console configuration select “Allow web- based modeling”.

Answers:

Question: 01Question: 02Question: 03Question: 04Question: 05Question: 06Question: 07Question: 08Question: 09Question: 10Question: 11Question: 12Question: 13
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1#

Which command is used on Cloud Pak for Data System to reset a password policy to the system’s initial values?

A. ap config reset-pwpolicy
B. ap setup reset-pwpolicy
C. ap_external_ldap reset-pwpolicy
D. apusermgmt reset-pwpolicy

2#

Which node personality should be used before scaling up a Cloud Pak for a Data System environment?

A. default
B. unset
C. undefined
D. none

3#

What will the administrator see when running the ap issues -c command?

A. list of every issue on the system
B. a list of closed issues
C. list of open issues at the time
D. a list of issues arranged by component name

4#

Which node personality type can host any service, container, or pod as designated by Cloud Pak for Data System?

A. unset
B. labeled
C. control
D. universal

5#

Which tool is used to apply STIG hardening to Cloud Pak for Data System?

A. Manually change the recommended files by STIG guidelines.
B. Use the web console and configure Home->Admin->STIG.
C. Use security_stig_manager with –applyAll.
D. Use security_comliance_manager.

6#

Which two options are available to backup data on Cloud Pak for Data System? (Choose two.)

A. to IBM Spectrum Scale
B. to local disk
C. to media tapes
D. to Portworx storage
E. to NFS storage

7#

A user reports that the web console for IBM Cloud Pak for Data (ICP4D) is not responding. Based on the report below

what is the first step should the IBM Cloud Pak for Data System administrator take to address the problem?

A. Delete the pod: on delete pod ICP4D
B. Restart the platform application ICP4D: ap restart ICP4D
C. Enable the ICP4D application: ap apps enable ICP4D
D. Resume the ICP4D application: ap apps resume ICP4D

8#

The Cloud Pak for Data System web console displays the storage details. How much total storage is available for the worker nodes?

A. 64,000 GB
B. 30,720 GB
C. 26,624 GB
D. 128,000 GB

9#

Which two symptoms are available for data collection using the adding command in Cloud Pak for Data System? (Choose two.)

A. docker_issue
B. hang_issue
C. platformmanager_issue
D. crash_issue
E. thinpool_issue

10#

Which command is used to determine the log file associated with a particular issue in Cloud Pak for Data System?

A. Run the journalctl command.
B. Run the command of the ap issues.
C. Run the adding command.
D. Run the OC inspect command.

11#

Which command will manually close an alert with id 1234?

A. ap issues -d 1234
B. ap –close 1234
C. ap issues –close 1234
D. ap –close alert 1234

12#

Which two methods can be used to obtain the software inventory and monitor software components’ status in Cloud Pak for Data System? (Choose two.)

A. Query the systemd journal: journalctl
B. Command line: aps wd
C. Service manager status: systemctl status icp4d
D. Audit log: apsyslog
E. Web Console: Software overview page

Correct answer:

1. D, 2. A, 3. B, 4. D, 5. C, 6. CD, 7. C, 8. B, 9. AD, 10, D, 11, A, 12. CD

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IBM C7010-013 Exam Questions [C7010-013 PDF] Dumps Latest Update

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C7010-013 – IBM Cúram V6.0.5, Business Analysis, and Design Practice Test Questions

The correct answer is at the end of the question.

1. Which three of the following are evidence workspaces?

A. In Edit Evidence
B. Outgoing Evidence
C. Outcomes
D. Evidence Flow
E. Assessments
F. Issues

2. Which three of the following statements about rate tables are true?

A. They have effective dates
B. They store values for drop-down lists
C. They store application properties
D. They can be cloned
E. They cannot be used by rule sets
F. They store values that can vary over time

3. Which three of the following statements about locations are true?

A. Locations represent the work places of the users
B. Each location must have a unique address
C. Locations are organized within a hierarchy
D. Locations are elements within the organization structure
E. Each location can have its own holiday schedule
F. Each location has its own lead position

4. Evidence records associated with which case type can be shared across multiple product delivery cases?

A. Product delivery case
B. Integrated case
C. Screening case
D. Assessment case
E. Issue case

5. Which three of the following statements about outcome plan services are true?

A. Services do not have an associated financial cost
B. The agency (not the client) will pay for services that have an associated cost
C. Services can be configured to require supervisory approval
D. Services must be delivered directly by the organization
E. A provider is mandatory when creating a service

6. Which of the following components is used to derive these results?

A. Cúram Intelligent Evidence Gathering
B. Cúram Data Mapping Editor
C. Cúram Express Rules (CER) rule set
D. Cúram Decision Assist

7. Which of the following statements about IBM Cúram Evidence records is true?

A. Each evidence record is associated with an evidence relationship
B. Each evidence record is associated with a case owner
C. Each evidence record is associated with an evidence type
D. Each evidence record is associated with an evidence approval check

8. What is a communication exception?

A. A type of communication that should not be used for a certain participant
B. A type of communication that results in a template error
C. A one-off communication that is sent to a participant to confirm their registration
D. A communication that does not reach its intended recipient
E. A communication for which no template exists

9. Which three of the following are the basic financial units processed by IBM Cúram?

A. Financial component
B. Liability
C. Allocation
D. Payment
E. Payslip
F. Payment received

10. Which three of the following are components of an application tab in the IBM Cúram user interface?

A. Application sections
B. Modal dialog
C. Navigation bar
D. Page group navigation bar
E. Shortcuts panel
F. Context panel

11. The agency wishes to register a community-based organization (CBO), which will submit applications and supporting documentation on behalf of other participants.
The agency should register this CBO as which participant type?

A. Person
B. Service supplier
C. External party
D. Employer
E. Representative

12. Which three of the following are terms dealing with IBM Cúram Express Rules (CER)?

A. Rule attribute
B. Rule session
C. Rule object
D. Rule repeat
E. Rule flow
F. Rule list group

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1. What is an example of a cloud native application?

A. An application developed using an IBM Cloud hosted integrated development environment and deployed to production on a locally hosted virtual machine
B. A software platform available exclusively on IBM Cloud
C. A containerized application that is deployed on an orchestrated platform
D. A Windows application designed to run both on IBM Cloud and on locally hosted environments

2. Which type of storage is used in a database application that needs consistent fast access to disk?

A. Block Storage
B. Instance Storage
C. Object Storage
D. File Storage

3. Hyperledger fabric is the blockchain implementation used with which IBM Cloud service?

A. Hyperledger Platform
B. Distributed Ledger Platform
C. Blockchain Platform
D. Internet of Things Platform

4. Which part of a cloud implementation is the infrastructure layer most commonly referred to as?

A. Software defined resources
B. Virtual resources
C. Containerized resources
D. Physical resources

5. What is a virtual private cloud?

A. A collection of public virtual machines built on private single tenant hardware
B. A secure, isolated private cloud hosted within a public cloud
C. A collection of private bare metal servers, running single tenant virtual machines
D. A secure, isolated, private cloud hosted on premises

6. According to NIST, what are the five essential characteristics of the cloud?

A. On-demand self-service, broad network access, resource pooling, rapid elasticity, and measured service
B. Networks, firewalls, storage, applications, and services
C. Platform as a service, bring your own software license, ability to reply applications over the internet, software as a service, and private network
D. On-demand network access, dedicated pool of computing resources, direct attached storage, rapid provisioning, and self service

7. What is a benefit of Public Cloud?

A. Offers the most significant economies of scale
B. Offers control of internal IT resources
C. Controls and automates deployments and updates
D. Offers controlled access and greater security measures customized to specific organizational needs

8. What was the earliest implementation of cloud computing?

A. Selling unused time slices
B. LAN parties and cyber cafes
C. Indexing large data sets across universities
D. Providing compute resources for complex problems such as protein folding or asteroid tracking

9. What are containers?

A. Independent units deployed in networking spaces that are logically separated segments
B. A control group that can be run anywhere, desktop, traditional IT, or the cloud
C. An executable unit of software in which application code is packaged
D. A security group that provides security at the instance level such as VSIs

10. An application is comprised of a set of core functions such as product catalog, client ratings, user forums, and each function must be developed and deployed independently of each other. Which architecture supports this requirement?

A. Microservices
B. Platform-as-a-service
C. Fowler
D. Monolithic

11. Which statement is true regarding serverless computing?

A. Users are charged a low hourly rate during idle time for the serverless computing service
B. Implementations differ across service providers, and capabilities vary, including supported runtimes, authentication, scaling and monitoring
C. Serverless application are generally long-running (days or weeks) and stateful (maintain state or information across requests)
D. Serverless is not well-suited for event processing or IOT

12. What is a resource group in IBM Cloud?

A. Application resources that have been placed in the same zone
B. A container for resources to which access privileges can be assigned
C. A set of provisioned services labeled with the same tag
D. A group of resources that can be created on demand using a Teraform script

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The answer is at the end of the question.

1.

Which methods of calculation within a schedule are used to calculate percent complete with Scheduler Plus?

A. Date, Estimate, Contractor
B. Date, Estimate, Task
C. Actual, Physical, Contractor
D. Actual, Physical, Task

2.

What is the DEFLTREG group used for in Maximo Enterprise Asset Management (EAM)?

A. allows users access to default EAM functionality
B. allows users to change their passwords
C. allows users to self-register into Maximo EAM
D. allows users to customize their Ul experience

3.

Which two data connections are available out of the box with Maximo Asset Health Insights (MAHI)?

A. ATandT Asset Management Operations Center
B. Microsoft Azure Data Lake
C. Google Cloud Platform
D. Amazon Web Services
E. IBM Watson loT Platform
Correct Answer: A

4.

Which two circumstances would be recommended using a Snapshot package to migrate data?

A. when there are few or selective changes
B. when changes are made to a single application
C. when the changes are made by specific users
D. during the initial data load when setting up an environment
E. when there are many changes at the same time

5.

When an abnormal behavior is detected for an asset, what does this mean?

A. a part has been damaged and should be replaced
B. a deviation from normal behavior has occurred and should be investigated
C. an asset is due preventive maintenance work
D. the asset has reached the end of useful life and should be decommissioned

6.

When assigning assets to a Lease/Rental contract, what must a user have?

A. asset owner information
B. rotating item number and associated asset numbers
C. make and model of each asset
D. the asset location

7.

How is the Risk Priority Number per Asset or Location calculated in Maximo Asset Performance Management (APM)?

A. by aggregating the amount of Corrective Work Orders associated to the Asset or Location
B. by aggregating the amount of Failure Modes associated to the Asset or Location
C. by multiplying the Failure Consequence number with the Failure Probability number per Failure Mode
D. by aggregating the Corrective Work Order cost associated to the Asset or Location

8.

An individual organization in Maximo Enterprise Asset Management (EAM) wishes to have a slightly different General Ledger (GL) Account Code structure than others in the database. Where would this be configured?

A. Database Configuration
B. Security Groups
C. Chart of Accounts
D. Organization

9.

Which two Maximo Enterprise Asset Management Security (EAM) Groups are available out of the box?

A. EVERYONE
B. MAXREGISTER
C. MAXADMIN
D. MAXDEFAULT
E. MAXALLUSERS

10.

Which is a limitation to a Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML)-only authentication?

A. E-Signatures are not supported via SAML
B. Basic Authentication headers continue to be supported
C. Security for Cognos reporting is properly enabled
D. Requires two-factor authentication

11.

Which three entities can you connect a Maximo Asset Performance Management (APM) Mitigating Action?

A. Work Order
B. Item
C. Routes D D. Asset
D. Preventive Maintenance (PM)
E. Job Plan

12.

Which statement is true regarding uncertainty data for calibrations performed in Maximo for Life Sciences?

A. Maximo for Life Sciences performs the uncertainty calculations and records the information in the job plan.
B. Maximo for Life Sciences performs the uncertainty calculations, however the data is non-persistent and not recorded in Maximo.
C. Maximo for Life Sciences does not provide for the recording of uncertainty data.
D. Third party software is typically used for performing the uncertainty calculations, which are uploaded into Maximo for Life Sciences via batch process or integration.

Correct answer posted

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Q#1

A mobile application developer is using IBM Mobile Foundation for the backend services. The application end-users
need access to the application data even when there is no network and the application is running offline. Which of the
following IBM Mobile Foundation features will help in this scenario?

A. JSONStore
B. Mobile Foundation SDK
C. AES 256 encryption and Data storage
D. Mobile Foundation Adapters

Q# 2

What would a developer write to manage the lifecycle of an application in an IBM Cloud OpenShift cluster?

A. An operator
B. A private registry
C. A junction
D. A docker instance

Q# 3

Which of the following is the benefit of the IBM API Connect Developer Portal?

A. Create a different version of API
B. Create an Application and subscribes to the IBM cloud catalog
C. Analyze API usage
D. Onboard new API mobile users

Q# 4

In the Ops part of DevOps practices, one key practice is Service Management and Operations. A team is deploying a
new version of an application and. after a bad history of recurring fails in production, wants to implement practices to
avoid recurring problems. What IBM Garage practice can be used by the team to achieve its goal?

A. The team can implement tools to identify, correlate and analyze events and alerts
B. The team can implement the 5 Hows approach to analyze each fail
C. The team can implement collaboration tools to unify the team in problem resolution
D. The team can implement health check APIs to monitor applications services

Q# 5

A developer has been granted the Viewer role for the IBM Log Analysis with LogDNA Web Ul and view logs. Which of
the following actions will the user be able to achieve?

A. Launch the Web Ul and view logs in the Web Ul
B. View the list of service instances in the Observability Logging dashboard
C. View service keys through the Web Ul
D. ReviewIAM permissions granted to other users

Q# 6

What is an option for a developer tasked to create APIs for a business service using the API Gateway on IBM Cloud?

A. Submitting a WAR/JAR file to a static analysis tool to auto-create APIs based on business logic
B. Importing APIs using Swagger/OpenAPI definitions stored on .json. .yml and .yaml files
C. Creating Kubernetes services resources that will automatically create API for each Service resource on API Connect
D. Importing APIs stored in .zip files

Q# 7

What approach should be taken to request a policy limit increase for an account?

A. Submit a support case
B. Request via CLI
C. Request via API
D. Adjust account profile settings

Q# 8

Which of the following components is used for Sysdig agent installation in an IBM Cloud Kubernetes Service cluster?

A. DaemonSet
B. Object mapping using labels
C. Pod with Spec Monitor agent
D. Sidecar to the Pod

Q# 9

For a DevOps team, one of the most important capabilities is Continuous Feedback. On a team using IBM Garage
method, what Continuous Feedback technique can be used collect user feedback on new features developed by the
team?

A. A / B test can be used to deploy two different versions of a feature in production and monitor how users interact with them
B. A continuous deployment tool can be used to alternate the application version in the production environment and monitor their usage by users
C. A design thinking session can be used to define the personas and collect their feeling about new features developed
D. Blue / Green deployment can be used to deploy two different versions of the application at the same time and collect data on how users are using them

Q# 10

An enterprise in the auto manufacturing industry manages applications that run across multiple data centers, network
zones, and scattered environments. The server Admin team is looking to have a single dashboard to seamlessly and
consistently deploy applications running across multiple clouds and manage it all through that single dashboard.

Which IBM Cloud Pak is recommended for this requirement?

A. Cloud Pak for Data
B. Cloud Pak Multicloud Manager
C. Cloud Pak for Watson
D. Cloud Pak for Applications

Q# 11

Which two of the following are benefits of a Content Delivery Network (CDN)?

A. Connects high-speed direct links between your account and theirs to provide reliable low latency connections
B. Mitigates distributed denial of service (DDoS) attacks, man-in-the-middle attacks, and other common attacks on websites
C. Copies websites to a central location to deliver fast responses to improve customer satisfaction
D. Provides infrastructure and bandwidth in planned remote locations at a predefined hourly rate
E. Decreases impacts to website performance by reducing the effects of spikes or surges in demand

Q# 12

Does an e-commerce mobile application need to understand individual user\\’s interactions to define a personalized product recommendation Which of the following configuration can help the application to collect necessary data?

A. Enable the IBM Watson Analytics for MobileFirst settings to true in the application descriptor file
B. Integrate the mobile application with IBM Analytics Engine
C. Enable LogMetrics in IBM MobileFirst Platform on IBM cloud portal
D. Initialize the MobileFirst Analytics SDK and enable the capture of lifecycle and network analytic data

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QUESTION 1

A mobile application developer is using IBM Mobile Foundation for the backend services. The application end-users
need access to the application data even when there is no network and the application is running offline. Which of the
following IBM Mobile Foundation features will help in this scenario?

A. JSONStore
B. Mobile Foundation SDK
C. AES 256 encryption and Data storage
D. Mobile Foundation Adapters

QUESTION 2

What would a developer write to manage the lifecycle of an application in an IBM Cloud OpenShift cluster?

A. An operator
B. A private registry
C. A junction
D. A docker instance

QUESTION 3

Which of the following is the benefit of the IBM API Connect Developer Portal?

A. Create different versions of API
B. Create an Application and subscribe to the IBM cloud catalog
C. Analyze API usage
D. Onboard new API mobile users

QUESTION 4

In the Ops part of DevOps practices, one key practice is Service Management and Operations. A team is deploying a
new version of an application and. after a bad history of recurring fails in production, wants to implement practices to
avoid recurring problems. What IBM Garage practice can be used by the team to achieve its goal?

A. The team can implement tools to identify, correlate and analyze events and alerts
B. The team can implement the 5 Hows approach to analyze each fail
C. The team can implement collaboration tools to unify the team in problem resolution
D. The team can implement health check APIs to monitor applications services

QUESTION 5

A developer has been granted the Viewer role for the IBM Log Analysis with LogDNA Web Ul and view logs. Which of
the following actions will the user be able to achieve?

A. Launch the Web Ul and view logs in the Web Ul
B. View the list of service instances in the Observability Logging dashboard
C. View service keys through the Web Ul
D. ReviewIAM permissions granted to other users

QUESTION 6

What is an option for a developer tasked to create APIs for a business service using the API Gateway on IBM Cloud?

A. Submitting a WAR/JAR file to a static analysis tool to auto-create APIs based on business logic
B. Importing APIs using Swagger/OpenAPI definitions stored on .json. .yml and .yaml files
C. Creating Kubernetes services resources that will automatically create API for each Service resource on API Connect
D. Importing APIs stored in .zip files

QUESTION 7

What approach should be taken to request a policy limit increase for an account?

A. Submit a support case
B. Request via CLI
C. Request via API
D. Adjust account profile settings

QUESTION 8

Which of the following components is used for Sysdig agent installation in an IBM Cloud Kubernetes Service cluster?

A. DaemonSet
B. Object mapping using labels
C. Pod with Spec Monitor agent
D. Sidecar to the Pod

QUESTION 9

For a DevOps team, one of the most important capabilities is Continuous Feedback. On a team using IBM Garage
method, what Continuous Feedback technique can be used to collect user feedback on new features developed by the
team?

A. A / B test can be used to deploy two different versions of a feature in production and monitor how users interact with them
B. A continuous deployment tool can be used to alternate the application version in the production environment and monitor their usage by users
C. A design thinking session can be used to define the personas and collect their feeling about new features developed
D. Blue / Green deployment can be used to deploy two different versions of the application at the same time and collect data on how users are using them

QUESTION 10

An enterprise in the auto manufacturing industry manages applications that run across multiple data centers, network
zones, and scattered environments.

The server Admin team is looking to have a single dashboard to seamlessly and
consistently deploy applications running across multiple clouds and manage it all through that single dashboard. Which IBM Cloud Pak is recommended for this requirement?

A. Cloud Pak for Data
B. Cloud Pak Multicloud Manager
C. Cloud Pak for Watson
D. Cloud Pak for Applications

QUESTION 11

Which two of the following are benefits of a Content Delivery Network (CDN)?

A. Connects high-speed direct links between your account and theirs to provide reliable low latency connections
B. Mitigates distributed denial of service (DDoS) attacks, man-in-the-middle attacks, and other common attacks on websites
C. Copies websites to a central location to deliver fast responses to improve customer satisfaction
D. Provides infrastructure and bandwidth in planned remote locations at a predefined hourly rate
E. Decreases impacts to website performance by reducing the effects of spikes or surges in demand

QUESTION 12

Does an e-commerce mobile application need to understand individual user\\’s interactions to define a personalized product recommendation Which of the following configuration can help the application to collect necessary data?

A. Enable the IBM Watson Analytics for MobileFirst settings to true in the application descriptor file
B. Integrate the mobile application with IBM Analytics Engine
C. Enable LogMetrics in IBM MobileFirst Platform on IBM cloud portal
D. Initialize the MobileFirst Analytics SDK and enable the capture of lifecycle and network analytic data

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C1000-091 Q&As

QUESTION 1

When configuring the plug-in for an external share in Business Automation Navigation in a container environment, what should be used in the JAR file path field?

A. An environment variable specifying the location of the share plugin JAR
B. A relative local directory path to the share plugin JAR
C. An absolute local directory path to the share plugin JAR
D. A URL that points to the share plugin JAR

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2

What must an administrator make sure of before a toolkit contributor can successfully communicate with Business
Automation Studio?

A. The Business Automation Studio and the contributor share the same database.
B. Transport Layer Security (TLS) certificates are exchanged between Business Automation Studio and the contributor.
C. The contributor is installed on the same server as Business Automation Studio.
D. The contributor is also a Kubernetes-based service or product.

Correct Answer: B

https://www.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/SSYHZ8_20.0.x/com.ibm.dba.install/op_topics/tsk_basconfig_toolkits.html

QUESTION 3

Which reclaim policy is recommended for enabling manual recovery of data after deletion of a persistent volume claim?

A. Delete
B. Active
C. Retain
D. Recycle

Correct Answer: C

https://kubernetes.io/docs/concepts/storage/persistent-volumes/

QUESTION 4

Which software should be installed before installing any Cloud Pak for the Automation component?

A. User Management Service
B. IBM Installation Manager
C. Kubernetes CLI
D. Ubuntu Linux

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5

Flink jobs ingest and process events before storing results in HDFS. Kafka, and Elasticsearch. If no results appear in
one of those destinations, it is important to be able to investigate how the job was executed by looking at the logs.
Which command can be used to see the logs of the corresponding task managers?

A. oc logs –since=3h -bai-flink ta3kmanagerB. oc get pods
C. oc describe -bai flink t jskmanagerD. tail -t systemOut.log

Correct Answer: A

https://www.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/en/SSYHZ8_20.0.x/com.ibm.dba.bai/topics/tsk_bai_flink_get_job_exec_logs.html

QUESTION 6

Where is the number of replicas defined for IBM Automation Digital Worker, when high availability is required?

A. In the route definitions of the Digital Worker
B. In the worker node configuration
C. In the secret.YAML file for ADW
D. In the Custom Resource (CR) definition

Correct Answer: D

https://www.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/SSYHZ8_20.0.x/com.ibm.dba.managing/op_topics/tsk_adw_prepare_fa
ult_tol.html

QUESTION 7

When troubleshooting Business Automation Studio, information may need to be extracted from the Resource Registry
using a particular REST API.

Which tool can be used to get the output of the REST API?

A. curl
B. git
C. oc get
D. kubect1

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8

Which IBM Cloud Pak for Automation post-configuration task requires an administrator to add a Pool Entry Authorization (PEA) file to the container environment?

A. Configuring External Share for IBM FileNet Content Manager
B. Completing post-deployment tasks for IBM Automation Workstream Services
C. Enabling EMC Elastic Cloud Storage for IBM FileNet Content Manager
D. Completing post-deployment tasks for Operational Decision Manager

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9

Which value must be changed if several Digital Worker installations are connecting to a single User Management
Service instance?

A. adwUser
B. adwPassword
C. oidcciientld
D. adwPoute

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10

Which command should be used to verify that a user can authenticate to the new cluster?

A. oc connect -u -p
B. oc ssh -u -p
C. oc login
D. oc connect

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11

An administrator must verify the configuration of IBM Business Automation Navigator and IBM Filenet Content Manager users.

Which LDAP configuration section(s) in the operator custom resource template YAML file should the Administrator use
to define LDAP parameters for these types of users?

A. Use the ecm_configuration section for all users (internal and external) of IBM Business Automation Navigator and
IBM Filenet Content Manager.
B. Use the ext_ldap_configuration section for all users (internal and external) of IBM Business Automation Navigator
and IBM Filenet Content Manager.
C. Use the ldap_configuration section for all users (internal and external) of the Cloud Pak components,
D. Use the Idap_configuration section for internal users and the ext_ldap_conf figuration section for external users.

Correct Answer: B

https://www.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/SSYHZ8_19.0.x/com.ibm.dba.ref/k8s_topics/ref_k8s_ldap.html

QUESTION 12

Which component of the Cloud Pak provides a verified container to validate a proper installation and configuration?

A. IBM Business Automation Application Engine
B. IBM Business Automation Content Analyzer
C. IBM FileNet Content Manager
D. IBM Automation Digital Worker

Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1 #

What is the primary purpose of the Developer Portal in IBM API Connect?

A. Secure point of entry for API Developer
B. Revenue generator from data and APIs with plans
C. Community for Application Developers to socialize applications
D. User interface for the API Provider to publish business API assets

Correct Answer: A

Reference https://www.google.com/url? sa=tandrct=jandq=andesrc=sandsource=webandcd=2andcad=rjaanduact=8and
ved=0ahUKEwjrx6Oy4f_VAhXGLI8KHaebAOQQFggsMAEandurl=http%3A%2F%2Fwww.redbooks.ibm.com%2Fredpapers%2Fpdfs%2Fredp5350.pdfandusg=AFQjCNG7wMhS_kYiZz4Tgn2q-PG8ziA4Aw

QUESTION 2

What happens to the original Product when it is superseded?

A. Revised
B. Archived
C. Replaced
D. Deprecated

Correct Answer: D

Reference https://www.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/en/SSMNED_5.0.0/
com.ibm.apic.apionprem.doc/task_superseding_a_product.html

QUESTION 3

What is the purpose of the ACL model in LoopBack?

A. Connects principals to protected resources
B. Performs token-based authentication and access control
C. Contains metadata for a client application that has its own identity
D. Registers and authenticates users of an application locally or against third-party services

Correct Answer: A

Reference https://loopback.io/doc/en/lb3/Using-built-in-models.html#acl-model

QUESTION 4

The Management server stores the Product and API configuration information, and logically the Developer Portal is a
view onto this data.
What is the push mechanism that ensures published Products become visible within a few seconds?

A. Webhooks
B. Loopbacks
C. Background sync
D. Asynchronous calls

Correct Answer: B

Reference https://www.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/en/SSMNED_5.0.0/
com.ibm.apic.apionprem.doc/publishing_a_product.html

QUESTION 5

What must be selected in API Properties to protect user passwords?

A. ID
B. Index
C. Encode
D. Default

Correct Answer: C

Reference https://www.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/en/SSMNED_5.0.0/com.ibm.apic.toolkit.doc/
task_set_config_properties.html

QUESTION 6

If a Micro Gateway is being used, what is a possible reason for the following error message?
Error Message: Service test-gw started but did not initialize within the timeout period. Dumping log buffer.

A. An API that uses HTTP cannot be used.
B. An API that uses HTTPS cannot be used.
C. An API that uses both HTTP and HTTPS can be used.
D. An API that uses both HTTP and HTTPS cannot be used.

Correct Answer: D

Reference https://www.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/en/SSFS6T/com.ibm.apic.toolkit.doc/
task_apionprem_creating_apis.html
(see note)

QUESTION 7

What will happen to changes a customer makes directly on an APIM domain on an IBM DataPower Gateway server
when the customer upgrades the API Management server?

A. The DataPower Gateway server will need to be removed and re-added for changes to be unaffected.
B. Upgrading the Management server has no direct effect on an APIM domain on DataPower Gateway servers.
C. The DataPower Gateway server will save the configuration and auto recover once the API Connect server has been
upgraded.
D. Changes the customer makes on the DataPower Gateway server under the APIM domain will be overwritten and will
need to be re-configured.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8

The apic create – -type api command can create APIs from which two of the following sources? (Select two.)

A. UDDI
B. WSDL
C. AMQP
D. Template
E. Datasource

Correct Answer: BE

Reference https://www.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/en/SSMNED_5.0.0/com.ibm.apic.toolkit.doc/ capim-toolkit-clicreate-apis.html

QUESTION 9

When using IBM API Connect built-in policies in Bluemix, what should users be aware of?

A. Only Micro Gateway policies apply
B. Only DataPower Gateway policies apply
C. Only those policies that generate security tokens apply
D. Only those policies that do not generate security tokens apply

Correct Answer: C

Reference https://www.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/en/SSMNED_5.0.0/com.ibm.apic.toolkit.doc/
rapim_ref_ootb_policies.html

QUESTION 10

Where is the API Gateway extension uploaded in the IBM API Connect Cloud?

A. API Manager
B. Developer Portal
C. Collective Controller
D. Cloud Management Console

Correct Answer: D

Reference https://www.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/en/SSMNED_5.0.0/com.ibm.apic.cmc.doc/
config_dp_ext.html

QUESTION 11

Which interactive analytics graph would show a developer a summary of the number of successful calls to APIs used by
an application through Developer Portal?

A. Latency graph
B. Data usage graph
C. Data points graph
D. Success rate graph

Correct Answer: D

Reference https://www.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/en/SSFS6T/com.ibm.apic.devportal.doc/
tapim_portal_analytics.html

QUESTION 12

OAuth 2.0 provider APIs can support multiple OAuth flows, each of which corresponds to an OAuth grant type.
What are two valid OAuth flows and the corresponding OAuth grant types? (Select two.)

A. username, password
B. Client ID, Client secret
C. authorization URL, auth token
D. Application, Client Credentials
E. Access Code, Authorization Code

Correct Answer: DE

Reference https://www.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/en/SSFS6T/com.ibm.apic.toolkit.doc/
tapim_sec_api_config_scheme_oauth_endpoint.html

QUESTION 13

An administrator wants to back up the IBM API Connect configuration and user data, and store the file on an FTP server by using the command config save apiconfig ftp at the Command Line Interface.
The configuration information from which of the following components will be backed up?

A. Analytics and Gateway Servers
B. Cloud Manager and API Manager
C. Cloud Manager, API Manager and Analytics
D. Cloud Manager, API Manager, Analytics and Developer Portal

Correct Answer: B

Reference https://www.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/en/SSMNED_5.0.0/com.ibm.apic.overview.doc/
overview_backupcli_apimgmt.html

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