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Get the latest questions for the Microsoft MB2-716 exam for free

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Individuals wishing to obtain a certification on Microsoft Dynamics 365 Customization and Configuration should take this exam.

On February 4, 2020, MB2-716 change

See below changes as of February 4, 2020…

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This exam retires on June 30, 2020. A replacement exam may be available. 

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Latest Updated Microsoft MB2-716 Questions & Answers

QUESTION 1
Which three statements regarding form design or behavior for the mobile or tablet application are true? Each correct
answer presents a complete solution.
A. The form selector is available.
B. The first five tabs will display.
C. Activities can be modified.
D. Tabs do not have the expand and collapse capability.
E. If business rules are changed while the mobile app is open, the app must be closed and reopened for those changes
to apply.
Correct Answer: BDE
References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dn531159.aspx

QUESTION 2
You need to configure Microsoft OneNote integration for an organization\\’s Microsoft Dynamics 365 case entity. Which
two components should you enable? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Microsoft Office 365 groups
B. document management for the entity
C. Interactive Service Hub
D. server-based Microsoft SharePoint integration
E. Microsoft OneDrive integration
Correct Answer: BD
References: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics/crm-customer-center/set-up-onenote-integration-indynamics-365.aspx

QUESTION 3
You are implementing a new business process.
The system must send a notification to the manager 24 hours after an opportunity is created based on the date of the
next best action.
Which type of workflow should you implement?
A. synchronous workflow
B. asynchronous workflow
C. Microsoft Dynamics 365 dialogs
D. business process flow (BPF)
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
You add a lookup for contacts to the case form.
You need to display the most recent primary phone number for a contact on the case form while minimizing
administrative effort.
What should you do?
A. Use a workflow to copy the phone number to a new field on the case when the contact changes.
B. Use a quick view form to display the phone number.
C. Use a web resource to query and display the phone number.
D. Use field mapping during record creation to copy the phone number to a new field on the case.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
You need to add the status reason Duplicate to the status value Cancelled for the case entity. What should you do?
A. Add the value to the Cancelled list of the Status field.
B. Add the value to the Cancelled list of the Status Reason field.
C. Using status reason transitions, add the value to the Cancelled status.
D. Using status reason transitions, add the value to the Cancelled status reason.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which two chart types can you combine with another chart type? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. line
B. pie
C. column
D. funnel
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 7
Which three statements regarding actions are true? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Actions can be invoked from a custom client application that uses Microsoft Dynamics 365.
B. Actions can be invoked from JavaScript within the application.
C. Actions must always be associated with a specified entity.
D. Actions require some coding to enable invocation from a workflow or dialog.
E. You can invoke actions from a workflow or dialog without writing code.
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 8
You plan to delete a custom entity from an unmanaged solution. Which of the following statements is true?
A. You must delete the solution that contains the entity.
B. You can only delete the entity from managed solutions.
C. You must delete all records related to the entity from the database.
D. You must remove any dependencies with other objects.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
You need to ensure that users can save private documents in Microsoft OneDrive for Business folders from within
Microsoft Dynamics 365. Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Set the Manage User Synchronization Filters option to Origination for the Security Role.
B. Configure server-based integration for Microsoft Dynamics 365 and Microsoft SharePoint Online.
C. Install and activate the Microsoft SharePoint List Component.
D. Ensure that users have Microsoft OneDrive for Business and SharePoint licenses.
Correct Answer: BD
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/admin/enable-onedrive-for-business

QUESTION 10
You create a new custom entity and add it to the sitemap.
System administrators can see the custom entity. Users report that they cannot see the custom entity.
You need to ensure that users can see the custom entity.
What should you do?
A. Publish the sitemap.
B. Publish the custom entity.
C. Wait for changes to the security roles to take effect.
D. Grant appropriate security roles access to the custom entity.
Correct Answer: D
References: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics/crm-customer-center/create-a-new-entity.aspx

QUESTION 11
You plan to create a field for an entity to capture data in a consistent format.
When a user adds a record for the entity, the choices provided to the user for the field often change or become
outdated.
The choices must not be available for new records.
You need to create the field while minimizing the administrative overhead to maintain the field.
Which field type should you use?
A. global option set
B. single line of text
C. local option set
D. lookup
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
You add a new entity named Parts to Microsoft Dynamics 365.
You need to grant all users that have the Salesperson security role read access to the Parts entity.
Which tab of the Security Role page should you use?
A. Business Management
B. Missing Entities
C. Custom Entities
D. Customization
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
You need to create a business rule for the account entity that runs both client and server side. Which business rule
scope should you use?
A. All forms
B. Account
C. Account for Interactive Experience
D. Entity
Correct Answer: D

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[Dec.-2017-New] Best Ways to Prepare Helpful Microsoft MCSA 70-764 Dumps Exam Actual Questions Administering a SQL Database Infrastructure

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2017 Microsoft 70-764 Dumps (All 119 Q&As) From Pass4itsure:

QUESTION NO: 58
You are serving as a consultant for a golf course in your city. The owners of the course are concerned about the clickthrough rate of their Google sponsored link ad. You tell the clients that their ad is actually performing well based on the clickthrough rate.Which of the following statements, according to Google, is an indicator that an ad group is performing very well?
A. A CTR over one percent on Google is very good.
B. A CTR over two percent on Google is very good.
C. A CTR over ten percent on Google is very good.
D. A CTR over fifty percent on Google is very good.
70-764 exam Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 59
When a Google AdWords user targets a language for his business, there are three choices as part of the targeting. Which of the following is NOT a language targeting choice in Google AdWords?
A. Single language
B. Domain origination
C. Multiple languages
D. Combine with location targeting
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 60
All Google AdWords are reviewed for the content and compliance with Google policy. If an advertiser creates an advertisement that is deemed to be adult in nature, which one of the following statements would not apply to the advertiser?
A. Adult ads won’t appear for search queries that aren’t considered adult in nature, even if the query is used as a keyword in the campaign.
B. Google does not accept adult ads.
C. Adult ads won’t appear for search queries that aren’t considered adult in nature, even if the query is used as a keyword in the campaign.
D. Non-family and adult ads won’t appear on some sites and products in the Google Network that choose to accept only family safe ads.
70-764 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 61
What tool must you use to create a rich media ad format?
A. Display Ad Builder
B. Google Tools
C. Google Pack
D. Campaign builder
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 62
Ned has created a website that includes a pop-up window for new visitors when they visit his site. The pop-up window offers 25 percent off a purchase for one day only. Will Google AdWords have a problem with Ned’s site?
A. Yes, because Google AdWords prohibits pop-up windows for visitors to websites.
B. No, as long as Ned’s site isn’t selling anything against Google’s content policy.
C. No, because the pop-up window offers a discount to Ned’s website visitors.
D. Yes, because the pop-up window offers a coupon that’s good for one day only.
70-764 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 63
Nancy is reviewed her billing summary for her Google AdWords account. There is a line item in the billing summary titled ‘Adjustment – Click Quality’. What does this line item mean?
A. Nancy has been credited for clicks on her ad that were deemed invalid clicks.
B. Nancy has been credited for clicks on her ad that took longer than five seconds to resolve.
C. Nancy has been credited for clicks on her, for Google incurred cost overruns for displaying her ad beyond her given budget.
D. Nancy has been credited for clicks on her ad that didn’t take visitors to her domain.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 64
You are a consultant for a wedding photographer, and you’re helping her with her Google AdWords account. The photographer doesn’t understand why her ad for the Google Network hasn’t started generating traffic yet. You explain that the ad has just been created, and that there are three qualifications for the ad to go live. Which of the following is NOT one of the three qualifications for an ad to go live on the Google Network?
A. The ad must meet the partner requirements.
B. The ad must be opted into the Google Network.
C. The ad must be reviewed and approved.
D. The ad must be prepaid for thirty days.
70-764 vce Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 65
Which of the following statements is true about CPM ads in the Google Content Network?
A. CPM ads always occupy the entire ad space on a web page in the Google Content Network.
B. CPM ads require text only in the Google Content Network.
C. CPM ads are not allowed in the Google Content Network.
D. CPM ads require prepayment to participate in the Google Content Network.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 66
Terri has created a website for her web design business. Through her SEO efforts and good web content, her site has reached the top position in Google’s organic search results for certain keywords. On her site, she has added the phrase ‘Recommended by Google’ in the header. She does not, however, use this phrase in her Google AdWords ads. Is this a problem according to Google AdWords policies?
A. No, Terri’s site is recommended by Google as she’s on the top, in search results on certain keywords.
B. No, Terri can add this info to her site as long as she doesn’t put this phrase in her Google AdWords advertisements.
C. Yes, Google doesn’t allow ads or sites to add such language that may mislead readers to believe her site is directly affiliated with Google.
D. Yes, Terri must add this phrase to her Google AdWords advertisements too.
70-764 exam Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 67
Eddy is managing his company’s AdWords along with Jon and Fred, using Google AdWords Editor. Jon wants to know how many accounts can be edited at once, since he’s many accounts to edit. What should Eddy tell Jon?
A. The AdWords Editor allows you to edit up to five accounts at once.
B. The AdWords Editor allows you to edit up to five accounts at once if you synch with the Google AdWords My Client Center.
C. The AdWords Editor allows you to edit only one account at a time.
D. The AdWords Editor allows you to edit up to 100 accounts at once.
Answer: C
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[Jul.-2017-New] Latest Current Exam Details For Microsoft 70-742 Dumps Identity with Windows Server 2016 Real Exam On Youtube Study

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Exam Code: 70-742 
Exam Name: Identity with Windows Server 2016
Updated: Jul 07, 2017
Q&As: 49

The study guide helps you master all the topics on the MCSA 70-742 dumps for Windows Server 2016, including:

  • Installing and configuring Active Directory Domain Services, including domain controllers, users, computers, groups, and OUs
  • Managing and maintaining Active Directory Domain Services, including configuration of service authentication and account policies, and challenges of complex enterprise environments
  • Creating and managing Group Policy: objects, processing, setting, and preferences
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70-742

2017 Microsoft 70-742 Dumps (All 49 Q&As) From Pass4itsure:  

QUESTION NO: 1
In a Cortex-A9 processor, when the Memory Management Unit (MMU) is disabled, which of the
following statements is TRUE? (VA is the virtual address and PA is the physical address)
A. VA == PA; No address translations; instructions and data are not cached
B. VA! = PA; No address translations; instructions may be cached but not data
C. VA == PA; Address translations take place; data may be cached but not instructions
D. VA == PA; No address translations; instructions may be cached but not data
70-742 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 2
In the Generic Interrupt Controller (GIC), when an interrupt is requested, but is not yet being
handled, it is in which of the following states?
A. Inactive
B. Active
C. Pending
D. Edge-triggered
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 3
A simple system comprises of the following memory map:
Flash – 0x0 to 0x7FFF
RAM – 0x10000 to 0X17FFF
When conforming to the ABI, which of the following is a suitable initial value for the stack pointer?
A. Top address of RAM (0x18000)
B. Top address of flash (0x8000)
C. Bottom address of RAM (0x10000)
D. Bottom address of flash (0x0000)
70-742 exam Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 4
A program running on a development board that is connected to a host using a debugger can
access a file on the host by using:
A. Memory mapping
B. Semihosting
C. Polling
D. Virtual I/O
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 5
In which type of storage will the compiler preferentially place frequently accessed variables?
A. Stack
B. Heap
C. Registers
D. Hard disk
70-742 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 6
What view in a debugger displays the order in which functions were called?
A. The Call Stack view
B. The Memory view
C. The Registers view
D. The Variables view
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 7
Printf statements could be used to achieve which of the following debug tasks?
A. Observe changes to a local variable in a function
B. Capture a real-time trace of program execution
C. Debug boot code, before a call to the C main() function
D. Stop the processor at an interesting location in the code
70-742 vce Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 8
When the processor is executing in Thumb state, which of the following statements is correct
about the values stored in R15?
A. Bits[31:16] are duplicated with bits[15:0]
B. The PC value is stored in bits[31:1] and bit[0] is treated as zero
C. The PC value is stored in bits[31:16] and bits[15:0] are undefined
D. The PC value is stored in bits[15:0] and bits[31:16] are undefined
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 9
A standard performance benchmark is being run on a single core ARM v7-A processor. The
performance results reported are significantly lower than expected. Which of the following options
is a possible explanation?
A. L1 Caches and branch prediction are disabled
B. The Embedded Trace Macrocell (ETM) is disabled
C. The Memory Management Unit (MMU) is enabled
D. The Snoop Control Unit (SCU) is disabled
70-742 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 10
When setting the initial location of the stack pointer and the base address of the heap, the ARM
EABI requires that the:
A. Base address of the heap must be the same as the initial stack pointer.
B. Stack pointer must be 8-byte aligned.
C. Heap must be in external RAM.
D. Initial stack pointer must be the lowest addressable memory location.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 11
In an ARMv7-A processor, which control register is used to enable the Memory Management Unit
(MMU)?
A. The ACTLR
B. The SCTLR
C. The TTBCR
D. The CONTEXTIDR
70-742 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 12
A simple method of measuring the performance of an application is to record the execution time
using the clock on the wall or a wristwatch.
When is this method INAPPROPRIATE?
A. When executing the software using a simulation model
B. When the processor is a Cortex-R4
C. When instruction tracing is enabled
D. When the processor is not executing instructions from cache
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 13
Consider the following code sequence, executing on a processor which implements ARM
Architecture v7-A.
LDR r0, [r1]
STR r0, [r2]
STR r3, [r3]
R1 points to a location in normal memory. R2 and R3 point to device memory.
Which of the following statements best describes the ordering rules which apply to this sequence?
A. The two writes to device memory will happen in program order, but the read can be performed
out of order
B. The memory accesses can happen in any order
C. The memory accesses will happen in program order
D. The read to r0 and the write from r0 will happen in program order, but the write from r3 can be
performed out of order
70-742 exam Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 14
When using the default ARM tool-chain libraries for bare-metal applications. I/O functionality is
rerouted and handled by a connected debugger. This is often referred to as semihosting. Which
one of the following explanations BEST describes how this feature can be implemented by a
debugger?
A. The library directly sends I/O requests to the debugger using the JTAG connection
B. While the target is running, the debugger processes I/O requests from a shared queue in
memory
C. The I/O library calls rely on an Ethernet connection to redirect the requests to the debugger
D. The I/O library calls generate an exception that is trapped and handled by the debugger
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 15
The Cortex-A9 processor implements a feature called “small loop mode” which reduces power
consumption when executing small loops by turning off instruction cache accesses. Which of the
following statements describes a condition that must be satisfied for this mode to be enabled?
A. The loop must fit into two cache lines
B. The loop must only contain forward branches
C. Only integer arithmetic can be used
D. All variables must be held in registers
70-742 vce Answer: A

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