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2020 Accurate & the latest study guide for the Microsoft Azure Fundamentals AZ-900 exam

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NEW Exam AZ-900: Microsoft Azure Fundamentals

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Try to understand every small bullet in the subject area and try to do as many exercises as possible (using Azure Portal, Powershell, CLI).
Microsoft Learn.
Create your own personal project on Github, and then check other people’s Azure projects.
Read Microsoft’s official exam study guide.
Take a practical exam and read the Pass4itsure dumps
Review Udemy and Pluralsight courses.

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Microsoft AZ-900 exam practice test questions(1-13 free)

QUESTION 1
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Your company plans to migrate all its data and resources to Azure.
The company\\’s migration plan states that only platform as a service (PaaS) solutions must be used in Azure.
You need to deploy an Azure environment that supports the planned migration.
Solution: You create an Azure App Service and Azure Storage accounts.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Your company plans to migrate all on-premises data to Azure. You need to identify whether Azure complies with the
company\\’s regional requirements. What should you use?
A. the Knowledge Center
B. Azure Marketplace
C. the Azure portal
D. the Trust Center
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
HOTSPOT
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure AZ-900 exam questions-q3

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure AZ-900 exam questions-q3-2

QUESTION 4
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
An Azure region contains one or more data centers that are connected by using a low-latency network.
Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the
statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed
B. Is found in each country where Microsoft has a subsidiary office
C. Can be found in every country in Europe and the Americas only
D. Contains one or more data centers that are connect by using a high-latency network
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
HOTSPOT
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure AZ-900 exam questions-q5

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure AZ-900 exam questions-q5-2

QUESTION 6
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct
selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure AZ-900 exam questions-q6

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure AZ-900 exam questions-q6-2

QUESTION 7
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
Resource groups provide organizations with the ability to manage the compliance of Azure resources across multiple
subscriptions.
Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the
statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed
B. Management groups
C. Azure policies
D. Azure App Service plans
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct
selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure AZ-900 exam questions-q8

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure AZ-900 exam questions-q8-2

QUESTION 9
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct
selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure AZ-900 exam questions-q9

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure AZ-900 exam questions-q9-2

QUESTION 10
Your company hosts an accounting named App1 that is used by all the customers of the company.
App1 has low usage during the first three weeks of each month and very high usage during the last week of each
month.
Which benefit of Azure Cloud Services supports cost management for this type of usage pattern?
A. high availability
B. high latency
C. elasticity
D. load balancing
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
You create a resource group named RG1 in Azure Resource Manager.
You need to prevent the deletion of the resources in RG1.
Which setting should you use? To answer, select the appropriate setting in the answer area.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure AZ-900 exam questions-q11

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure AZ-900 exam questions-q11-2

QUESTION 12
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
Your company implements Azure policies to automatically add a watermark to Microsoft Word documents that contain
credit card information.
Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the
statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed.
B. DDoS protection
C. Azure Information Protection
D. Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) Identity Protection
Correct Answer: C
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/information-protection/infoprotect-quick-start-tutorial

QUESTION 13
Your company plans to move several servers to Azure.
The company\\’s compliance policy states that a server named FinServer must be on a separate network segment.
You are evaluating which Azure services can be used to meet the compliance policy requirements.
Which Azure solution should you recommend?
A. a resource group for FinServer and another resource group for all the other servers
B. a virtual network for FinServer and another virtual network for all the other servers
C. a VPN for FinServer and a virtual network gateway for each other server
D. one resource group for all the servers and a resource lock for FinServer
Correct Answer: B
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-network/virtual-network-vnet-plan-design-arm

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Exam Code: 070-463
Exam Name: Implementing a Data Warehouse with Microsoft SQL Server 2012
Updated: Aug 07, 2017
Q&As: 230

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1.You have an MSSQL database that you need to add to your environment.
Which three items do you need to know before backups can be configured? (Choose
three.)
A. the version of MSSQL being used
B. the kind of authentication being used
C. the directories in which the database files are located
D. he backup retentions needed by the DBA
070-463 exam Answer: A, B, D
2.You are currently assigned to conduct a NetBackup assessment for a Storage Area
Network environment. The system administrator wants to know how to verify that
the Fibre Channel switches are supported by VERITAS.
Which two tasks can be done to determine if VERITAS supports the switches?
(Choose two.)
A. review the SNIA Certification List
B. review the Compatibility Matrix Guide
C. review the Media Manager Device Configuration Guide
D. ask the system administrator which types of switches they are using
Answer: A, B
3.In preparation for a master server upgrade, you want to launch a backup of the
NetBackup catalog. Which two methods accomplish this? (Choose two.)
A. in the GUI, right-click your configured catalog backup policy, and select “Manual
Backup”
B. in the GUI, right-click on “Catalog” and select “Backup NetBackup Catalog ”
C. from the command line, run “bpbackup” with appropriate switches
D. from the command line, run “bpbackupdb” with appropriate switches
070-463 dumps Answer: B, D
4.Which three methods can be used to ensure that your NetBackup catalog has been
backed up? (Choose three.)
A. in the GUI, right-click on “Catalog” and select “Configure NetBackup Catalog
Backup”
B. individually run “bprecover -1” against your catalog images (tape or disk)
C. in the GUI, right-click on “Catalog” and select “Verify NetBackup Catalog
Recoverability”
D. in the GUI, check the “Activity Monitor” for catalog backup results
Answer: A, B, D
5.You need to add a number of Windows servers from another department to your
NetBackup Windows 2003 master server. The system administrator for these

systems has given you a Domain Administrator account and permission to install
the client, but he will not be available to help you He has not given you access to the
computer room where the systems are physically located.
What is the supported method for installing the client?
A. A share the installation CD on the network, log into the systems through a “Remote
Terminal” session, map the CD and run setup.exe
B. from the Administration client on the master server, select all the remote clients in
“Host Properties”, right-click and select “Client Install”
C. log in to any system on the domain as the domain administrator, run Launch.exe on
the install CD and installation to network clients
D.remote installation is not allowed;the system administrator will have to give you
physical access to the new clients
070-463 pdf Answer: C
6.Your company has a single master/media server. You have just updated the
NetBackup master server with the latest patch. Now all the hot Oracle database
backups fail.
What should you do?
A. patch Oracle Agents on all Oracle clients
B. reboot the master server after installing the patch
C. install the latest Oracle Agents patch on the master server
D. reboot the Oracle clients after installing the patch on the master server
Answer: B
7.Which two statements are true about installing multiple media servers? (Choose
two.)
A. A server license key must be installed on each media server
B. All media server installations must be pushed from the master server
C. All media server installations should be performed as root/administrator
D. All media server installations can be pushed from a media server with the same OS
070-463 vce Answer: A, C
8.Which two steps are required during the initial installation of a NetBackup master
server? (Choose two.)
A. create volume pools
B. define storage units
C. setup policy schedules
D. enter the server license
E. specify the NetBackup server type
Answer: D, E

9.Which directory path on the client can the client’s patch level be determined?
A. <Install_path>\ Volmgr\Bin\Patch
B. <Install_path>\Patch
C. <Install_path>\ Volmgr\Bin\Version
D. <Install_path>\ Version
070-463 exam Answer: B
10.Which two statements are true about a media server upgrade installation from
version 4.5 to version 5.0? (Choose two.)
A. All clients must be on 50 if their media server is on 50
B. All master and media servers must be on NetBackup 5.0
C. The media servers must be on 4.5 or 50 if the clients are on 4.5
D. The master server can be upgraded to 5.0, and media servers can remain at4.5
Answer: C, D
11.What is required for Shared Storage Option installation?
A. Fibre Channel connections for all tape devices to be shared
B. a robot SCSI connection to all participating NetBackup media servers
C. 1-gigabit Ethernet communication between all participating NetBackup servers
D. A SSO license key on the NetBackup master server and on all participating
NetBackup media servers
070-463 dumps Answer: D
12.Which two methods determine the patch level of a client? (Choose two.)
A. Run the support script in the goodies directory on the master server
B. Select Help > About from the backup, Archive, and Restore interface on the client
C. Select Help > About from the NetBackup Administration Console on the media server
D. Select Help > About from the NetBackup Administration Console on the master
server
Answer: A, B
13.A moderately used database server must be configured as a NetBack up client. The
database application is custom built and is not covered by a NetBackup database agent.
Backups must be performed quickly and open files need to be backed up. In addition,
the ability to restore individual files from backup is required.
Which of the following backup methods would best fit this scenario?
A. Copy-on-write snapshot
B. Mirror snapshot

C. Flash backup
D. True Image Restore enabled backup
070-463 pdf Answer: C
14.The master server host properties option “Free Browse” in the “General” tab will
allow .
A. accounts without local Administrator privileges on the master server to view
NetBackup configuration settings
B. any NetBackup client to view NetBackup configuration settings
C. designated NetBackup clients to view images from scheduled backups
D. the NetBackup master server to browse remote file systems when creating a file list
for a policy
Answer: C
15.Which three conditions must be met for Synthetic backups? (Choose three.)
A.The policy type must be configured as “Standard” or “Ms_windows-NT”
B.The policy must have “Collect true image restore information” and “with move
detection” selected
C.The master server, media server and clients involved must be running NetBackup version
3.4 or higher
D.The schedule created for the synthetic backup must have the “Synthetic Backup” option
selected
070-463 vce Answer: A, B, D

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Exam Code: 70-461
Exam Name: Querying Microsoft SQL Server 2012
Updated: Aug 23, 2017
Q&As: 164

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2017 Microsoft 070-461 Dumps (All 164 Q&As) From Pass4itsure:

1. Q1 In economic theory, which of the following statements best describes what is available and what is
wanted? (2 marks)
A. Time and motion
B. Supply and demand
C. Research and development
D. Input and output
070-461 exam Answer: B
2. Q2 Which of the following relationships best describes a small change in demand as a result of a large
change in price? (2 marks)
A. Inelastic
B. Explicit
C. Implicit
D. Elastic
Answer: A
3. Q3 Which of the following best describes the pricing policy known as ‘promotional pricing’ ?(2 marks)
A. A high price aimed at quick recovery of costs
B. A price in line with that being charged by competitors
C. A temporary price reduction to increase sales in the short term
D. A low price set to gain a large share of the market.
070-461 dumps Answer: C
4. Q4 Which of the following is the most likely consequence of government decreasing interest rates? (2
marks)
A. People spend more
B. People spend less
C. The economy slows down
D. The cost of borrowing goes up
Answer: A
5. Q5 Which of the following best defines the economic term ‘budget surplus’?(2 marks)
A. Government expenditure equalling government revenue
B. Government revenues creating government expenditure
C. Government expenditure exceeding government revenue
D. Government revenue exceeding government expenditure
070-461 pdf Answer: D
6. Q6 Which of the following best describes the ‘4Ps’ of marketin (2 marks)
A. Promotion, Performance, Price, Place
B. Product, Price, Promotion, Place
C. Price, Placement, Product, Place
D. Performance, Product, Planning, Production
Answer: B
7. Q7 Which of the following describes people leaving one job and moving to another?(2 marks)
A. Structural unemployment
B. Frictional unemployment
C. Migrational unemployment
D. Cyclical unemployment
070-461 vce Answer: D
8. Q8 Which of the following best defines the term ‘monetary policy’? (2 marks)
A. The control of taxation
B. The control over the amount of money in circulation and the cost of borrowing
C. The control of numbers of people unemployed compared to those employed D.
The control of wealth distribution
Answer: B
9. Q9 Which of the following best defines the term ‘equilibrium price’?(2 marks)

A. The price at which the level of demand in a market exceeds the level of supply
B. The price at which all commodities are of equal value in a market
C. The price at which the level of supply in a market exceeds the level of demand
D. The price at which the level of supply in a market matches the level of demand.
070-461 exam Answer: D
10. Q10 Which of the following is a category of economic system? (2 marks)
A. Thriving economy
B. Balanced economy
C. Planned economy
D. Declining economy
Answer: C
11. Q1 Which of the following statements is correct about the relationship between supply and
demand? (2 marks)
A. When the price of a product is high, the quantity demanded will be high and the quantity supplied will
be low
B. When the price of a product is low, the quantity demanded will be low and the quantity supplied will be
high
C. When the price of a product is high, the quantity demanded will be low and suppliers will be more
willing to supply products
D. When the price of a product is low, the quantity demanded will be high and suppliers will be less willing
to supply products.
070-461 dumps Answer: C
12. Q2 Which of the following best defines the term ‘Exchange rate’?(2 marks)
A. The amount of business transacted between one country and another during a year
B. The speed with which a company receives payment for goods or services sold
C. The extent of barter transactions in a particular country
D. The value of one country??Oscurrency measured against that of another.

Answer: D
13. Q3. Which of the following types of unemployment describes people leaving one job and moving to
another? (2 marks)
A. Cyclical B.
Frictional C.
Moving
D. Structural
070-461 pdf Answer: A
14. Q4 Which of the following headings would appear in the current account of a country’s alance
of payments? (2 marks)
A. Transactions in goods and services
B. Transactions in external assets and liabilities
C. Transactions in large sums of money
D. Transactions in stocks and shares
Answer: A
15. Q5 Which of the following best describes the pricing policy known as ‘penetation’ pricing? (2 marks)
A. A price in line with that being charged by competitors
B. A high price aimed at a quick recovery of costs
C. A low price set to gain a large share of the market
D. A temporary price reduction to increase sales in the short-term
070-461 vce Answer: C
16. Q6 ‘Fiscal’ poicy is government policy controlling which of the following? (2 marks)
A. Inflation
B. Unemployment
C. Taxation
D. Wages

Answer: C
17. Q7 Which of the following best describes the economic term ‘budget deficit’? (2 marks)
A. Government revenues exceeding government expenditure
B. Government expenditure equalling government revenue C.
Government revenues creating government expenditure D.
Government expenditure exceeding government revenue
070-461 exam Answer: D
18. Q8 Which of the following promotional methods can be described as ‘below the line’?(2 marks)
A. Radio commercials
B. Sales leaflets and brochures
C. Internet banners
D. Cinema advertising
Answer: B
19. Q9 A ‘balance of payments’ is the record of which of the following during a year? (2 marks)
A. A country’s moneary import and export transactions
B. Exchange rate movements
C. All payments made by a government department
D. All revenue from taxes received by a government
070-461 dumps Answer: A
20. Q10 A PEST analysis is conducted on which of the following environments of a company? (2
marks)
A. External
B. Internal
C. Historical
D. Political
Answer: A
21. Which two are characterics of synchronous data replication? (Choose two.)
A. More cost effective
B. Increased data protection
C. Acknowledgement of data
D. Supports longer distances
070-461 pdf Answer: BC
22. What are the default read and write community strings for the McDATA Eclipse SAN Router? (Choose
two.)
A. public
B. Modify
C. private
D. password
E. Password
Answer:AC
23. What type of optics are supported on the Eclipse 2640 SAN Router?
A. ST
B. SC
C. XFP
D. SFP-LC
070-461 vce Answer: D
24. Which management interface allows you to create a single uploadable, modifiable configuration file?
A. SNMP
B. Element Manager
C. SANvergence Manager
D. Command Line Interface
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 70-347
Exam Name: Enabling Office 365 Services
Updated: Sep 03, 2017
Q&As: 219

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  • Manage clients and end-user devices (20–25%)
  • Provision SharePoint Online site collections (20–25%)
  • Configure Exchange Online and Lync Online for end users (25–30%)
  • Plan for Exchange Online and Lync Online (25–30%)

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4.HOTSPOT
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. You manage an on-premises Microsoft Exchange Server 2003 environment that has 500 users and an externally-hosted Exchange environment that has 500 users. The hosted Exchange environment does not allow Outlook Anywhere connectivity. You do not have administrative access to all mailboxes in the hosted environment. You plan to migrate and consolidate both environments into Office 365. You have the following 070-347 exam migration requirements:
– Migrate on-premises mailboxes in batches by department.
– Migrate email, calendar, and contact items from the on-premises environment.
– Migrate only email from the hosted environment.
In the table below, identify the migration type that must be used for each environment. Make only one selection in each column. Each correct selection is worth one point.
070-347 dumps

5.HOTSPOT
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company’s Microsoft Exchange Online environment. The company recently subscribed to the Office 365 Enterprise El plan. The company wants to filter email messages based on the following criteria:
– Reverse DNS lookup
– Sender open proxy test
– HELO/EHLO analysis
– Analysis of spam confidence level (SCL) ratings on email messages from a specific sender You need to filter all email messages. How should you complete the relevant Windows PowerShell script? To answer, select the appropriate command segment from each list in the answer area.

070-347 dumps

070-347 dumps

6.Your company is planning to migrate to Microsoft Exchange Online. The company employs 5,000 people, each with a mailbox currently located on Exchange Server 2000. The company has the following migration requirements:
– Move mailboxes in batches.
– Do not migrate calendar or contact items.
– Provide migration status reports to administrators.
You need to select the appropriate migration strategy.
Which migration strategy should you use?
A. Staged migration
B. Cutover migration
C. IMAP migration
D. Hybrid migration
Answer: C
7.You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. The company has established the following new 70-347 dumps requirements:
– Members of the legal team must be able to conduct eDiscovery searches.
– Employees must be notified when they send email messages that contain confidential information.You need to configure the environment. Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Configure journaling to a Microsoft Exchange Online mailbox for all mailboxes.
B. Add the members of the legal team to the Discovery Management role group.

C. Create a Data Loss Prevention policy.
D. Place all executive mailboxes on In-Place Hold for 365 days and use In-Place eDiscovery for mailbox
searches.
E. Enable Microsoft Exchange Online Archiving for the executive mailboxes.
F. Place all executive mailboxes on Retention Hold.
Answer: B, C

8. Which WebLogic technology is defined in a cluster as an “exactly-once” service?
A. RMI
B. JMS
C. JNDI
D. EJBs
E. Servlets
Answer: B
9. You want your application to pass control to another resource. Which tag can you use to accomplish
this?
A. jsp:plugin B.
jsp:forward C.
jsp:include D.
jsp:useBean
E. jsp:fallback
070-347 pdf Answer: B
10. To manipulate XML-defined data in an application, which tool is directly supported by Workshop?
A. JAX-B
B. Castor
C. XMLBeans
D. None of these
E. DOM/SAX-based parsing
Answer: C
11. Web application contains a logout servlet. The servlet should call which method? (Assume that out is the output stream to the browser and session is the HttpSession .)
A. out.clear()
B. out.flush()

C. session.flush()
D. session.clear()
E. session.invalidate()
070-347 vce Answer: E
12. Within a portal project, where are user-properties sets stored?
A. None of these
B. In the Web project
C. In a Schema project
D. In a Datasync project
E. In the Web user interface project
Answer: D
13. You want your application to pass control to another resource and then return control to the calling JSP. Which tag can you use?
A. jsp:plugin B.
jsp:include C.
jsp:forward
D. jsp:useBean
E. jsp:fallback
070-347 exam Answer: B
14. When Workshop generates a Session Bean, it creates a template for which method?
A. ejbFind()
B. None of these
C. ejbCreate()
D. onMessage()
E. setMessageContext()
Answer: C

15. On a WebLogic system, you successfully deployed an application that uses a conversational Web
service. You ported it to another WebLogic system, on which the application fails. There appears to be a race condition. What is most likely cause of the problem?
A. The application was not re-built.
B. The application was incorrectly deployed.
C. Parts of the application were not ported to the new system.
D. Temporary and supporting files specific to the original system were ported to the new system
E. WebLogic Workshop must perform invocations on conversational Web services serially, and the
<ejb-concurrency-strategy> has not been set appropriately for the persistent store.
70-347 dumps Answer: E
16. Which statement correctly compares a Parallel node to Event Choice node?
A. More than one branch of a Parallel node can be executed; this is not true of an Event Choice node.
B. If the Parallel node specifies an OR join condition, there is no difference between the two node types.
C. If the Parallel node specifies an AND join condition, there is no difference between the two node types.
D. If the Event Choice node specifies an OR join condition, there is no difference between the two node types.
E. A Parallel Node must have exactly two branches; an Event Choice node can have an unlimited number
of branches.
Answer: A
17. Which of these is a direct result of starting a server in Production mode?
A. Multi-processor platforms are supported.
B. Users must be authenticated before deploying applications.
C. Only users in the Administration Group can access the server.
D. Applications CANNOT be deployed in exploded directory format.
E. The administration server can be part of a WebLogic Server cluster.
070-347 pdf Answer: B

18.It has come to your attention that some host on the web has tried to do some reconnaissance on your network and send a VRFY command to try and steal user names. What type of attack was used against your network?
A. SMTP attack
B. Web browser attack
C. IMAP attack
D. IP Spoofing E.
Account scan
Answer: A
19.What technology is being employed to resist SYN floods by having each side of the connection attempt create its own sequence number (This sequence number contains a synopsis of the connection so that if/when the connection attempt is finalized the fist part of the attempt can be re-created from the sequence number)?
A. SYN cookie
B. SYN floodgate
C. SYN gate
D. SYN damn
E. SYN flood break
070-347 exam Answer: A
20.The main reason you have been hired at a company is to bring the network security of the
organization up to current standards. A high priority is to have a full security audit of the network
as soon as possible. You have chosen an Independent Audit and are describing it to your coworkers.
Which of the following best describes an Independent Audit?
A. An independent audit is usually conducted by external or outside resources and may be a review or audit of detailed audit logs.
B. The independent audit is usually done by the current network administrators who ensure the security measures are up to international standards.
C. The independent audit is typically done by an internal team who ensures the security measures are up to international standards.
D. The independent audit is usually done by internal resources to examine the current daily and on-going activities within a network system for compliance with an established security policy.
E. The independent audit is typically done by a contracted outside team of security experts who check for policy compliance.
Answer: A
21.The main reason you have been hired at a company is to bring the network security of the
 organization up to current standards. A high priority is to have a full security audit of the network as soon as possible. You have chosen an Operational Audit and are describing it to your coworkers. Which of the following best describes an 70-347 dumps Operational audit?
A. This type of audit is typically done by a contracted external team of security experts who check for policy compliance.
B. This type of audit is usually done by internal resources to examine the current daily and on-going activities within a network
system for compliance with an established security policy.
C. This type of audit is typically done by an internal team who ensures the security measures are up to international standards.
D. This type of audit is usually done by the current network administrators who ensure the security measures are up to international standards.
E. This type of audit is usually conducted by external resources and may be a review or audit of detailed audit logs.
Answer: B

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Free | Offer real Microsoft 70-464 exam dumps for 100% passing 70-464 exam

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Today, Microsoft testing is very important, which is why the Microsoft 70-464 exam must pass.So how to pass quickly? You need help from pass4itsure Microsoft experts!https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-464.html (Updated: Feb 07, 2020 Q&As: 209 )The latest 70-464 exam dumps, the most comprehensive 70-464 questions.This blog post provides some free 70-464 exam dumps shared.

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Regarding Exam 70-464 Developing Microsoft SQL Server Databases update you can the course material and learning resources from here:

  1. Implement database objects (30–35%)
  2. Implement programming objects (15-20%)
  3. Design database objects (25–30%)
  4. Optimize and troubleshoot queries (25–30%)

https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-70-464.aspx

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Free Practice test for the exam Microsoft MCSE 70-464

QUESTION 1
DRAG DROP
You use the following statement to create a table.

Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-464 exam questions q1

You have the following queries.

Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-464 exam questions q1-2

You need to create an index to minimize the execution time of the queries.
How should you complete the statement? To answer, drag the appropriate code elements to the correct locations. Each
code element may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or
scroll to view content.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-464 exam questions q1-3

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-464 exam questions q1-4

Box 1: LastName Redesign nonclustered indexes with a large index key size so that only columns used for searching
and lookups are key columns. Make all other columns that cover the query into nonkey columns. In this way, you will
have all columns needed to cover the query, but the index key itself is small and efficient.
Box 2: FirstName
Box 3: DepartmentID Non-key columns, called included columns, can be added to the leaf level of a nonclustered index
to improve query performance by covering the query. That is, all columns referenced in the query are included in the
index as either key or non-key columns. This allows the query optimizer to locate all the required information from an
index scan; the table or clustered index data is not accessed.
Box 4: OfficeID

QUESTION 2
You are designing two stored procedures named Procedure1 and Procedure2. You identify the following requirements:
Procedure1 must take a parameter that ensures that multiple rows of data can pass into the stored procedure. Procedure2 must use business logic that resides in a Microsoft .NET Framework assembly.
You need to identify the appropriate technology for each stored procedure.
Which technologies should you identify?
To answer, drag the appropriate technology to the correct stored procedure in the answer area. (Answer choices may
be used once, more than once, or not at all.)
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-464 exam questions q2

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-464 exam questions q2-2

http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms131102.aspx http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb522446.aspx
http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb510489.aspx

QUESTION 3
You are a SQL Server 2014 Developer. A database that you work on contains two tables that are defined as follows:

Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-464 exam questions q3

Product is an important table that has sensitive audit requirements. You need to create a trigger that supports the
following requirements:
1.Every row that is inserted or updated in Product will reflect its actual LastUpdat edDate and LastUpdatedBy values in the Product table.
2.Any row that is updated or deleted must write a new record reflecting the OLD values into the ProductAudit table.
3.Any error that occurs during the course of the trigger\\’s execution must prevent the changes from happening.
Develop the solution by selecting and arranging the required code blocks in the correct order.
You may not need all of the code blocks.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-464 exam questions q3-2

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-464 exam questions q3-3

Note:
* Executing a ROLLBACK TRANSACTION or COMMIT TRANSACTION Transact-SQL statement inside a stored
procedure or trigger is possible, but doing so may cause errors.

QUESTION 4
You need to ensure that usp_AddXMLOrder can be used to validate the XML input from the retailers.
Which parameters should you add to usp_AddXMLOrder on line 04 and line 05? (Each correct answer presents part of
the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. @schema varbinary(100).
B. @items varchar(max).
C. @schema sysname.
D. @items varbinary(max).
E. @items xml.
F. @schema xml.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 5
You have a Microsoft SQL Azure database named DBAzure1.
You create a table in DBAzure1 by using the following script:

Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-464 exam questions q5

You need to recommend a solution to ensure that each combination of CustomerContact and CustomerDetails is not
duplicated. What should you recommend creating?
A. A CHECK constraint
B. A filtered index
C. A columnstore index
D. A UNIQUE constraint
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
You plan to create a database that has multiple tables. The tables will contain product information. Each product has a
stock-keeping unit (SKU).
You need to recommend a solution to ensure that each SKU starts with the letters “ADV” and is followed by 10 digits.
The solution must minimize the amount of development effort required.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. A FOREIGN KEY constraint
B. A trigger
C. A user-defined data type
D. A CHECK constraint
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
You need to implement a solution that addresses the bulk insert requirements. What should you add to line 08 in
usp_ImportOrderDetails?
A. LASTROW=0.
B. BATCHSIZE=0.
C. BATCHSIZE=1000.
D. LASTROW = 1000.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
You need to modify the function in CountryFromID.sql to ensure that the country name is returned instead of the country
ID. Which line of code should you modify in CountryFromID.sql?
A. 04
B. 05
C. 06
D. 19
Correct Answer: D
http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms186755.aspx http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms191320.aspx

QUESTION 9
You are planning two stored procedures named SProc1 and SProc2. You identify the following requirements:
SProc1 must return a table.
SProc2 must return a scalar value.
You need to identify which option must be implemented for each stored procedure to return the desired data.
Which options should you identify?
To answer, drag the appropriate option to the correct requirement in the answer area. (Answer choices may be used
once, more than once, or not at all.)
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-464 exam questions q9-1

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-464 exam questions q9-2

Note:
*
a table (a set of rows) can be returned through a SELECT statement *a scalar can be returned through an output
parameter.
*
incorrect: TVP is used for input not output.

QUESTION 10
You need to create a function that will use a SELECT statement in ProductsByProductType.sql. Which code segment
should you use to complete the function?

Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-464 exam questions q10

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: B
http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms191320.aspx http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms186755.aspx

QUESTION 11
You have a SQL Azure database.
You execute the following code:

Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-464 exam questions q11

The Sales.Customers table will contain 100,000 rows. You expect the FaxNumber column to contain a null value for 70
percent of the rows. You need to create an index to support Sales.CustomersByFaxNumber. The solution must
minimize the disk storage requirements.
Which code segment should you execute?
A. CREATE INDEX IX_Customers ON Customers (FaxNumber) WHERE FaxNumber IS NOT NULL
B. CREATE INDEX IX_Customers ON Customers (FaxNumber) WITH FILLFACTOR=0
C. CREATE INDEX IX_Customers ON Customers (CustomerName) INCLUDE (FaxNumber)
D. CREATE INDEX IX_Customers ON Customers (FaxNumber)
E. CREATE INDEX IX_Customers ON Customers (FaxNumber) WHERE FaxNumber IS NULL
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
You need to create a function that filters invoices by CustomerID. The SELECT statement for the function is contained
in InvoicesByCustomer.sql. Which code segment should you use to complete the function?

Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-464 exam questions q12

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
You run the following code:

Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-464 exam questions q13

You need to ensure that the root node of the XML data stored in the Details column is .
What should you implement?
More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. A user-defined data type
B. An XML index
C. A Data Definition Language (DDL) trigger
D. A Data Manipulation Language (DML) trigger
E. An XML schema collection
Correct Answer: E
http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms187856.aspx

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[Apr.-2018-New] Latest Release Microsoft 70-346 Dumps Microsoft Office 365 Exam Test Video Training 268Q&As 15-35

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QUESTION 15
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. You prepare to install Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS). You need to open the correct port between the AD FS proxy server and the AD FS federation server. Which port should you open?
A. TCP 80
B. TCP 135
C. TCP 389
D. TCP 443
E. TCP 636
F. TCP 1723
70-346 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
Contoso uses Office 365 for collaboration services. You implement single sign-on (SSO) with Office 365 by using Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS). You need to implement Windows Azure multi-factor authentication. Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. On the AD FS federation server, run PhoneFactorAgentSetup.exe.
B. On the AD FS Federation server, run WindowsAzureSDK-x64.exe.
C. On the AD FS Federation server, run the Windows PowerShell cmdlet Register- AdfsAuthenticationProvider.
D. On the AD FS Federation server, run FsConfigWizard.exe.
E. Run the Active Directory Domains and Trusts MMC snap-in. Register Windows Azure Multi-Factor Authentication Server as an additional authentication provider.
F. Run the Windows Azure Multi-Factor Authentication Server Authentication Configuration Wizard.
Correct Answer: BCF

QUESTION 17
An organization with an Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain migrates to Office 365. You need to manage Office 365 from a domain-joined Windows Server 2012 Core server. Which three components should you install? Each answer presents part of the solution.
A. Azure Active Directory module for Windows PowerShell
B. Microsoft .NET Framework 3.5
C. Microsoft Office 365 Integration Module for Windows Small Business Server 2011 Essentials
D. Microsoft .NET Framework 4.0
E. Microsoft Online Services Sign-in Assistant
F. Rights Management module for Windows PowerShell
70-346 dumps Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 18
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. You must use Windows PowerShell to manage cloud identities in Office 365. You must use a computer that runs Windows 8 to perform the management tasks. You need to ensure that the Windows 8 computer has the necessary software installed. What should you install first?
A. Microsoft Office 365 Best Practices Analyzer for Windows PowerShell
B. Windows PowerShell 4.0
C. Remote Server Administration Tools for Windows
D. Microsoft Online Services Sign-in Assistant
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 19
Your company has an Office 365 subscription. The network contains an Active Directory domain. You configure single sign-on for all users. You need to verify that single sign-on functions for the users who access Office 365 from the Internet. What should you run?
A. the Get-MSOLFederationProperty cmdlet
B. the Test-OrganizationRelationship cmdlet
C. the Microsoft Remote Connectivity Analyzer
D. the Microsoft Exchange Server Deployment Assistant
70-346 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details provided in the question apply only to that question. A company has an Office 365 tenant that has an Enterprise E1 subscription. You synchronize disabled user accounts from an Active Directory Domain Services environment. You need to enable the user accounts in Office 365. Which Windows PowerShell cmdlet should you run?
A. Set-MsolUser
B. Redo-MsolProvisionUser
C. Set-MsolUserLicense
D. Set-MsolUserPrincipalName
E. Convert-MsolFederatedUser
F. Set-MailUser
G. Set-LinkedUser
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. Employees do not have local administrative privileges on client computers. The company has the following client computer software: Windows 7 and Windows 8 32-bit and 64-bit Office 2007, Office 2010, and Office 2013. When accessing the corporate Microsoft SharePoint 2010 site, some users are unable to display SharePoint lists in the Datasheet view. You need to ensure that all users can display SharePoint lists in the Datasheet view. What should you do?
A. Upgrade to the latest version of Office 365 ProPlus.
B. Force a reinstallation of Office by using Group Policy and specifying a network location.
C. Uninstall the 64-bit version of Office and then install the 32-bit version of Office.
D. Upgrade all Office 2007 and Office 2010 versions to Office 2013.
70-346 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
You have an Office 365 subscription.
Several users report that they fail to connect to Microsoft Skype for Business Online by using the Skype for Business 2016 client. You verify that you can connect to Skype for Business Online successfully from your computer. You need to identify what prevents the users from connecting to Skype for Business Online. Solution: You use the Microsoft Remote Connectivity Analyzer. Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23
Your company uses Office 365. You need to prevent users from initiating remote wipes of mobile devices by using the Office 365 portal. What should you modify?
A. the Outlook Web App mailbox policy
B. the Exchange ActiveSync device policy
C. the default role assignment policy
D. the Exchange ActiveSync Access settings
70-346 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 24
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. You have a server that runs Windows Server 2012. You plan to install an Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) web app proxy server. You need to install and configure the required roles.
What role should you install and configure?
A. Web Server (IIS)
B. Network Policy and Access Service
C. Application Server
D. Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS)
E. Remote Access
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 25
A company deploys an Office 365 tenant. You need to enable multi-factor authentication for Office 365. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
70-346 dumps
70-346 dumps Correct Answer:
70-346 dumps
QUESTION 26
An organization prepares to migrate to Office 365. The organization has one domain controller named NYC-DC1 and one server named NYC-DS that is designated as the directory synchronization computer. The organization has the following servers:
70-346 dumps
You plan to upgrade the servers to support directory synchronization. You must upgrade each server to meet only the minimum requirements by using the least amount of administrative effort. You need to ensure that you can use the Windows Azure Active Directory Sync tool to synchronize the local Active Directory with Office 365. What should you do? Select the correct action from each list in the answer area.
Hot Area:
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QUESTION 27
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. User1 leaves the company. You must delete the account for User1. In the table below, identify when each type of data will be deleted. Make only one selection in each column. Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:
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QUESTION 28
A company is deploying an Office 365 tenant. You need to deploy a Windows Server 2012 R2 federation server farm. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
70-346 dumps
70-346 pdf Correct Answer:
70-346 dumps

QUESTION 29
You are the Office 365 administrator for Contoso, Ltd. User1 is unable to sign in. You need to change the password for User1 and ensure that the user is prompted to reset her password the next time she signs in.
How should you complete the relevant Windows PowerShell command? To answer, drag the appropriate Windows PowerShell segments to the correct location or locations. Each Windows PowerShell segment may be used once, more than
once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:
70-346 dumps

QUESTION 30
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. You audit the Windows Azure Active Directory Rights Management configuration for the company. You need to view a log of the recent administrative commands performed against the Microsoft Rights Management Service. Which three Windows PowerShell cmdlets should you run in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate cmdlets from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
70-346 dumps
70-346 vce Correct Answer:
70-346 dumps

QUESTION 31
Fabrikam has the Office 365 Enterprise E3 plan. You must add the domain name fabrikam.com to the Office 365 tenant. You need to confirm ownership of the domain. Which DNS record types should you use? To answer, drag the appropriate DNS record type to the correct location or locations in the answer area. Each DNS record type may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:
70-346 dumps
Correct Answer:
70-346 dumps
QUESTION 32
A company plans to use Office 365 to provide email services to employees. The company obtains a custom domain name to use with Office 365. You need to add the domain name to Office 365. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
70-346 dumps
70-346 exam Correct Answer:
70-346 dumps

QUESTION 33
Fabrikam Inc. plans to use the domain fabrikam.com for Office 365 user identities, email addresses. Session Initiation Protocol (SIP) addresses, and a public-facing home page. Single sign-on (SSO) between Office 365 and the on-premises Active Directory is NOT required. You need to configure the Office 365 plan. Which four Windows PowerShell cmdlets should you run in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
70-346 dumps
Correct Answer:
70-346 dumps

QUESTION 34
OverView
Fabrikam, inc is a financial services organization. Fabrikam recently purchased another financial services organization named Contoso, Ltd. Fabrikam has 2000 users. Contoso has 500 users. Windows 10 and office 2016 are deployed to all computers.
Physical Location:
Fabrikam has an office in the United States. Contoso has an office in the United Kingdom. The offices connect to each other by using a WAN link. Each office also connects directly to the internet.
Existing Environment:
Active Directory:
The network Fabrikam contains an Active Directory forest. The Active Directory environment of Contoso was migrated to the Active Directory forest of Fabrikam. The forest contains three domains named fabrikam.com,contractor.fabrikam.com, and contoso.com. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2008 R2. All contractors outsourced by fabrikam use the user principal name (UPN) suffix of contractor.fabrikam.com. If fabrikam hires the contractor as a permanenet employee, the UPN suffix changes to fabrikam.com. Network
The network has the following configurations:
* External IP address for the United States office: 192.168.1.100
* External IP address for the United Kingdom office: 192.168.2.100
* Internal IP address range for the United States office: 10.0.1.0/24
* Internal IP address range for the United Kingdom office : 10.0.2.0/24
Active Directory Federation Services (ADFS)
AD FS and web Application Proxies are deployed to support an app for the sales department. The app is accessed from the Microsoft Azure Portal.
Office 365 Tenant
You have an Office 365 subscription that has the following configurations:
* Organization name: Fabrikam Financial Services.
* Vanity domain: Fabrikamfinancialservices.onmicrosoft.com
* Microsoft SharePoint domain: Fabrikamfinancialservices .sharepoint.com
* Additional domain added to the subscription: Contoso.com and fabrikam.com
Requirements:
Planned Changes:
* Deploy Azure AD connect.
* Move mailboxes from Microsoft Exchange 2016 to Exchange Online.
* Deploy Azure multi-factor authentication for devices that connect from untrusted networks only.
* Customize the AD FS sign-in webpage to include the Fabrikam logo, a helpdesk phone number, and a sign=in description.
* Once all of the Fabrikam users are replicated to Azure Active Directory (Azure AD), assign an E3 license to all of the users in the United States office.
Technical Requirements:
Contoso identifies the following technical requirements:
* When a device connects from an untrusted network to, ensure that users must type a verification code generated from a mobile app.
* Ensure that all users can access office 365 services from a web browser by using either a UPN or their primary SMTP email address.
* After Azure AD connect is deployed, change the UPN suffix if all the users in the Contoso sales department to fabrikam.com.
* Ensure that administrator are notified when the health information of Exchange Online changes.
* User Office 365 reports to review previous tasks performed in Office 365.
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the sonic scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals. You need to configure the Office 365 subscription 1o ensure that Active Directory users on conned to Office 365 resources by using single sign-on (SSO). Solution: You run Convert-MsolFederatedUser for all users. Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 35
OverView
Fabrikam, inc is a financial services organization.
Fabrikam recently purchased another financial services organization named Contoso, Ltd. Fabrikam has 2000 users. Contoso has 500 users. Windows 10 and office 2016 are deployed to all computers.
Physical Location:
Fabrikam has an office in the United States. Contoso has an office in the United Kingdom. The offices connect to each other by using a WAN link. Each office also connects directly to the internet.
Existing Environment:
Active Directory:
The network Fabrikam contains an Active Directory forest. The Active Directory environment of Contoso was migrated to the Active Directory forest of Fabrikam. The forest contains three domains named fabrikam.com,contractor.fabrikam.com, and contoso.com. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2008 R2. All contractors outsourced by fabrikam use the user principal name (UPN) suffix of contractor.fabrikam.com. If fabrikam hires the contractor as a permanenet employee, the UPN suffix changes to fabrikam.com.
Network
The network has the following configurations:
* External IP address for the United States office: 192.168.1.100
* External IP address for the United Kingdom office: 192.168.2.100
* Internal IP address range for the United States office: 10.0.1.0/24
* Internal IP address range for the United Kingdom office : 10.0.2.0/24
Active Directory Federation Services (ADFS)
AD FS and web Application Proxies are deployed to support an app for the sales department. The app is accessed from the Microsoft Azure Portal. Office 365 Tenant
You have an Office 365 subscription that has the following configurations:
* Organization name: Fabrikam Financial Services.
* Vanity domain: Fabrikamfinancialservices.onmicrosoft.com
* Microsoft SharePoint domain: Fabrikamfinancialservices .sharepoint.com
* Additional domain added to the subscription: Contoso.com and fabrikam.com
70-346 dumps Requirements:
Planned Changes:
* Deploy Azure AD connect.
* Move mailboxes from Microsoft Exchange 2016 to Exchange Online.
* Deploy Azure multi-factor authentication for devices that connect from untrusted networks only.
* Customize the AD FS sign-in webpage to include the Fabrikam logo, a helpdesk phone number, and a sign=in description.
* Once all of the Fabrikam users are replicated to Azure Active Directory (Azure AD), assign an E3 license to all of the users in the United States office.
Technical Requirements:
Contoso identifies the following technical requirements:
* When a device connects from an untrusted network to https://outlook.office.com, ensure that users must type a verification code generated from a mobile app.
* Ensure that all users can access office 365 services from a web browser by using either a UPN or their primary SMTP email address.
* After Azure AD connect is deployed, change the UPN suffix if all the users in the Contoso sales department to fabrikam.com.
* Ensure that administrator are notified when the health information of Exchange Online changes.
* User Office 365 reports to review previous tasks performed in Office 365.
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
You need to identify which report must be used to view previous tasks performed in Office 365. Which type of report should you use for each task? To answer, drag the appropriate reports to the correct tasks. Each report may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view
content.
Select and Place:
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[Dec.-2017-New] Best Ways to Prepare Helpful Microsoft MCSA 70-764 Dumps Exam Actual Questions Administering a SQL Database Infrastructure

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QUESTION NO: 58
You are serving as a consultant for a golf course in your city. The owners of the course are concerned about the clickthrough rate of their Google sponsored link ad. You tell the clients that their ad is actually performing well based on the clickthrough rate.Which of the following statements, according to Google, is an indicator that an ad group is performing very well?
A. A CTR over one percent on Google is very good.
B. A CTR over two percent on Google is very good.
C. A CTR over ten percent on Google is very good.
D. A CTR over fifty percent on Google is very good.
70-764 exam Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 59
When a Google AdWords user targets a language for his business, there are three choices as part of the targeting. Which of the following is NOT a language targeting choice in Google AdWords?
A. Single language
B. Domain origination
C. Multiple languages
D. Combine with location targeting
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 60
All Google AdWords are reviewed for the content and compliance with Google policy. If an advertiser creates an advertisement that is deemed to be adult in nature, which one of the following statements would not apply to the advertiser?
A. Adult ads won’t appear for search queries that aren’t considered adult in nature, even if the query is used as a keyword in the campaign.
B. Google does not accept adult ads.
C. Adult ads won’t appear for search queries that aren’t considered adult in nature, even if the query is used as a keyword in the campaign.
D. Non-family and adult ads won’t appear on some sites and products in the Google Network that choose to accept only family safe ads.
70-764 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 61
What tool must you use to create a rich media ad format?
A. Display Ad Builder
B. Google Tools
C. Google Pack
D. Campaign builder
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 62
Ned has created a website that includes a pop-up window for new visitors when they visit his site. The pop-up window offers 25 percent off a purchase for one day only. Will Google AdWords have a problem with Ned’s site?
A. Yes, because Google AdWords prohibits pop-up windows for visitors to websites.
B. No, as long as Ned’s site isn’t selling anything against Google’s content policy.
C. No, because the pop-up window offers a discount to Ned’s website visitors.
D. Yes, because the pop-up window offers a coupon that’s good for one day only.
70-764 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 63
Nancy is reviewed her billing summary for her Google AdWords account. There is a line item in the billing summary titled ‘Adjustment – Click Quality’. What does this line item mean?
A. Nancy has been credited for clicks on her ad that were deemed invalid clicks.
B. Nancy has been credited for clicks on her ad that took longer than five seconds to resolve.
C. Nancy has been credited for clicks on her, for Google incurred cost overruns for displaying her ad beyond her given budget.
D. Nancy has been credited for clicks on her ad that didn’t take visitors to her domain.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 64
You are a consultant for a wedding photographer, and you’re helping her with her Google AdWords account. The photographer doesn’t understand why her ad for the Google Network hasn’t started generating traffic yet. You explain that the ad has just been created, and that there are three qualifications for the ad to go live. Which of the following is NOT one of the three qualifications for an ad to go live on the Google Network?
A. The ad must meet the partner requirements.
B. The ad must be opted into the Google Network.
C. The ad must be reviewed and approved.
D. The ad must be prepaid for thirty days.
70-764 vce Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 65
Which of the following statements is true about CPM ads in the Google Content Network?
A. CPM ads always occupy the entire ad space on a web page in the Google Content Network.
B. CPM ads require text only in the Google Content Network.
C. CPM ads are not allowed in the Google Content Network.
D. CPM ads require prepayment to participate in the Google Content Network.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 66
Terri has created a website for her web design business. Through her SEO efforts and good web content, her site has reached the top position in Google’s organic search results for certain keywords. On her site, she has added the phrase ‘Recommended by Google’ in the header. She does not, however, use this phrase in her Google AdWords ads. Is this a problem according to Google AdWords policies?
A. No, Terri’s site is recommended by Google as she’s on the top, in search results on certain keywords.
B. No, Terri can add this info to her site as long as she doesn’t put this phrase in her Google AdWords advertisements.
C. Yes, Google doesn’t allow ads or sites to add such language that may mislead readers to believe her site is directly affiliated with Google.
D. Yes, Terri must add this phrase to her Google AdWords advertisements too.
70-764 exam Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 67
Eddy is managing his company’s AdWords along with Jon and Fred, using Google AdWords Editor. Jon wants to know how many accounts can be edited at once, since he’s many accounts to edit. What should Eddy tell Jon?
A. The AdWords Editor allows you to edit up to five accounts at once.
B. The AdWords Editor allows you to edit up to five accounts at once if you synch with the Google AdWords My Client Center.
C. The AdWords Editor allows you to edit only one account at a time.
D. The AdWords Editor allows you to edit up to 100 accounts at once.
Answer: C
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QUESTION 1
You need a component that can combine form controls together with the possibility to expand and collapse them. Which component should you choose?
A. sub-grid
B. section
C. Quick View form
D. tab
MB2-707 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2
You need to delete a custom Public View from the System View area in Microsoft Dynamics CRM so that the Public View does not appear to any users. Which two preliminary actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Ensure that the view is included in an unmanaged solution.
B. Verity that a different default view is set
C. Verify that all dependencies are removed from the view.
D. Ensure that the view was created by you.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 3
You are configuring user access in Microsoft Dynamics CRM. You need each account to have a unique group of people who have write permissions to the account. What should you do?
A. Have Dynamics CRM automatically create access teams for each record, and manually share the account with the appropriate
B. Create an owner team, and assign the accounts to the owner team.
C. Create an access team template, and add to the account form a sub-grid that references the access team template.
D. Manually create an access team record for each account and assign the account to the access team.
MB2-707 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4
You create a custom entity named Ocean. It has the plural name of Oceans. What are three system views for this custom entity? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. Ocean Lookup View
B. Ocean Advanced Find View
C. Ocean Associated View
D. My inactive Oceans
E. My active Oceans
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 5
A user from the sales team is transitioning into the service department. The user has both Sales Representative and Customer Service Representative security roles. The user\’s default pane and default dashboard need to be set. What should you do?
A. Change the user\’s Business Unit to Customer Service, and then have the user set the default pane and dashboard in the user options.
B. Locate the user\’s desired pane and dashboard in the Default Solution components, and set it as the default.
C. Recommend that the user set the default pane in the user options, open the desired dashboard, and set the dashboard as the default
D. Locate the user\’s desired dashboard, and enable security roles for it. Assign the Sales Representative role to the dashboard.
MB2-707 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6
You need to create a solution file to import into another environment. What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Create a managed solution file by exporting an unmanaged solution as Managed Solution.
B. Create an unmanaged solution file by exporting an unmanaged solution as Unmanaged Solution.
C. Create a managed solution file by exporting a managed solution as Managed Solution.
D. Create an unmanaged solution file by exporting a managed solution as Unmanaged Solution.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 7
A System View\’s email address is truncated. You need to resolve this issue by editing the view. What should you do?
A. Select Configure Columns. In the columns list change Increase the Width of the Email Address field.

B. Remove the Email Address field. Use Add Columns to add the column back to the view. Enter the column width at the prompt,
C. Select the Email Address field. Click and drag the right edge of the column to resize it to the desired width.
D. Select the Email Address field. Click Change Properties, and select a new width for the column.
MB2-707 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
You are creating new custom entities and attributes in Microsoft Dynamics CRM. Which two Data Types support Rollup fields? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Option Set
B. Whole Number
C. Date and Time
D. Lookup
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 9
You are a Microsoft Dynamics CRM consultant for a small business. Your client asks you to create a custom entity named Event Type. This entity needs to support business process flows, notes, document management and offline capability for Dynamics CRM for Outlook. Which two custom entity options in you solution cannot be disabled after they are enabled? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Offline capability for Dynamics CRM for Outlook
B. Document management
C. Notes
D. Business process flows
MB2-707 exam Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 10
You want users to be able to access a custom entity from Microsoft Dynamics CRM for Tablets.Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.
A. Add the entity to at least one SiteMap area.
B. Create a new form to Mobile.

C. Enable the CRM for Tablets check box.
D. In Managed Properties, set New forms can be created to Yes.
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 11
You create a personal dashboard and want to make it available to a group of other Microsoft Dynamics CRM users. What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Share the dashboard with each of the users.
B. Give the users a common security role, and grant the security role permission to the dashboard.
C. Add the dashboard to a solution, and import it as a system dashboard.
D. Save a copy of the dashboard, and assign the dashboard to a team that contains the users.
MB2-707 dumps Correct Answer: AD

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[Nov.-2017-New] 100% Free Microsoft MCTS 70-243 Dumps Study Guide Exam Questions 157Q Released Download With A High Score on Youtube

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Exam Code: 70-243
Exam Name: Administering and Deploying System Center 2012 Configuration Manager
Q&As: 157

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QUESTION 22
Your network contains an Active Directory forest. The forest contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment. The environment contains one primary site.
You need to unsure that the members of a group named Group1 are allowed to deploy applications to desktop computers. The solution must minimize the number of permissions assigned to Group1. What should you do?
A. Assign the Application Administrator security role to Group1. Create a new collection that contains all of the desktop computers. Add Group1 to the local Administrators group on each desktop computer.
B. Add the Application Deployment Manager security role to Group1. Create a new collection that contains all of the desktop computers. Add Group1 to the local Administrators group on each desktop computer.
C. Assign the Application Deployment Manager security role to Group1.Create a new collection that contains all of the desktop computers. Scope Group1 to the new collection.
D. Assign the Application Administrator security role to Group1. Create a new collection that contains all of the desktop computers. Scope Group1 to the new collection.

70-243 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 23
Your network contains a single Active Directory domain. You plan to deploy System Center 2012 Configuration Manager. The hierarchy will have a Central Administration site and five primary sites. You need to ensure that you can target user groups for software distribution. The solution must minimize network traffic. Which Configuration Manager discovery method should you use?
A. Active Directory User Discovery on the primary sites
B. Active Directory User Discovery on the primary sites and Active Directory Group Discovery on every site
C. Active Directory User Discovery on the Central Administration site and Active Directory Group Discovery on the primary sites
D. Active Directory User Discovery and Active Directory Group Discovery on the Central Administration site
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 24
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment. The Configuration Manager databases are located on a remote server that runs Microsoft SQL Server. You need to ensure that you can restore the Central Administration site.
What should you do?
A. From the Configuration Manager console, enable the Backup Site Server maintenance task and set a schedule.
B. From Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio, create a maintenance plan for the site databases.
C. From Task Scheduler, create a scheduled task that runs smssqlbkup.exe.
D. From Windows Server Backup, schedule a full system backup.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 25
Your network contains a single Active Directory forest named contoso.com. Contoso.com contains three System Center 2012 Configuration Manager sites and one System Center Configuration Manager 2007 site. You need to ensure that you can transfer objects from Configuration Manager 2007 to Configuration Manager 2012.
What should you do?
A. Assign the computer account of the Central Administration site server permission to the Configuration Manager 2007 site. Assign the computer account of the Central Administration site server permissions to the Microsoft SQL Server database instance.
B. Extend the Active Directory schema and assign the Central Administration site server permissions to the System\System Management container.
C. Connect the Configuration Manager 2007 primary site as a child primary site of the Configuration Manager 2012 primary site.
D. Connect the Configuration Manager 2012 primary site as a child primary site of the Configuration Manager 2007 primary site.

70-243 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 26
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment. The environment contains a primary site server named Server1 and a server named Server2 that runs Microsoft SQL Server 2008 R2. Server2 contains the Configuration Manager database. Server2 fails. You install SQL Server 2008 R2 on a new server. You name the server Server3. You need to restore the Configuration Manager database to Server3. What should you do?
A. Register the Service Principal Name (SPN) for the SQL Server service account of Server3. From Server1, run the Configuration Manager 2012 Setup Wizard.
B. From Server3, run Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio, and then restore the backed up SQL Server database and log files.
C. From Server3, run Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio, and then attach the backed up SQL Server database and log files.
D. Register the Service Principal Name (SPN) for the SQL Server service account of Server3. From Server1, run the Site Repair Wizard.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 27
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment. The environment contains a single primary site. The primary site has a distribution point and a management point. You need to recommend a communication solution that meets the following requirements: Communication between the client computers in the research department and the management point must use HTTPS. Communication between all of the other client computers and the management point must be able to use HTTP.
Minimize the number of site systems. What should you do?
A. Configure the existing management point to use HTTPS. Configure the research department computers always to um HTTPS.
B. Create a now primary child site and configure the site to use native mode. Assign all of the research department computers to the new site.
C. Install a new management point and configure the management point always to use HTTPS. Configure the research department computers always to use HTTPS.
D. Install a new management point and configure Windows Firewall to block abound TCP port  80. Configure the research department computes always to use HTTPS.
70-243 pdf Correct Answer: C

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Exam Code: 70-480
Exam Name: Programming in HTML5 with JavaScript and CSS3
Q&As: 205

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Question No : 12 – (Topic 1)  You are modifying an existing web page. The page is being optimized for accessibility. The current page contains the following HTML.70-480 dumps
Standards-compliant screen readers must be able to identify the links contained within the
navigation structure automatically.
You need to create the navigation link structure in the page.
With which container tags should you wrap the existing markup?
A. <navmap> </navmap>
B. <div id=”nav”> </div>
C. <nav> </nav>
D. <map> </map>
70-480 exam Answer: C
Reference:
Question No : 13 HOTSPOT – (Topic 1) You are developing an airline reservation website by using HTML5 and JavaScript. A page on the site allows users to enter departure and destination airport information and search for tickets. You have the following requirements: Users must be able to save information in the application about their favorite destination airport. The airport information must be displayed in the destination text box whenever the user returns to the page. You need to develop the site to meet the requirements. Which lines of code should you use? (To answer, select the appropriate options from the drop-down lists in the answer area.) 70-480 dumps

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Answer:
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Question No : 14 HOTSPOT – (Topic 1)  You are developing an HTML5 web application for displaying encyclopedia entries. Each encyclopedia entry has an associated image that is referred to in the entry. You need to display the image by using the correct semantic markup. What should you do? (To answer, select the appropriate options from the drop-down list in the answer area.)70-480 dumps

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70-480 dumps Answer:
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Question No : 15 – (Topic 1) You are creating a JavaScript object that represents a customer. You need to extend the Customer object by adding the GetCommission() method.  You need to ensure that all future instances of the Customer object implement the GetCommission() method. Which code segment should you use? 70-480 dumps

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: D
15.Given the command line java Pass2 and:
15. public class Pass2 {
16. public void main(String [] args) {
17. int x = 6;
18. Pass2 p = new Pass2();
19. p.doStuff(x);
20. System.out.print(” main x = ” + x);
21. }
22.
23. void doStuff(int x) {
24. System.out.print(” doStuff x = ” + x++);
25. }
26. }
What is the result?
A. doStuff x = 6 main x = 6
B. Compilation fails.

C. doStuff x = 6 main x = 7
D. An exception is thrown at runtime.
E. doStuff x = 7 main x = 6
F. doStuff x = 7 main x = 7
Answer: D
16.Given:
13. public static void search(List<String> list) {
14. list.clear();
15. list.add(“b”);
16. list.add(“a”);
17. list.add(“c”);
18. System.out.println(Collections.binarySearch(list, “a”));
19. }
What is the result of calling search with a valid List implementation?
A. 0
B. The result is undefined.
C. a
D. 2
E. 1
F. c G. b
70-480 pdf Answer: B
17.Click the Exhibit button. Given:
ClassA a = new ClassA();
a.methodA();
What is the result?

A. The code runs with no output.
B. Compilation fails.
C. An exception is thrown at runtime.
D. ClassC is displayed.
Answer: C
18.Given:
11. public static void test(String str) {
12. int check = 4;
13. if (check = str.length()) {
14. System.out.print(str.charAt(check -= 1) +”, “);
15. } else {
16. System.out.print(str.charAt(0) + “, “);
17. }
18. }
and the invocation:
21. test(“four”);
22. test(“tee”);
23. test(“to”);
What is the result?
A. An exception is thrown at runtime.
B. r, e, o,
C. Compilation fails.
D. r, t, t,
70-480 vce Answer: C
19.A JavaBeans component has the following field:

11. private boolean enabled;
Which two pairs of method declarations follow the JavaBeans standard for accessing this field?
(Choose two.)
A. public boolean setEnabled( boolean enabled )
public boolean getEnabled()
B. public void setEnabled( boolean enabled )
public void isEnabled()
C. public void setEnabled( boolean enabled )
public boolean getEnabled()
D. public void setEnabled( boolean enabled )
public boolean isEnabled()
Answer: C,D
20.Given:
11. public void genNumbers() {
12. ArrayList numbers = new ArrayList();
13. for (int i=0; i<10; i++) {
14. int value = i * ((int) Math.random());
15. Integer intObj = new Integer(value);
16. numbers.add(intObj);
17. }
18. System.out.println(numbers);
19. }
Which line of code marks the earliest point that an object referenced by intObj becomes a candidate for garbage collection?
A. Line 19
B. The object is NOT a candidate for garbage collection.
C. Line 17
D. Line 16
E. Line 18
70-480 exam Answer: A
21.Given:
11. String test = “This is a test”;
12. String[] tokens = test.split(“\s”);
13. System.out.println(tokens.length);
What is the result?
A. An exception is thrown at runtime.
B. 1
C. 4
D. Compilation fails.
E. 0
Answer: D

22.Given:
12. System.out.format(“Pi is approximately %d.”, Math.PI);
What is the result?
A. An exception is thrown at runtime.
B. Pi is approximately 3.
C. Pi is approximately 3.141593.
D. Compilation fails.
70-480 dumps Answer: A
23.DRAG DROP
Click the Task button.

24.Given:
11. static class A {
12. void process() throws Exception { throw new Exception(); }
13. }
14. static class B extends A {
15. void process() { System.out.println(“B “); }
16. }
17. public static void main(String[] args) {
18. A a = new B();
19. a.process();
20. }
What is the result?
A. Compilation fails because of an error in line 19.
B. An exception is thrown at runtime.
C. B
D. Compilation fails because of an error in line 18.
E. Compilation fails because of an error in line 15.
F. The code runs with no output.
70-480 pdf Answer: A
25.Given:
1. interface A { public void aMethod(); }
2. interface B { public void bMethod(); }
3. interface C extends A,B { public void cMethod(); }

4. class D implements B {
5. public void bMethod(){}
6. }
7. class E extends D implements C {
8. public void aMethod(){}
9. public void bMethod(){}
10. public void cMethod(){}
11. }
What is the result?
A. If you define D e = new E(), then e.bMethod() invokes the version of bMethod() defined in Line 5.
B. If you define D e = (D)(new E()), then e.bMethod() invokes the version of bMethod() defined in Line 5.
C. Compilation fails because of an error in line 9.
D. If you define D e = (D)(new E()), then e.bMethod() invokes the version of bMethod() defined in Line 9.
E. Compilation fails because of an error in line 3.
F. Compilation fails because of an error in line 7.
Answer: D
26.Click the Exhibit button.
What is the output of the program shown in the exhibit?
A. 300-300-100-100-100
B. 300-300-300-100-100
C. 300-300-300-300-100
D. 300-100-100-100-100
70-480 vce Answer: A

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