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[Sept.-2017-New] High Pass Rate Microsoft 70-412 Dumps Exam Certification Video Questions Windows Server 2012 Covers All Key Points

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Are the following exams still alternatives to Microsoft 70-412 dumps? “Configuring Advanced Windows Server 2012 Services” is the name of Microsoft 70-412 exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Microsoft exam. Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-412 dumps exam questions answers are updated (424 Q&As) are verified by experts.

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Exam Code: 70-412
Exam Name: Configuring Advanced Windows Server 2012 Services
Q&As: 424

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2017 Microsoft 70-412 Dumps (All 424 Q&As) From Pass4itsure:

QUESTION 17
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the Active Directory Cer- tificate Services server role installed and is configured as an enterprise certification authority (CA). You need to ensure that all of the users in the domain are issued a certificate that can be used for the following purposes:
Email security
Client authentication
Encrypting File System (EFS)
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution.Choose two.)
A. From a Group Policy, configure the Certificate Services Client Auto-Enrollment settings.
B. From a Group Policy, configure the Certificate Services Client Certificate Enrollment Pol- icy settings.
C. Modify the properties of the User certificate template, and then publish the template.
D. Duplicate the User certificate template, and then publish the template.
E. From a Group Policy, configure the Automatic Certificate Request Settings settings.
70-412 exam 
Correct Answer: AD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The default user template supports all of the requirements EXCEPT auto enroll as shown below:

70-412 dumps

However a duplicated template from users has the ability to autoenroll:
70-412 dumps

The Automatic Certificate Request Settings GPO setting is only available to Computer, not user.
70-412 dumps

QUESTION 18
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server3 that runs 70-412 dumps Windows Server 2012 R2 and has the DHCP Server server role installed. DHCP is configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
70-412 dumps

You need to ensure that only Scope1, Scope3, and Scope5 assign the same DNS servers to DHCP
clients. The solution must minimize administrative effort.
What should you do?
A. Create a superscope and scope-level policies.
B. Configure the Scope Options.
C. Create a superscope and a filter.
D. Configure the Server Options.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Any DHCP scope options can be configured for assignment to DHCP clients, such as DNS server.
Reference: Configuring a DHCP Scope

QUESTION 19
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server
named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and has the DNS Server server role in- stalled.
Server1 has a zone named contoso.com. The zone is configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit
button.)

70-412 dumps

You need to assign a user named User1 permission to add and delete records from the contoso.- com zone only. What should you do first?
A. Enable the Advanced view from DNS Manager.
B. Add User1 to the DnsUpdateProxy group.
C. Run the New Delegation Wizard.
D. Configure the zone to be Active Directory-integrated.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Secure dynamic updates are only supported or configurable for resource records in zones that are stored in Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS).
Note: To modify security for a resource record
1. Open DNS Manager.
2. In the console tree, click the applicable zone.
3. In the details pane, click the record that you want to view.
4. On the Action menu, click Properties.
5. On the Security tab, modify the list of member users or groups that are allowed to securely up- date the
applicable record and reset their permissions as needed.
Reference: 70-412 pdf Modify Security for a Resource Record
QUESTION 20
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and has the DHCP Server server role installed. An administrator installs the IP Address Management (IPAM) Server feature on a server named Server2.The administrator configures IPAM by using Group Policy based provisioning and starts server discovery.
You plan to create Group Policies for IPAM provisioning. You need to identify which Group Policy object (GPO) name prefix must be used for IPAM Group Policies.
What should you do on Server2?
A. From Server Manager, review the IPAM overview.
B. Run the ipamgc.exe tool.
C. From Task Scheduler, review the IPAM tasks.
D. Run the Get-IpamConfiguration cmdlet.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Example:
70-412 dumps

QUESTION: 21
Scenario
Additional Information
During the initiation stage the Project Manager met with the Marketing Director to
find out more about the requirements of the promotional calendar and recorded the
following 70-412 vce notes:
There has been a reduction in the order numbers at the MNO Manufacturing due in
part to the increased marketing activities of its competitors. 10% of customers
have not re-ordered in this financial year and staff morale is poor. A number of
skilled staff have left as a result and replacement staff have not been recruited due
to the reduced operation. If the project is successful, a recruitment campaign will
be required to fill the existing staff vacancies and there may be a requirement for
additional staff. Operational costs are likely to increase because skilled staff are
expensive and difficult to find.
In financial terms, there were a total of 1,500 orders in the last financial year, each
with an average profit of £2k. The Marketing department believes that sending a
promotional calendar to our current and prospective customers would increase
orders by at least 10% with a minimum of 10 further orders from the list of
prospective customers within 12 months from the date of distribution.
The Marketing Director will be funding the project from the business marketing
budget. She believes that the effect of a good company image portrayed by a
successful calendar would last into a second year. She has forecast the same
increase in orders for a second year and predicts that the annual employee
satisfaction survey will show a measurable improvement in staff morale.
A number of alternatives were explored, including:
• 20% discount for all repeat customers – not cost-effective and very short
term
• A promotional calendar as a free Christmas gift – would target current and
prospective customers and the benefits would last into a second year
• A series of television and press advertisements• was too expensive
• A direct mail shot to all customers – benefit would be short term

• Creation of an internet website – would not suit all customers
The calendar is seen as the favored option, as long as the company’s competitors do
not increase their marketing activity. Whilst the 70-412 exam Marketing department wants a very high quality, glossy product, the project management team must be aware of the cost this will incur.
Which 2 statements should be recorded under the Costs heading?
A. The MNO marketing budget this year is £120k.
B. The project will be funded from the business marketing budget
C. 10 further orders with an average profit of £2k will deliver a benefit of £20k in
the first year.
D. The new company logo is estimated to cost £4k.
E. Project costs are estimated to be a total of £26.5k.
Answer: B, E
QUESTION: 22
Scenario
Additional Information
During the initiation stage the Project Manager met with the Marketing Director to
find out more about the requirements of the promotional calendar and recorded the
following notes:
There has been a reduction in the order numbers at the MNO Manufacturing due in
part to the increased marketing activities of its competitors. 10% of customers
have not re-ordered in this financial year and staff morale is poor. A number of
skilled staff have left as a result and replacement staff have not been recruited due
to the reduced operation. If the project is successful, a recruitment campaign will
be required to fill the existing staff vacancies and there may be a 70-412 dumps requirement for
additional staff. Operational costs are likely to increase because skilled staff are
expensive and difficult to find.
In financial terms, there were a total of 1,500 orders in the last financial year, each
with an average profit of £2k. The Marketing department believes that sending a
promotional calendar to our current and prospective customers would increase
orders by at least 10% with a minimum of 10 further orders from the list of
prospective customers within 12 months from the date of distribution.
The Marketing Director will be funding the project from the business marketing
budget. She believes that the effect of a good company image portrayed by a
successful calendar would last into a second year. She has forecast the same
increase in orders for a second year and predicts that the annual employee
satisfaction survey will show a measurable improvement in staff morale.
A number of alternatives were explored, including:
• 20% discount for all repeat customers – not cost-effective and very short
term

• A promotional calendar as a free Christmas gift – would target current and
prospective customers and the benefits would last into a second year
• A series of television and press advertisements• was too expensive
• A direct mail shot to all customers – benefit would be short term
• Creation of an internet website – would not suit all customers
The calendar is seen as the favored option, as long as the company’s competitors do
not increase their marketing activity. Whilst the Marketing department wants a
very high quality, glossy product, the project management team must be aware of
the cost this will incur. Which 2 statements correctly define a Business Case risk which should be recorded under the Major risks heading?
A. Operational costs will increase as a result of the recruitment campaign.
B. The prepared calendar pack is to be delivered to the printers by the first week in
December.
C. If the calendar quality is poor customers will not use it, creating the reverse
effect and reducing orders further.
D. If any competitors launch a calendar at the same time this will reduce the impact
of the MNO calendar and benefits will be reduced.
E. Staff morale will improve as a result of the promotional calendar.
70-412 pdf 
Answer: C, D

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[Sept.-2017-New] Most Important Microsoft MCSE 70-696 Dumps Practice Exam Video Administering System Center Is Your Best Choice

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Exam Code: 70-696
Exam Name: Administering System Center Configuration Manager and Intune
Updated: Sep 21, 2017
Q&As: 86

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QUESTION 5
You need to meet the inventory 70-696 exam requirements.
What should you do? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:
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QUESTION 6
You need to meet the application requirements of App4.
What should you do first?
A. Create a Mobile Device Security Policy.
B. Upload App4 to Windows Intune.
C. Set the Mobile Devices Management Authority.
D. Install the Windows Intune client software.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
You need to identify on which computers the usage of App2 will be metered.
Which computers should you identify? In the 70-696 dumps table below, identify on which computers the usage of App2 will be metered. Make only one selection in each row.
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Correct Answer:
70-696 dumps

QUESTION 8
You manage a deployment of Microsoft System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager.
All client computers have the Configuration Manager client installed.
Users are members of the local Administrators group on their respective computer.
You are preparing the documentation for the support staff to remediate client issues.
You need to identify which issues will be resolved by auto-remediation.
Which three issues should you identify? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. The WMI service was stopped by a user.
B. The WMI service was disabled by a user.

C. The SMS Agent Host service was removed by a user.
D. The Configuration Manager scheduled tasks were deleted by a user.
E. The Configuration Manager scheduled tasks were disabled by a user.
F. The SMS Agent Host service was stopped by a user.
Correct Answer: ABF

QUESTION NO: 9
A customer has a SAS-based storage environment with a SAS domain and some standalone
servers, each with multiple built-in SAS disks. The implementation includes direct routing, table
routing and subtractive routing. What is table routing?
A. routing along multiple parallel connections
B. routing along a physical point-to-point connection
C. routing between devices connected to an edge expander
D. routing between devices connected to different edge expanders
70-696 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 10
You have recently upgraded a tape drive on a older switch to operate at 120MB/s from 80MB/s.
Prior to purchasing the tape drives, you tested server dumps to a disk array across multiple ports
and saw speeds exceeding 150MB/s. With the new tape drive, you have not seen any dump
speed exceed 100MB/s. What is the most likely cause?
A. The new tape drive has logged into the fabric as a storage initiator.
B. The switch only has 1Gb/s ports.
C. You have not yet reset the switch port buffer credits.
D. The tape drive has logged in as an iSCSI device.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 11
You have an existing disk subsystem with 16 drives that provides volumes for six Windows hosts on 2Gb/s links. You decide to add another 16 drive tray to double the number of raw hard drives in order to support five (5) new UNIX servers. The average server throughput is 20 MB/s. The disk subsystem is dual ported and configured active-passive. What is likely to occur?
A. The zone configuration on the fabric will control the traffic flow to the disk subsystem.
B. The added server demand on the disk subsystem will saturate the ports.
C. The disk subsystem will notice the extra servers and go active-active to support the load.
D. The Windows systems will receive precedence as they were registered first on the disk subsystem.
70-696 vce Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 12
You are about to allocate storage to a host that includes adding new paths, devices, and zones to the configuration. What must be done prior to making any changes to the configuration? (Choose two.)
A. create new zones
B. activate change tracking
C. activate the new zone set
D. backup the configuration
E. copy the active zone set
Answer: D,E
QUESTION NO: 13
You are installing a x8 PCI-E HBA into a server and notice that you only have a x16 slot available.
What is the impact of this action?
A. The HBA will negotiate and use x16 lanes.
B. The slot must be reconfigured for x8 support.
C. The HBA cannot be installed into a x16 slot.
D. The slot will negotiate to support the x8 HBA.
70-696 exam Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 14
What concept can reduce the number of ports required for ISLs?
A. zoning
B. locality
C. trunking
D. routing
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 15
Which two (2) processes occur during a fabric merge? (Choose two.)
A. TOV negotiation
B. zone set passing
C. FSPF trunk negotiation
D. name server communication
E. subordinate switch negotiation
70-696 dumps Answer: B,D
QUESTION NO: 16
In a multiple switch fabric, how should the error detection (E_D_TOV) and resource allocation
(R_A_TOV) time out values be set?
A. according to the number of switches in the fabric
B. as a multiple of the number of ports on the switch
C. the same on all N_Ports and switches in the fabric
D. double the values set on the core switch
Answer: C

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[Sept.-2017-New] Up To Date Microsoft 70-488 Dumps Exam Video Questions SharePoint Applications Certification Guaranteed Success

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Exam Code: 70-488
Exam Name: Developing Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013 Core Solutions
Updated: Aug 27, 2017
Q&As: 131

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QUESTION 22
A\Batch 1
You need to automate the backup of a site 70-488 exam collection.
What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Back up to a network folder.
B. Set the LockStatus of the site collection to Adding content prevented
C. Back up to a local folder and then move the backup to a network folder.
D. Use Central Administration to perform the backup.
E. Use Windows PowerShell to perform the backup.
Correct Answer: AD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 23
You need to add code at line UA09 to create the custom role.
How should you complete the relevant code? (To answer, select the appropriate code segment
from each drop-down list in the answer area.)

70-488 dumps

Correct Answer:

70-488 dumps

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 24
You need to add code at line CT11 to create the content types.
How should you complete the 70-488 dumps relevant code? (To answer, drag the appropriate code segments to

the correct location or locations in the answer area. Each code segment may be used once, more
than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view
content.)
Select and Place:
70-488 dumps

Correct Answer:

70-488 dumps

QUESTION 25
You need to create the required site columns.
How should you complete the relevant code? (To answer, select the appropriate code segment
from each drop-down list in the answer area.)

70-488 dumps

Correct Answer:

70-488 dumps

Explanation
QUESTION 26
SIF resolution is
A. 144 lines.
B. 240 lines.
C. 96 lines.
D. 288 lines.
E. 480 lines.
70-488 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 27
Which ISDN service is capable of delivering 56K or 64K Constant Bit Rate circuits?
A. Circuit Switched Data
B. Low Speed Packet Switching
C. High Speed Packet Switching
D. Circuit Switched Video
E. Circuit Switched Voice
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 28
Which of the following correctly describes the purpose of an Acoustic Echo Canceller (AEC)?
A. An AEC reduces the room loudspeaker contribution to the local microphone sent to the far-end.
B. An AEC provides a means to reduce room noise sent to the far-end.
C. An AEC provides compensation for room acoustics to improve microphone sensitivity and gain.
D. An AEC provides a means to reduce room reverberation as heard by the far-end.
E. An AEC provides compensation for room acoustics to better allow the reduction of echo returned to the
far-end.
70-488 vce Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 29
How many “Groups of Blocks” are used to create the Full CIF resolution?
A. 3
B. 12
C. 48
D. 10
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 30
Which H.263 Annex is used to implement 60 / 50 Fields per Second Intra Video -Sync Operation?
A. Annex W
B. Annex F
C. Annex Q
D. Annex P
E. Annex N
70-488 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 31
Select three of the following networks types that are “Full Duplex”.
A. Ethernet Switch interfaces
B. Ethernet BUS cable interfaces
C. ISDN B-Channels
D. One Coaxial Cable
E. S/T Reference point
F. Ethernet HUB interfaces
Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 32
Which of the following most accurately 70-488 dumps defines white balance?
A. A feature that splits the signal between the red, green, and blue components to make white
B. The amount of white pixels that appear in a video frame
C. A feature that adjusts the signal between the red, green, and blue components that yield white video
signals.
D. A feature that eliminates noises distributed uniformly over the frequency spectrum
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 33
Which of the following is the channel used to carry the signaling for H.320 Terminals?
A. Initial Channel
B. Bearer Channel
C. Data Channel
D. Audio Channel
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 34
Which of the following are the Audio and Video Multiplexing, Transport, and Control / Communications
procedures for H.320?
A. H.221 / H.242
B. H.221 / H.241
C. H.224 / H.244
D. H.225 / H.245
70-488 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 35
Which ITU-T Standard describes the MCU or Video Bridge for Audio Visual Terminals?
A. H.241
B. H.231
C. H.242
D. G.711
E. 722
F. H.230
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 36
Digital Access Cross-Connect Systems are used for Networks that are
A. Packet Network Routers.

B. Ethernet Switches.
C. Dedicated Digital Channel Time Division Multiplexing Networks.
D. Switched Digital Channel Multiplexing Networks.
70-488 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 37
UDP Media Channels are identified by
A. 32 bit Source Port Number and 32 bit Destination Port Number.
B. 48 bit MCU Number and the 32 bit Gateway Number.
C. V35 Port and RS449 Port.
D. None of the other alternatives apply..
E. 16 bit Source Port Number and 16 bit Destination Port Number.
F. 32 bit Address or Signaling Port and ISDN Port Number.
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 38
The scope of H.225 Standard describes
A. video and audio coders for H.323.
B. the Coding Operation details for video and audio.
C. channel bandwidth sub-division.
D. the means by which audio, video, data, and control are associated, coded, and channelized for
transport between H.320 equipment on a channel network.
E. the means by which audio, video, data, and control are associated, coded, and packetized for transport
between H.323 equipment on a packet-based network.
70-488 exam Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 39
The T.127 and T.128 ITU-T Standards are used for which two functions?
A. Video and Audio Switching and Routing.
B. Scan Converter Application
C. Sharing Windows Applications
D. White Boarding Application
E. Multipoint File Transfer Application
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 40
What are the termination impedance and the signal level for PAL 70-488 dumps video?
A. 75 Ohms and 1Vpp
B. 50 Ohms and 2Vrms
C. 75 Ohms and 1Vrms
D. 50 Ohms and 1Vpp
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 41
Clocking Hierarchy for Channel Networks from the Public Network to the customer premise station
equipment is as follows:
A. Master Clock / Nodal Clock / Local Clock / Recovered Clock

B. Master Clock / Nodal Clock / Recovered Clock / Local Clock
C. Master Clock / Local Clock / Recovered Clock / Nodal Clock
D. Recovered Clock / Nodal Clock / Master Clock
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 42
E1 trunks are capable of supporting up to
A. 5 – 384,000 bit per second connections.
B. 7 – 384,000 bit per second connections.
C. 6 – 384,000 bit per second connections.
D. 4 – 384,000 bit per second connections.
70-488 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 43
Which of the following best describes 64,000 bits per second?
A. DS0
B. CEPT1
C. DS1
D. DS3
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 44
Gatekeeper messages for registration and admission that are successful will always have the Generic
structure as:
(Note – “XX” – is a variable value that represents specific Gatekeeper names)
A. RequestXX, DenyXXC
B. RequestXX, ReplyXX
C. XXRequest, XXConfirm
D. XXRequest, XXAcnowledged
E. XXRequest, XXReply
70-488 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 45
Which test equipment is used to verify ISDN Q.931 messages?
A. Break out Box
B. Protocol Analyzer
C. Bit Error Rate Test set
D. Distortion Analyzer
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 46
Which of the following describe video dynamics as processed through a videoconference system?
A. Codecs have more restrictive limits than cameras, and the best way to accurately assess the video
quality sent to the far-end is to view a video scene fully coded and then decoded.
B. Codecs have the same limits as cameras and therefore will not change the perceived qualities of the
video as rendered by the cameras.
C. Cameras react to light the same as ones eye and video monitors accurately render the video

information so what one sees by eye is what the far-end sees.
D. Cameras have limits to the range of light levels which can be accommodated and tend to process the
darker regions further toward black than what ones eye sees.
70-488 exam Correct Answer: AD

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[Aug.-2017-New From Google Drive]Most Accurate Microsoft MCP 70-348 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers with Pass Results for Microsoft Office 365 Video Series

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Exam Code: 70-348
Exam Name: Managing Projects and Portfolios with Microsoft PPM (beta)
Updated: Aug 16, 2017
Q&As: 48

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QUESTION 1
Many trust instruments provide for the removal of the original trustee. Valid reasons for removing the
original trustee include which of the following?
– A shift in trust situs is desirable because of changes in law.
– The beneficiary has moved his or her residence to a distant state.
A. Neither 1 nor 2
B. 1 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. 2 only
70-348 exam 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
In which of the following situations will the grantor be taxed on income from trust property.
– The grantor of a trust gives one of the trust beneficiaries the right to add or delete beneficiaries.
– An adverse party to the grantor holds the power to determine the timing of trust distributions to the
beneficiaries.
A. 1 only
B. Both 1 and 2
C. 2 only
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
The following are facts concerning a decedent’s estate:
– Taxable estate $1,800,000
– Pre-1977 taxable gifts 100,000
– Post-1976 adjusted taxable gifts 150,000
– Post-1976 gifts made to a qualified charity 200,000
A. $1,800,000
B. $1,950,000
C. $1,650,000
D. $2,150,000
70-348 dumps 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4
Items that are deductions from a decedent’s gross estate in determining his adjusted gross estate include
which of the following?
– Foreign death taxes
– State death taxes
A. Neither 1 nor 2
B. Both 1 and 2
C. 1 only
D. 2 only
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
All the following trust provisions avoid causing the inclusion of an irrevocable life insurance trust in an
insured’s gross estate EXCEPT
A. a trustee’s power to pay estate expenses
B. a trust beneficiary’s power to withdraw contributions to the trust
C. a trustee’s power to loan assets to the estate at the trustee’s discretion
D. a trustee’s power to purchase assets from the estate at the trustee’s discretion
70-348 pdf 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6
Which of the following terms applies to the blending together of separate and community properties of
spouses in community-property states?
A. Inception
B. Transmutation
C. Commingling
D. Proration
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
All the following statements concerning wills are correct EXCEPT:
A. Once a person is named as an executor in a will, he or she is required to serve.
B. A codicil is a valid modification of a will.
C. A testator may lose the capacity to revoke a will prior to death.
D. In most states a surviving spouse can elect against a will that completely disinherits him or her.
70-348 vce 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
If a grantor establishes an irrevocable trust, the income of the trust will be taxed to the grantor if it is used
to pay premiums for life insurance on the life of
A. a child of the grantor
B. the father of the grantor
C. the spouse of the grantor
D. a grandchild of the grantor
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9
Which of the following statements concerning ownership of property in the form of a joint tenancy with right
of survivorship is correct?
A. Qualified joint tenancies cannot be severed without mutual consent.
B. Upon the death of a joint tenant, the surviving joint tenant receives the decedent’s interest by operation
of law.
C. Nonqualified joint tenants may have unequal interests in the property.
D. This form of ownership is limited to real property.
70-348 exam 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
Which of the following statements concerning executors is correct?
A. An executor can be given broad and discretionary powers with respect to the management of the
estate.
B. All executors must post bonds.
C. The executor must be a licensed attorney in the decedent’s state of domicile.
D. The executor named in the will of a deceased person is automatically authorized to act.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
Which of the following statements concerning the generation-skipping transfer tax (GSTT) is (are) correct?
– An annual exclusion against GSTT will shelter gifts by a grandparent to a trust benefitting multiple
grandchildren.
– Tuition payments made directly by a grandparent to a university for a grandchild’s education are exempt
from GSTT.
A. Neither 1 nor 2
B. 1 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. 2 only
70-348 dumps 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
All the following statements concerning real property ownership by married couples as joint tenants with
right of survivorship are correct EXCEPT:
A. All benefits of ownership remain available to the surviving spouse without interruption during the
administration of the deceased spouse’s estate.
B. In common-law states the total value of the property receives a stepped-up tax basis in the estate of
the first spouse to die.
C. Jointly held property between spouses does not pass through the probate estate of the first spouse to
die.
D. The deceased spouse’s interest in the property qualifies for the marital deduction since it passes
outright to the surviving spouse.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
Many trust instruments provide for the removal of the original trustee. All the following are valid reasons for
removal of a trustee EXCEPT:
A. A shift in trust situs is desirable because of changes in law.
B. The beneficiary is not able to get along with the present corporate trustee.
C. The beneficiary has moved his or her residence to a distant state.
D. The beneficiary has been successful with investments and wants to manage the trust assets.
70-348 pdf 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 14
A father bought stock for $100,000 and gave it to his son when it was worth $300,000. The father paid no
gift tax on the transfer. When the son sold the property 2 years after the gift, his income tax basis was
A. $100,000
B. 0
C. $300,000
D. $200,000

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15
A father deeded a house as a gift to his daughter in 1990 but retained the right to live in it until his death.
He died this year while still living in the house. The following are relevant facts: The father bought the
property in 1980 for $130,000. The fair market value of the property when the gift was made in 1990 was
$150,000. The father filed a timely gift tax return but paid no gift tax because of the applicable credit
amount. The fair market value of the property at the father’s death was $220,000. The daughter sold the
property 3 months after her father’s death for $220,000. She had a gain of
A. $120,000
B. 0
C. $140,000
D. $220,000
70-348 vce 
Correct Answer: B

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[Jul.-2017-New] Latest Current Exam Details For Microsoft 70-742 Dumps Identity with Windows Server 2016 Real Exam On Youtube Study

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70-742

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Exam Code: 70-742 
Exam Name: Identity with Windows Server 2016
Updated: Jul 07, 2017
Q&As: 49

The study guide helps you master all the topics on the MCSA 70-742 dumps for Windows Server 2016, including:

  • Installing and configuring Active Directory Domain Services, including domain controllers, users, computers, groups, and OUs
  • Managing and maintaining Active Directory Domain Services, including configuration of service authentication and account policies, and challenges of complex enterprise environments
  • Creating and managing Group Policy: objects, processing, setting, and preferences
  • Implementing Active Directory Certification Services: installation, configuration, and management
  • Implementing Identity Federation and Access Solutions, including Pass4itsure 70-742 dumps Web Application Proxy and Rights Management Services

70-742

2017 Microsoft 70-742 Dumps (All 49 Q&As) From Pass4itsure:  

QUESTION NO: 1
In a Cortex-A9 processor, when the Memory Management Unit (MMU) is disabled, which of the
following statements is TRUE? (VA is the virtual address and PA is the physical address)
A. VA == PA; No address translations; instructions and data are not cached
B. VA! = PA; No address translations; instructions may be cached but not data
C. VA == PA; Address translations take place; data may be cached but not instructions
D. VA == PA; No address translations; instructions may be cached but not data
70-742 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 2
In the Generic Interrupt Controller (GIC), when an interrupt is requested, but is not yet being
handled, it is in which of the following states?
A. Inactive
B. Active
C. Pending
D. Edge-triggered
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 3
A simple system comprises of the following memory map:
Flash – 0x0 to 0x7FFF
RAM – 0x10000 to 0X17FFF
When conforming to the ABI, which of the following is a suitable initial value for the stack pointer?
A. Top address of RAM (0x18000)
B. Top address of flash (0x8000)
C. Bottom address of RAM (0x10000)
D. Bottom address of flash (0x0000)
70-742 exam Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 4
A program running on a development board that is connected to a host using a debugger can
access a file on the host by using:
A. Memory mapping
B. Semihosting
C. Polling
D. Virtual I/O
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 5
In which type of storage will the compiler preferentially place frequently accessed variables?
A. Stack
B. Heap
C. Registers
D. Hard disk
70-742 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 6
What view in a debugger displays the order in which functions were called?
A. The Call Stack view
B. The Memory view
C. The Registers view
D. The Variables view
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 7
Printf statements could be used to achieve which of the following debug tasks?
A. Observe changes to a local variable in a function
B. Capture a real-time trace of program execution
C. Debug boot code, before a call to the C main() function
D. Stop the processor at an interesting location in the code
70-742 vce Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 8
When the processor is executing in Thumb state, which of the following statements is correct
about the values stored in R15?
A. Bits[31:16] are duplicated with bits[15:0]
B. The PC value is stored in bits[31:1] and bit[0] is treated as zero
C. The PC value is stored in bits[31:16] and bits[15:0] are undefined
D. The PC value is stored in bits[15:0] and bits[31:16] are undefined
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 9
A standard performance benchmark is being run on a single core ARM v7-A processor. The
performance results reported are significantly lower than expected. Which of the following options
is a possible explanation?
A. L1 Caches and branch prediction are disabled
B. The Embedded Trace Macrocell (ETM) is disabled
C. The Memory Management Unit (MMU) is enabled
D. The Snoop Control Unit (SCU) is disabled
70-742 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 10
When setting the initial location of the stack pointer and the base address of the heap, the ARM
EABI requires that the:
A. Base address of the heap must be the same as the initial stack pointer.
B. Stack pointer must be 8-byte aligned.
C. Heap must be in external RAM.
D. Initial stack pointer must be the lowest addressable memory location.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 11
In an ARMv7-A processor, which control register is used to enable the Memory Management Unit
(MMU)?
A. The ACTLR
B. The SCTLR
C. The TTBCR
D. The CONTEXTIDR
70-742 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 12
A simple method of measuring the performance of an application is to record the execution time
using the clock on the wall or a wristwatch.
When is this method INAPPROPRIATE?
A. When executing the software using a simulation model
B. When the processor is a Cortex-R4
C. When instruction tracing is enabled
D. When the processor is not executing instructions from cache
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 13
Consider the following code sequence, executing on a processor which implements ARM
Architecture v7-A.
LDR r0, [r1]
STR r0, [r2]
STR r3, [r3]
R1 points to a location in normal memory. R2 and R3 point to device memory.
Which of the following statements best describes the ordering rules which apply to this sequence?
A. The two writes to device memory will happen in program order, but the read can be performed
out of order
B. The memory accesses can happen in any order
C. The memory accesses will happen in program order
D. The read to r0 and the write from r0 will happen in program order, but the write from r3 can be
performed out of order
70-742 exam Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 14
When using the default ARM tool-chain libraries for bare-metal applications. I/O functionality is
rerouted and handled by a connected debugger. This is often referred to as semihosting. Which
one of the following explanations BEST describes how this feature can be implemented by a
debugger?
A. The library directly sends I/O requests to the debugger using the JTAG connection
B. While the target is running, the debugger processes I/O requests from a shared queue in
memory
C. The I/O library calls rely on an Ethernet connection to redirect the requests to the debugger
D. The I/O library calls generate an exception that is trapped and handled by the debugger
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 15
The Cortex-A9 processor implements a feature called “small loop mode” which reduces power
consumption when executing small loops by turning off instruction cache accesses. Which of the
following statements describes a condition that must be satisfied for this mode to be enabled?
A. The loop must fit into two cache lines
B. The loop must only contain forward branches
C. Only integer arithmetic can be used
D. All variables must be held in registers
70-742 vce Answer: A

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