[May.-2018-New] Most Reliable And Trustworthy Study Material for Best Cisco 300-170 Dumps CCNP Data Center Exam Video Covers All Key Points 60Q&As 1-30

Posted on by

What is the preparation tips for Cisco 300-170 dumps exam? The Pass4itsure 300-170 dumps practical exam for DCVAI Implementing Cisco Data Center Virtualization and Automation (DCVAI) assesses the candidate’s ability to lead a virtual classroom session with live participants using the techniques and best practices of skilled virtual instructors. Our practice exam is regularly updated with the latest changes in course and 300-170 dumps CCNP Data Center exam details. Candidates submit a 90-minute Cisco CCNP Data Center recording in which they demonstrate the skills listed in the practical exam topics. The recordings receive a Pass or Fail score.

Passing in the first attempt gives confidence to students to attempt 300-170 Cisco Certified Network Professional Data Center exam and move on with their career in Cisco. Candidates must pass both the 300-170 dumps DCVAI exam and the 300-170 dumps DCVAI  practical exam to obtain CCNP Data Center certification. For that prep of exam, Pass4itsure offers compiled all the relevant along with precise substance from a single area.

[May.-2018-New Pass4itsure 300-170 PDF Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWZzkydEcwa19TQWM

[May.-2018-New Pass4itsure 300-175 PDF Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWUUZ4UURySG9IdE0

2018 Cisco 300-170 Dumps (All 60Q&As) From Pass4itsure 1-30

QUESTION 1
A system administrator checks the endpoint database and discovers MAC addresses that belong to inactive local nodes. Which description of the retention of the MAC addresses for the local nodes is true?
A. After five minutes, the inactive nodes are removed from the local endpoint database of the leaf
B. The local database is cleared only when the leaf reboots
C. The leaf sends three ARP requests after an aging period. The MAC addresses are stored to the local endpoint database aft long as the devices respond to the requests
D. After 15 minutes, the inactive nodes are removed from the local endpoint database of the leaf
300-170 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which two features are supported for configuration synchronization? (Choose two )
A. port profile
B. GEM pre-provisioning
C. configurations rollbacks
D. feature sets
E. FCoE
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 3
Which configuration is needed to extend the EPG out of the Cisco ACI fabric?
A. Create external bridged networks
B. Statically assign a port to EPG
C Apply a policy between the internal and the external EPG
C. Extend the tenant subnet of the bridge domain out of the fabric
300-170 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
What occurs when the Cisco ACI fabric receives multi destination traffic?
A. The traffic is forwarded as broadcast traffic
B. The traffic is forwarded as multicast traffic
C. The traffic is suppressed
D. The traffic is forwarded as unicast traffic
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
You are configuration a group of web servers and you create a contract that uses TCP port 80. Which action allows an external Layer 3 cloud to initiate communication with the EPG that contains the web servers?
A. Configure the EPG as a consumer and L3Out as provider of the contract
B. Configure OSPF to exchange routes between the L3Out and EPG
C. Create a taboo contract and apply it to the EPG
D. Configure the EPG as a provider and L3Out as consumer of the contract.
300-170 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
A unicast packet enters into the front panel port of a leaf switch. The leaf switch performs a forwarding lookup for the packet destination IP address and has a miss result Assuming default configuration, which statement about what happens next is true’?
A. The packet is sent to the forwarding proxy in the spine switch
B. The packet is dropped on the leaf switch
C. The packet is sent to another leaf switch within the same bridge domain
D. The packet is flooded across the entire fabric because it is an unknown unicast.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
You have a VSM that experiences a failure. Which two options are results of the failure? (Choose two )
A. CLI access to the virtual switch continues to work without any interruption
B. VEM stops working
C. Traffic forwarding stops for a short period of time and then continues to work normally
D. Traffic forwarding continues to work without any interruption
E. VMware vMotion stops working
300-170 vce Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 8
What is the retention period for remotely attached endpoint?
A. 3 minutes
B. 15 minutes
C. 5 minutes
D. 10 minutes
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which feature of a Cisco Nexus 1000V Servers Switch allows you to deploy traffic steering for a virtual infrastructure?
A. SOT
B. PVLAN
C. ACL
D. vPath
300-170 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
300-170 dumps
Refer to the exhibit:
For which option is the L3OUT-1 connection used?
A. bridge domain BD2
B. private network CIX1
C. private network Network-2
D. bridge domain BD1
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
You deploy AVS for Virtual Manager integration and you add a host that has five VMNICs. You must use VXLAN to maximize the load balancing of the traffic inside the fabric. How many VMKNICs must you add?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 8
300-170 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
You have a contract between in-band and out-of-band EPGs. Which two descriptions of this contention are true? (Choose two )
A. Filters apply m the incoming direction only
B. Both EPGs must be m one VRF
C. Management statistics are available
D. Shared services for CPU-bound traffic are supported
E. The configuration supports Layer 2
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 13
Which type of server is needed to provide POAP with a configuration script?
A. DHCP
B. SCP
C. FTP
D. TFTP
300-170 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Which action occurs first when a device that has the POAP feature boots and cannot find the startup configuration?
A. The device locates a DHCP server
B. The device enters POAP mode
C. The device obtains the IP address of a TFTP server
D. The device installs software image and a configuration file
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
Which two options are advantages of VMware AVS instead of a VMware vDS? (Choose two )
A. AVS supports vPath
B. AVS supports VLAN
C. AVS provides a single point of management for networking
D. AVS supports VXLAN
E. AVS supports micro segmentation
300-170 vce Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 16
Which protocol is used as the link-state routing protocol for a DFA fabric?
A. VXLAN
B. EIGRP
C. Fabric Path IS-IS
D. OSPF
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
You are trouble shooting node discovery issues by using the acidiag fnvread command. Which description of the node status when the CLI output shows a status of Discovering is true?
A. The node is decommissioned
B. The node ID is configured, but not discovered yet
C. The node is discovered, but an IP address is not assigned yet
D. The node is discovered, but the node ID policy is not configured yet
300-170 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
Why should you configure DHCP relay for Virtual Machine Manager integration?
A. to create VTEP VMK interfaces on each host for the OpFlex control channel
B. to provide IP addresses to ESXi hosts
C. to provide IP addresses to virtual hosts through the VXLAN infrastructure
D. to ensure that virtual hosts have the same address when they are moved by using VMware vMotion
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
The behavior of which packet type can be controlled by selecting unicast mode or flood mode in a bridge domain?
A. ARP
B. unknown unicast
C. LLDP
D. CDP
300-170 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
Which statement about POAP licensing correctly describes temporary licensing?
A. Temporary licensing is invoked by using the license grace-period command
B. Temporary licensing is enabled automatically and is valid for 60 days
C. Temporary licensing is invoked by using the license Install command
D. Temporary licensing is enabled automatically and is valid for 30 days
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
300-170 dumps
Refer to the exhibit :
You define the port profiles as shown in the exhibit, and then you assign the P10GIG port profile to interface el” Which option is the result of this configuration?
A. The speed of the interface is 10 Gbps
B. The speed of the interface is 1 Gbps
C. The interface uses the maximum speed available for the physical interface.
D. The speed of the interface is 100 GbpS
300-170 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
Which two options are benefits of using the configuration synchronization feature? (Choose two )
A. Supports the feature command
B. Supports existing session and port profile functionality
C. can be used by any Cisco Nexus switch
D. merges configurations when connectivity is established between peers O supports FCoE in vPC topologies
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 23
Which Cisco technology addresses management and performance concerns in a data center by unifying physical and virtual switch management?
A. VSO
B. SVM
C. VM-FEX
D. AVS
300-170 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
You are deploying L4-L7 services within Cisco Application Centric Infrastructure You need to modify an existing service graph. Where do you configure this?
A. under the provider EPG
B. on a connector within a service graph
C. on a function profile within a service graph
D. on a terminal node within a service graph
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
Which two parameters are part of the Cisco APIC first time setup and must be configured? (Choose two )
A. the fabric node vector configuration
B. the LLDP adjacency configuration
C. the out of-band management configuration
D. the cluster configuration
E. the APIC LLDP configuration
300-170 exam Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 26
Which component is excluded from a device package ZIP file?
A. debug logs
B. device-level configuration parameters
C. function profile
D. device scripts
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
Which type of discovery is used in the Cisco ACI fabric for automatic discovery?
A. ACI
B. Cisco APIC
C. DHCP
D. LLDR
300-170 dumps Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
When connecting to an external Layer 3 network, which two dynamic routing protocols can be used? (Choose two )
A. RIPv2
B. EIGRP
C. VXLAN
D. lS-IS
E. OSPF
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 29
Which option are L4-L7 devices registered as on a Cisco APIC?
A. one virtual device
B. a cluster
C. one physical device
D. more virtual devices
300-170 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 30
A host connected to a leaf switch sends an ARP request By default, what does the ingress switch do with the ARP requests?
A. Suppress the ARP
B. Send the ARP by using unicast.
C. Send the ARP by using a broadcast
D. Send the ARP by using multicast
Correct Answer: C

Our exam never feels satisfactory about what he achieved. Instead, we keeps on trying to provide candidates with the latest and most accurate certifications. You also get free updates to the Cisco 300-170 exam material for 90 days. You become a member of a large community of users as soon as you download the software. Pass4itsure offer the most comprehensive verification 300-170 dumps questions and answers, you can also get a year of free updates.If your budget is limited, but you need complete exam material. Continuous effort by our experts to improve the reparation software has led to its wide popularity in the world. Pass4itsure supplies a excellent prep substance. Pass4itsure gives 100% promise with its most items plus helps ensure 100% good results.
300-170 dumps
The pass4itsure 300-170 dumps DCVAI Implementing Cisco Data Center Virtualization and Automation (DCVAI) exam allows students to understand and realize the benefits of CCNP Data Center certification area. This community has benefited from our “300-170 CCNP Data Center ” exam practice software and they like to share their experiences with each other. Students who complete DCVAI may get DCVAI Implementing Cisco Data Center Virtualization and Automation (DCVAI) certification. Candidates can prepare for the exam by taking the DCVAI Implementing Cisco Data Center Virtualization and Automation (DCVAI) course.

The Implementing Cisco Data Center Virtualization and Automation 300-170 is the exam associated with the CCNP Data Center certification. Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking the Implementing Cisco Data Center Virtualization and Automation 300-170 dumps course. Our practice software has been used by over 70000 customers worldwide. They have enjoyed preparing for CNS due to the ease-of-use and a step-by-step approach.

  • Instant Download After Purchase
  • 100% Money Back Guarantee
  • 365 Days Free Update
  • 7000+ Satisfied Customer

If you take the time to use the Cisco training materials, you will pass your exam guaranteed. Pass4itsure 300-170 dumps certificate can help you a lot.  You too can benefit from their views and experience in preparing for 300-170 DCVAI and in using our preparation material. The success rate of passing all exams of Cisco exam with the help of our 300-170 CCNP Data Center is unmatched making it the market leader.  Cisco 300-170 exam is always to test out your control of a customer around the complicated facets of your qualifications exam.

Pass4itsure can help you improve your job and living standard, and having it can give you a great sum of Pass4itsure wealth. Possess the pass4isture 300-170 dumps 100% success promise by means of installing the particular demo try out questions on the web to check on the grade of Cisco 300-170 test through is on the web online video talks along with 300-170 dumps practice exam. When it comes to providing multiple platforms as well as 24 hours online support and 100% money back guarantee, you will not find another company offering so much for so little.
pass4itsure 300-170 dumps
Pass4itsure Provides Best Cisco 300-170 Dumps Exam Covers All Key Points, We Help You Pass DCVAI Implementing Cisco Data Center Virtualization and Automation (DCVAI). Pass4itsure 300-170 Dumps Exam Youtube Free Online Test Here:

Pass4itsure Promo Code 15% Off

300-170 dumps

[Apr.-2018-New] Latest Release Microsoft 70-346 Dumps Microsoft Office 365 Exam Test Video Training 268Q&As 15-35

Posted on by

What are some of the best ways to discover the latest Microsoft 70-346 dumps that are on the market? Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-346 Dumps Test, Latest Release Microsoft 70-346 Dumps Exam Video Training, We Help You Pass Managing Office 365 Identities and Requirements – pass4itsure 70-346 dumps 268Q&As.

The practical exam for Managing Office 365 Identities and Requirements assesses the candidate’s ability to lead a virtual classroom session with live participants using the techniques and best practices of skilled virtual instructors. Now the very popular Microsoft 070-346 authentication certificate is one of them. Although passing the Microsoft certification 070-346 exam is not so easy, there are still many ways to help you successfully pass the exam. Candidates submit a MCP MCSA recording in which they demonstrate the skills listed in the practical exam topics. The recordings receive a Pass or Fail score. Candidates must pass both the 70-346 dumps Office 365 exam and the 70-346 dumps Office 365 practical exam to obtain MCP, MCSA certification.

[Apr.-2018-New Pass4itsure 70-346 PDF Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWUW5ITWJYd1lUZHc

[Apr.-2018-New Pass4itsure 70-494 PDF Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1P8eWrxIvmnYd9twR8u6pur4AXJLBm3ph

I believe that a lot of people working in the IT industry hope to pass some IT certification exams to obtain the corresponding certifications. Some IT authentication certificates can help you promote to a higher job position in this fiercely competitive IT industry.
why pass4itsure 70-346 dumps

2018 Microsoft 70-346 Dumps (All 268 Q&As) From Pass4itsure 15-35

QUESTION 15
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. You prepare to install Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS). You need to open the correct port between the AD FS proxy server and the AD FS federation server. Which port should you open?
A. TCP 80
B. TCP 135
C. TCP 389
D. TCP 443
E. TCP 636
F. TCP 1723
70-346 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
Contoso uses Office 365 for collaboration services. You implement single sign-on (SSO) with Office 365 by using Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS). You need to implement Windows Azure multi-factor authentication. Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. On the AD FS federation server, run PhoneFactorAgentSetup.exe.
B. On the AD FS Federation server, run WindowsAzureSDK-x64.exe.
C. On the AD FS Federation server, run the Windows PowerShell cmdlet Register- AdfsAuthenticationProvider.
D. On the AD FS Federation server, run FsConfigWizard.exe.
E. Run the Active Directory Domains and Trusts MMC snap-in. Register Windows Azure Multi-Factor Authentication Server as an additional authentication provider.
F. Run the Windows Azure Multi-Factor Authentication Server Authentication Configuration Wizard.
Correct Answer: BCF

QUESTION 17
An organization with an Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain migrates to Office 365. You need to manage Office 365 from a domain-joined Windows Server 2012 Core server. Which three components should you install? Each answer presents part of the solution.
A. Azure Active Directory module for Windows PowerShell
B. Microsoft .NET Framework 3.5
C. Microsoft Office 365 Integration Module for Windows Small Business Server 2011 Essentials
D. Microsoft .NET Framework 4.0
E. Microsoft Online Services Sign-in Assistant
F. Rights Management module for Windows PowerShell
70-346 dumps Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 18
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. You must use Windows PowerShell to manage cloud identities in Office 365. You must use a computer that runs Windows 8 to perform the management tasks. You need to ensure that the Windows 8 computer has the necessary software installed. What should you install first?
A. Microsoft Office 365 Best Practices Analyzer for Windows PowerShell
B. Windows PowerShell 4.0
C. Remote Server Administration Tools for Windows
D. Microsoft Online Services Sign-in Assistant
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 19
Your company has an Office 365 subscription. The network contains an Active Directory domain. You configure single sign-on for all users. You need to verify that single sign-on functions for the users who access Office 365 from the Internet. What should you run?
A. the Get-MSOLFederationProperty cmdlet
B. the Test-OrganizationRelationship cmdlet
C. the Microsoft Remote Connectivity Analyzer
D. the Microsoft Exchange Server Deployment Assistant
70-346 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details provided in the question apply only to that question. A company has an Office 365 tenant that has an Enterprise E1 subscription. You synchronize disabled user accounts from an Active Directory Domain Services environment. You need to enable the user accounts in Office 365. Which Windows PowerShell cmdlet should you run?
A. Set-MsolUser
B. Redo-MsolProvisionUser
C. Set-MsolUserLicense
D. Set-MsolUserPrincipalName
E. Convert-MsolFederatedUser
F. Set-MailUser
G. Set-LinkedUser
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. Employees do not have local administrative privileges on client computers. The company has the following client computer software: Windows 7 and Windows 8 32-bit and 64-bit Office 2007, Office 2010, and Office 2013. When accessing the corporate Microsoft SharePoint 2010 site, some users are unable to display SharePoint lists in the Datasheet view. You need to ensure that all users can display SharePoint lists in the Datasheet view. What should you do?
A. Upgrade to the latest version of Office 365 ProPlus.
B. Force a reinstallation of Office by using Group Policy and specifying a network location.
C. Uninstall the 64-bit version of Office and then install the 32-bit version of Office.
D. Upgrade all Office 2007 and Office 2010 versions to Office 2013.
70-346 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
You have an Office 365 subscription.
Several users report that they fail to connect to Microsoft Skype for Business Online by using the Skype for Business 2016 client. You verify that you can connect to Skype for Business Online successfully from your computer. You need to identify what prevents the users from connecting to Skype for Business Online. Solution: You use the Microsoft Remote Connectivity Analyzer. Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23
Your company uses Office 365. You need to prevent users from initiating remote wipes of mobile devices by using the Office 365 portal. What should you modify?
A. the Outlook Web App mailbox policy
B. the Exchange ActiveSync device policy
C. the default role assignment policy
D. the Exchange ActiveSync Access settings
70-346 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 24
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. You have a server that runs Windows Server 2012. You plan to install an Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) web app proxy server. You need to install and configure the required roles.
What role should you install and configure?
A. Web Server (IIS)
B. Network Policy and Access Service
C. Application Server
D. Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS)
E. Remote Access
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 25
A company deploys an Office 365 tenant. You need to enable multi-factor authentication for Office 365. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
70-346 dumps
70-346 dumps Correct Answer:
70-346 dumps
QUESTION 26
An organization prepares to migrate to Office 365. The organization has one domain controller named NYC-DC1 and one server named NYC-DS that is designated as the directory synchronization computer. The organization has the following servers:
70-346 dumps
You plan to upgrade the servers to support directory synchronization. You must upgrade each server to meet only the minimum requirements by using the least amount of administrative effort. You need to ensure that you can use the Windows Azure Active Directory Sync tool to synchronize the local Active Directory with Office 365. What should you do? Select the correct action from each list in the answer area.
Hot Area:
70-346 dumps
QUESTION 27
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. User1 leaves the company. You must delete the account for User1. In the table below, identify when each type of data will be deleted. Make only one selection in each column. Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:
70-346 dumps
QUESTION 28
A company is deploying an Office 365 tenant. You need to deploy a Windows Server 2012 R2 federation server farm. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
70-346 dumps
70-346 pdf Correct Answer:
70-346 dumps

QUESTION 29
You are the Office 365 administrator for Contoso, Ltd. User1 is unable to sign in. You need to change the password for User1 and ensure that the user is prompted to reset her password the next time she signs in.
How should you complete the relevant Windows PowerShell command? To answer, drag the appropriate Windows PowerShell segments to the correct location or locations. Each Windows PowerShell segment may be used once, more than
once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:
70-346 dumps

QUESTION 30
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. You audit the Windows Azure Active Directory Rights Management configuration for the company. You need to view a log of the recent administrative commands performed against the Microsoft Rights Management Service. Which three Windows PowerShell cmdlets should you run in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate cmdlets from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
70-346 dumps
70-346 vce Correct Answer:
70-346 dumps

QUESTION 31
Fabrikam has the Office 365 Enterprise E3 plan. You must add the domain name fabrikam.com to the Office 365 tenant. You need to confirm ownership of the domain. Which DNS record types should you use? To answer, drag the appropriate DNS record type to the correct location or locations in the answer area. Each DNS record type may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:
70-346 dumps
Correct Answer:
70-346 dumps
QUESTION 32
A company plans to use Office 365 to provide email services to employees. The company obtains a custom domain name to use with Office 365. You need to add the domain name to Office 365. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
70-346 dumps
70-346 exam Correct Answer:
70-346 dumps

QUESTION 33
Fabrikam Inc. plans to use the domain fabrikam.com for Office 365 user identities, email addresses. Session Initiation Protocol (SIP) addresses, and a public-facing home page. Single sign-on (SSO) between Office 365 and the on-premises Active Directory is NOT required. You need to configure the Office 365 plan. Which four Windows PowerShell cmdlets should you run in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
70-346 dumps
Correct Answer:
70-346 dumps

QUESTION 34
OverView
Fabrikam, inc is a financial services organization. Fabrikam recently purchased another financial services organization named Contoso, Ltd. Fabrikam has 2000 users. Contoso has 500 users. Windows 10 and office 2016 are deployed to all computers.
Physical Location:
Fabrikam has an office in the United States. Contoso has an office in the United Kingdom. The offices connect to each other by using a WAN link. Each office also connects directly to the internet.
Existing Environment:
Active Directory:
The network Fabrikam contains an Active Directory forest. The Active Directory environment of Contoso was migrated to the Active Directory forest of Fabrikam. The forest contains three domains named fabrikam.com,contractor.fabrikam.com, and contoso.com. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2008 R2. All contractors outsourced by fabrikam use the user principal name (UPN) suffix of contractor.fabrikam.com. If fabrikam hires the contractor as a permanenet employee, the UPN suffix changes to fabrikam.com. Network
The network has the following configurations:
* External IP address for the United States office: 192.168.1.100
* External IP address for the United Kingdom office: 192.168.2.100
* Internal IP address range for the United States office: 10.0.1.0/24
* Internal IP address range for the United Kingdom office : 10.0.2.0/24
Active Directory Federation Services (ADFS)
AD FS and web Application Proxies are deployed to support an app for the sales department. The app is accessed from the Microsoft Azure Portal.
Office 365 Tenant
You have an Office 365 subscription that has the following configurations:
* Organization name: Fabrikam Financial Services.
* Vanity domain: Fabrikamfinancialservices.onmicrosoft.com
* Microsoft SharePoint domain: Fabrikamfinancialservices .sharepoint.com
* Additional domain added to the subscription: Contoso.com and fabrikam.com
Requirements:
Planned Changes:
* Deploy Azure AD connect.
* Move mailboxes from Microsoft Exchange 2016 to Exchange Online.
* Deploy Azure multi-factor authentication for devices that connect from untrusted networks only.
* Customize the AD FS sign-in webpage to include the Fabrikam logo, a helpdesk phone number, and a sign=in description.
* Once all of the Fabrikam users are replicated to Azure Active Directory (Azure AD), assign an E3 license to all of the users in the United States office.
Technical Requirements:
Contoso identifies the following technical requirements:
* When a device connects from an untrusted network to, ensure that users must type a verification code generated from a mobile app.
* Ensure that all users can access office 365 services from a web browser by using either a UPN or their primary SMTP email address.
* After Azure AD connect is deployed, change the UPN suffix if all the users in the Contoso sales department to fabrikam.com.
* Ensure that administrator are notified when the health information of Exchange Online changes.
* User Office 365 reports to review previous tasks performed in Office 365.
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the sonic scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals. You need to configure the Office 365 subscription 1o ensure that Active Directory users on conned to Office 365 resources by using single sign-on (SSO). Solution: You run Convert-MsolFederatedUser for all users. Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 35
OverView
Fabrikam, inc is a financial services organization.
Fabrikam recently purchased another financial services organization named Contoso, Ltd. Fabrikam has 2000 users. Contoso has 500 users. Windows 10 and office 2016 are deployed to all computers.
Physical Location:
Fabrikam has an office in the United States. Contoso has an office in the United Kingdom. The offices connect to each other by using a WAN link. Each office also connects directly to the internet.
Existing Environment:
Active Directory:
The network Fabrikam contains an Active Directory forest. The Active Directory environment of Contoso was migrated to the Active Directory forest of Fabrikam. The forest contains three domains named fabrikam.com,contractor.fabrikam.com, and contoso.com. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2008 R2. All contractors outsourced by fabrikam use the user principal name (UPN) suffix of contractor.fabrikam.com. If fabrikam hires the contractor as a permanenet employee, the UPN suffix changes to fabrikam.com.
Network
The network has the following configurations:
* External IP address for the United States office: 192.168.1.100
* External IP address for the United Kingdom office: 192.168.2.100
* Internal IP address range for the United States office: 10.0.1.0/24
* Internal IP address range for the United Kingdom office : 10.0.2.0/24
Active Directory Federation Services (ADFS)
AD FS and web Application Proxies are deployed to support an app for the sales department. The app is accessed from the Microsoft Azure Portal. Office 365 Tenant
You have an Office 365 subscription that has the following configurations:
* Organization name: Fabrikam Financial Services.
* Vanity domain: Fabrikamfinancialservices.onmicrosoft.com
* Microsoft SharePoint domain: Fabrikamfinancialservices .sharepoint.com
* Additional domain added to the subscription: Contoso.com and fabrikam.com
70-346 dumps Requirements:
Planned Changes:
* Deploy Azure AD connect.
* Move mailboxes from Microsoft Exchange 2016 to Exchange Online.
* Deploy Azure multi-factor authentication for devices that connect from untrusted networks only.
* Customize the AD FS sign-in webpage to include the Fabrikam logo, a helpdesk phone number, and a sign=in description.
* Once all of the Fabrikam users are replicated to Azure Active Directory (Azure AD), assign an E3 license to all of the users in the United States office.
Technical Requirements:
Contoso identifies the following technical requirements:
* When a device connects from an untrusted network to https://outlook.office.com, ensure that users must type a verification code generated from a mobile app.
* Ensure that all users can access office 365 services from a web browser by using either a UPN or their primary SMTP email address.
* After Azure AD connect is deployed, change the UPN suffix if all the users in the Contoso sales department to fabrikam.com.
* Ensure that administrator are notified when the health information of Exchange Online changes.
* User Office 365 reports to review previous tasks performed in Office 365.
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
You need to identify which report must be used to view previous tasks performed in Office 365. Which type of report should you use for each task? To answer, drag the appropriate reports to the correct tasks. Each report may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view
content.
Select and Place:
70-346 dumps
70-346 dumps

See What Our Customers Are Saying:

Our exam never feels satisfactory about what he achieved. While you can choose to spend a lot of time and energy to review the related IT knowledge, and also you can choose a effective training course. Instead, we keeps on trying to provide candidates with the latest and most accurate certifications. Pass4itsure offer the most comprehensive verification 70-346 dumps questions and answers, you can also get a year of free updates. We also offer a one-year free update service. If you fall into the test, we will pay you back the total amount. If your budget is limited, but you need complete exam material.
70-346 dumps
The Microsoft 70-346 dumps Managing Office 365 Identities and Requirements exam allows students to understand and realize the benefits of MCP, MCSA certification area. Students who complete 70-346 Microsoft Office 365 may get Microsoft Managing Office 365 Identities and Requirements certification. Pass4itsure can provide the pertinent simulation test,which is very effective to help you pass the exam and can save your precious time and energy to achieve your dream. Candidates can prepare for the exam by taking the Managing Office 365 Identities and Requirements course. Pass4itsure will be your best choice. The pass4itsure 70-346 dumps pdf download Managing Office 365 Identities and Requirements exam is a really good way for you to be able to familiarize yourself with the 70-346 questions as they appear in the actual 70-346 exam besides being a very way for you to be able to learn how to answer the examiner’s questions in a pleasing manner. The 70-346 MCSA certification exam is furthermore a great way to relieve stress before you have to give the actual Microsoft 70-346 exam.

  • Instant Download After Purchase
  • 100% Money Back Guarantee
  • 365 Days Free Update
  • 7000+ Satisfied Customer

If you take the time to use the Cisco training materials, you will pass your exam guaranteed. Microsoft 70-346 dumps certificate can help you a lot. It can help you improve your job and living standard, and having it can give you a great sum of Pass4itsure wealth. If you choose Pass4itsure.com, we would be using the utmost force to help you pass the test. When it comes to providing multiple platforms as well as 24 hours online support and 100% money back guarantee, you will not find another company offering so much for so little.
pass4itsure 70-346 dumps

Latest Release Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-346 Dumps Managing Office 365 Identities and Requirements Exam Test Video Training. Pass4itsure 70-346 Dumps Exam Youtube Free Online Test Here:

[Mar.-2018-New] Where Can I Get IBM 000-004 Dumps?

Posted on by

Pass4itsure provide latest IBM 000-004 dumps certification material are based on the real exam video training. The practical exam for IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.1 Administration assesses the candidate’s ability to lead a virtual classroom session with live participants using the techniques and best practices of skilled virtual instructors. Candidates submit a 90-minute IBM certifications I recording in which they demonstrate the skills listed in the practical exam topics. Pass4itsure has more than 10 years experience in IT certification 000-004 dumps exam training, including questions and answers. The recordings receive a Pass or Fail score. Candidates must pass both the 000-004 dumps exam and the 000-004 practical exam to obtain IBM certifications I certification. IBM 000-004 exam is a test of the level of knowledge of IT professionals. On the Internet, you can find a variety of training tools. Pass4itsure IBM https://www.pass4itsure.com/000-004.html dumps study guides is the best training materials.

[Mar.-2018-New IBM 000-004 Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1pPKk3zyUudtX6z2UDPinnk1M4GfAWqps

[Mar.-2018-New IBM 000-003 Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1Q2OMjWPH3U-ltE-TpJWvOpjnfNwqEVU0
why pass4itsure 000-004 dumps

2018 IBM 000-004 Dumps (All 188 Q&As) From Pass4itsure 1-24

1. What is the first step that should be performed after setting up a new IBM Tivoli Storage Manager server?
A. prepare
B. storage manager database backup
C. process to return local scratch tapes to the library
D. cron job to back up the Tivoli Storage Manager file system
000-004 exam Answer:B

2. Using the administrative command line on the client machine, query the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (Tivoli Storage Manager) server and save the output to be used for a report later. What must a Tivoli Storage Manager administrator with Operator authority do in order for this output to be redirected for reports?
A. Add > filename to the command.
B. Set the Admin authority to System and create a file output.
C. Create a report in the ISC and direct it to outfile=”outputname”.
D. Issue Query Systeminfo and from the DOS prompt select file output.
Answer:A

3. Which type of device class is supported by random access storage?
A. Disk
B. Tape
C. Virtual
D. GenericTape
000-004 dumps Answer:A

4. Which command will add a new volume to the library, which is in the entry/exit ports of the library?
A. checkin libvolume libname volname search=no status=scratch
B. checkin libvolume libname volname search=no status=scratch waitt=0
C. checkin libvolume libname search=yes status=scratch checklabel=yes
D. checkin libvolume libname search=bulk status=scratch checklabel=barcode
Answer:D

5. What is the term for automatic data movement that frees up space on tape volumes by consolidating active data from fragmented tape volumes onto a single volume?
A. migration
B. collocation
C. reclamation
D. aggregation
000-004 pdf Answer:C

6. Which command must be used to define a schedule that archives specific files quarterly on the last Friday of the month?
A. DEFINE SCHEDULE command with SCHEDSTYLE=ENHANCED parameter
B. DEFINE SCHEDULE command with SCHEDSTYLE=ADVANCED parameter
C. DEFINE CLIENTACTION command with SCHEDSTYLE=ENHANCED parameter
D. DEFINE CLIENTACTION command with SCHEDSTYLE=ADVANCED parameter
Answer:A

7. A customer has a 3584 library with 1000 tape volumes. All of the tape volumes are in IBM Tivoli Storage Manager library inventory with private and scratch status. Now the customer wants to know the total number of ‘Private’ volumes by SQL command. What is the correct SQL statement for an automatic count?
A. SELECT * FROM volumes WHERE status=’Private’
B. SELECT * FROM libvolumes WHERE status=’Private’
C. SELECT COUNT(*) FROM volumes WHERE status=’Private’
D. SELECT COUNT(*) FROM libvolumes WHERE status=’Private’
000-004 vce Answer:D

8. A new server-to-server environment is being set up. One server is called Source and the other Target. With the define server command, the servers will be defined in one step to these two servers. But only one server is defined. On one side, there is no server definition for the issuing server to find. How can this problem be solved?
A. On the Source server, DEFINE SERVER SOURCE …
B. Set on Source and on Target server, SET CROSSDEFINE ON.
C. Set on both servers the IP address, IP port, and the server password.
D. On the Target server, DEFINE SERVER SOURCE … CROSSDEFINE=YES.
Answer:D

9. Additional LTO4 tape drives should be added to the LTO library that has LTO2 drives, what must be done to ensure that the LTO4 drives are used for off-site tapes?
A. Define additional tape drives and path to additional tape drives.
B. Define device class for LTO4, tape drive, and update copypool.
C. Remove LTO device class, and define new LTO4 device class, tape drives, and path.
D. Define the new library, the library path, device class for LTO4, new tape drives to library, path of new drives to IBM Tivoli Storage Manager server, and update storage pool to use new device class LTO4 for off-site copypool and/or primary pools that are sent off-site.
000-004 exam Answer: D

10. A customer wants to copy the file, my data/schedule.doc, retain it for 365 days, and maintain its default backup retention for 30 days. Which IBM Tivoli Storage Manager action should be performed?
A. archive
B. image backup
C. open file backup
D. incremental backup
Answer: A

11. Which statement is true about IBM Tivoli Storage Manager selective backup?
A. It causes the server to update the date and time of the last archive.
B. It expires backup versions of files that are deleted from the workstation.
C. It rebinds backup versions to a management class if the management class has not changed.
D. It backs up directory and file entries even if their size, modification timestamp, or permissions have not changed.
Answer: D

12. Which three operating systems support journal-based backups? (Choose three.)
A. AIX
B. Solaris
C. HP-UX
D. Linux Redhat
E. Windows 2003 Server
F. Windows 2008 Server
000-004 dumps Answer:AEF

13. Whenever using the backup-archive client interface to perform Network Data Management Protocol backups or restores, you are asked to authenticate yourself as an IBM Tivoli Storage Manager administrator before the operation begins. What is the minimal level of authority the administrator ID must have to complete this?
A. system authority
B. system authority for the NAS node
C. client owner authority for the NAS node
D. analyst authority for the backup-archive client server
Answer:C

14. The same backup operation can be performed with a server interface. For example, from the administrative command line client, back up the file system named /vol/vol1 on a NAS file server named NAS1, by entering the following command: backup node nas1 /vol/vol1 What is the minimal level of authority required to perform this operation?
A. storage authority
B. system authority for the NAS node
C. client owner authority for the NAS node
D. analyst authority for the backup-archive client server
000-004 pdf Answer: C

15. In order to back up a NAS device to an IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (Tivoli Storage Manager) native storage pool, set the destination storage pool in the copy group to point to the desired native storage pool. The destination storage pool provides the information about the library and drives used for backup and restore. When backing up a NAS file server to Tivoli Storage Manager native pools, the TOCDESTINATION may be the same as the destination of the NDMP data. What is required for this to
happen?
A. Define a new copygroup for the TOC.
B. Define a new device class for the TOC.
C. Define a copygroup with the TOCDestination parameter.
D. Define a device class, by using the TOCDestination parameter.
Answer: C

16. What is the latest and fastest backup method for a large customer to use Network Data Management Protocol (NDMP) for the large filer?
A. the NetAppSnapMirror to Tape
B. the traditional NDMP for full backup
C. a flash-copy with SnapMirror directly to Tape
D. a block-level copy with SnapMirror directly to Tape
000-004 vce Answer: D

17. A Network Data Management Protocol (NDMP) installation is growing fast with a large filer. For these large IBM Tivoli Storage Manager nodes, a faster backup method must be implemented. Which method should be considered?
A. NDMP full
B. SnapMirror to Tape
C. NDMP differential backup
D. Incremental backup with NDMP
Answer: B

18. The Network Data Management Protocol filers must be backed up. All definitions are complete and the access to the tape environment is working properly. The backup command is not performing optimally. To allow the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager client a backup from a NetApp filer, some additional options for the backup command are required to get optimal performance. Which option should be used?
A. TYPE = BACKUP | SNAPDisk
B. TYPE = BACKUPImage | SNAPMirror
C. TYPE = BACKUPFilespace | SNAPCopy
D. TYPE = BACKUPFiller | SNAPMultiple
Answer: B

19. Which command starts the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager administrative command line interface?
A. dsmc
B. dsmadmc
C. tsmadmin
D. dsm admin
000-004 exam Answer: B

20. What are two valid options when starting the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager administrative command line interface? (Choose two.)
A. -clientmode
B. -adminmode
C. – mountmode
D. – servermode
E. – consolemode
Answer:CE

21. The exhibit represents a simple routed network. Node 7 is a Windows 2000 Professional machine that establishes a TCP communication with Node 10, a Windows 2003 Server. The routers are Cisco 2500 series running IOS 11.2. While working at Node 10, you run a packet capture. Packets received by Node 10, and sent from Node 7 will reveal which of the following combination of source IP and source Physical addresses:
A. Source IP address 10.0.10.115, Source Physical address for Node 7
B. Source IP address 50.0.50.1, Source Physical address for Node 7
C. Source IP address for Router D’s Int E0, Source Physical address for Node 7
D. Source IP address 10.0.10.115, Source Physical address Router D’s Int E0
E. Source IP addresses for both Nodes 7 and Router D’s Int E0, Source Physical address for both Nodes 7 and Router D’s Int E0.
000-004 dumps Answer:D

22. You have implemented an IPSec policy, using only AH. You are analyzing your network traffic in Network Monitor, which of the following statements are true about your network traffic?
A. You will not be able to view the data in the packets, as it is encrypted.
B. You will not be able to identify the upper layer protocol.
C. You will be able to view the unencrypted data in the packets.
D. You will be able to identify the encryption algorithm in use.
E. You will not be able to view the packet header.
Answer: C

23. In order to perform promiscuous mode captures using the Wireshark capture tool on a Windows Server 2003 machine, what must first be installed?
A. IPv4 stack
B. IPv6 stack
C. WinPcap
D. Nothing, it will capture by default
E. At least two network adapters
000-004 pdf Answer: C

24. You are configuring the rules on your firewall, and need to take into consideration that some clients in
the network are using automatic addressing. What is the IP address range reserved for internal use for
APIPA in Microsoft networks?
A. 169.254.0.0 /4
B. 169.254.0.0 /16
C. 169.254.0.0 /8
D. 169.254.0.0 /0
E. 168.255.0.0 /16
Answer: B
000-004 dumps

See What Our Customers Are Saying:

Our exam never feels satisfactory about what he achieved. Instead, we keeps on trying to provide candidates with the latest and most accurate certifications. Pass4itsure offer the most comprehensive verification questions and answers, you can also get a year of free updates.If your budget is limited, but you need complete exam material.
000-004 dumps
Pass4itsure has developed the best and the most accurate training materials about IBM 70-486 exam. The IBM 000-004 dumps IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.1 Administration exam allows students to understand and realize the benefits of IBM certifications I certification area. Students who complete IBM 000-004 dumps may get IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.1 Administration certification. Candidates can prepare for the exam by taking the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.1 Administration course. Now Pass4itsure can provide you the most comprehensive training materials about IBM 000-004 exam, including exam practice questions and answers.

  • Instant Download After Purchase
  • 100% Money Back Guarantee
  • 365 Days Free Update
  • 7000+ Satisfied Customer

If you take the time to use the Cisco training materials, you will pass your exam guaranteed. IBM https://www.pass4itsure.com/000-004.html dumos certificate can help you a lot. It can help you improve your job and living standard, and having it can give you a great sum of Pass4itsure wealth. When it comes to providing multiple platforms as well as 24 hours online support and 100% money back guarantee, you will not find another company offering so much for so little.
pass4itsure 000-004 dumps

Category: IBM | Tags: , ,

[Feb.-2018-New] Useful Cisco 642-883 Dumps SPROUTE Exam Deploying Cisco Service Provider Network Routing Video Study Will Be More Popular 130Q&As 1-14

Posted on by

Any recommendation website for Cisco 642-883 dumps exam preparation? The Deploying Cisco Service Provider Network Routing (SPROUTE) (642-883 SPROUTE) exam is a 90 minutes (65 – 75 questions) assessment in pass4itsure that is associated with the CCNP Service Provider certification. Useful Cisco 642-883 dumps SPROUTE exam Deploying Cisco Service Provider Network Routing video study will be more popular. “Deploying Cisco Service Provider Network Routing (SPROUTE)” is the exam name of Pass4itsure Cisco 642-883 dumps test which designed to help candidates prepare for and pass the Cisco 642-883 exam. Why select Pass4itsure https://www.pass4itsure.com/642-883.html dumps resources. When you invest in the product or service, all of us will offer you free bring up to date with time. The applicants walk into your assessment Place while assured being a Qualifications Administrator.

[Feb.-2018-New Cisco 642-883 Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1cHxworTp2CNJ9BobLBGoggxUdcs3CmpZ

[Feb.-2018-New Cisco 642-997 Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1o6k09erc5WVuk308EFore2tnWQd9SK7z

642-883 dumps

2018 Cisco 642-883 Dumps (All 130 Q&As) From Pass4itsure 1-14

QUESTION 1
Refer to the OSPF command exhibit.
642-883 dumps
Which effect does the no-summary command option have?
A. It will cause area 1 to be able to receive non-summarized inter-area routes.
B. It will cause area 1 to not receive any inter-area routes and will use a default route to reach networks in other areas.
C. It will cause area 1 to not receive any external routes and will use a default route to reach the external networks.
D. It will convert the NSSA area into a NSSA totally stubby area.
E. It will convert the stubby area into a NSSA.
F. It will disable OSPF auto-summary.
642-883 exam 
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
642-883 dumps

QUESTION 2
When troubleshooting OSPF neighbor errors, which three verification steps should be considered? (Choose three.)
A. Verify if neighboring OSPF interfaces are configured in the same area.
B. Verify if neighboring OSPF interfaces are configured with the same OSPF process ID.
C. Verify if neighboring OSPF interfaces are configured with the same OSPF priority.
D. Verify if neighboring OSPF interfaces are configured with the same hello and dead intervals.
E. Verify if neighboring OSPF interfaces are configured with the same area type.
Correct Answer: ADE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 3
On Cisco IOS XR Software, which set of commands is used to enable the gi0/0/0/1 interface for OSPF in area 0?
A. interface gi0/0/0/0ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.0!router ospf 1network 10.1.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0
B. interface gi0/0/0/0ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.0!router ospf 1network 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.255 area 0
C. router ospf 1area 0interface GigabitEthernet0/0/0/1
D. interface gi0/0/0/0ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.0ip ospf 1 area 0
E. router ospf 1address-family ipv4 unicastinterface GigabitEthernet0/0/0/1 area 0
F. router ospf 1address-family ipv4 unicastinterface GigabitEthernet0/0/0/1area 0

642-883 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 4
Which three statements are true regarding the OSPF router ID? (Choose three.)
A. The OSPF routing process chooses a router ID for itself when it starts up.
B. The router-id command is the preferred procedure to set the router ID.
C. If a loopback interface is configured, its address will always be preferred as the router ID over any other methods.
D. After the router ID is set, it does not change, even if the interface that the router is using for the router ID goes down. The router ID changes only if the router reloads or if the OSPF routing process restarts.
E. In OSPF version 3, the OSPF router ID uses a 128-bit number.
Correct Answer: ABD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 5
Which two OSPF network scenarios require OSPF virtual link configuration? (Choose two.)
A. to connect an OSPF non-backbone area to area 0 through another non-backbone area
B. to connect an NSSA area to an external routing domain
C. to connect two parts of a partitioned backbone area through a non-backbone area
D. to enable route leaking from Level 2 into Level 1
E. to enable route leaking from Level 1 into Level 2
F. to enable OSPF traffic engineering
642-883 pdf 
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 6
What is function of the RP/0/RSP0/CPU0:PE1(config-ospf)#distance Cisco IOS-XR command?
A. To modify the administrative distance of the OSPF routes
B. To modify the default seed metric of the OSPF external routes
C. To modify the OSPF default reference bandwidth
D. To modify the OSPF cost
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
642-883 dumps

QUESTION 7
Which four statements are correct regarding IS-IS operations? (Choose four.)
A. By default, Level 1 routers within an IS-IS area do not carry any routing information external to the area to which they belong. They use a default route to exit the area.
B. Summarization should be configured on the Level 2 routers, which injects the Level  2 routes into Level 1.
C. IS-IS supports “route leaking” in which selected Level 2 routes can be advertised by a Level 1/Level 2 router into Level 1.
D. The IS-IS backbone is a contiguous collection of Level 1 capable routers, each of which can be in a different area.
E. With IS-IS, an individual router is in only one area, and the border between areas is on the link that connects two routers that are in different areas.
F. Cisco IOS XR Software supports multitopology for IPv6 IS-IS unless single topology is explicitly configured in IPv6 address-family configuration mode.
642-883 vce 
Correct Answer: ACEF
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Single-Topology IPv6 Support
Single-topology IPv6 support on Cisco IOS XR software allows IS-IS for IPv6 to be configured on interfaces along with an IPv4 network protocol. All interfaces must be configured with the identical set of network protocols and all routers in the IS-IS area (for Level 1 routing) or the domain (for Level 2 routing) must support the identical set of network layer protocols on all interfaces. When single-topology support for IPv6 is used, only narrow link metrics, also known as old-style type, length, value (TLV) arguments, may be employed. During single-topology operation, one shortest path first (SPF) computation per level is used to compute both IPv4 and IPv6 routes. Using a single SPF is possible because both IPv4 IS-IS and IPv6 IS-IS routing protocols share a common link topology. Because multitopology is the default behavior in the software, you must explicitly configure IPv6 to use the same topology as IPv4 in order to enable single-topology IPv6. Configure the single-topology command in ipv6 address family
configuration submode of the IS-IS router stanza.
Multitopology IPv6 Support
Multitopology IPv6 support on Cisco IOS XR software differs from Cisco IOS software in that IS-IS assumes that multitopology support is required as soon as it detects interfaces configured for both IPv6 and IPv4 within the IS-IS stanza. You must use the metric-style wide command to configure IS-IS to wide link metrics as multitopology link advertisements.

QUESTION 8
The company uses a planning system that focuses first on the amount and timing of finished goods demanded and then determines the derived demand for raw
material, components, and subassemblies at each of the prior stages of production. This system is referred to as:
A. Economic order quantity.
B. Material requirements planning.
C. Linear programming.
D. Just-in-time purchasing.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Materialsrequirements planning CIRF) is usually a computer-based information systemdesigned to plan and control raw materials used in a production setting. It
assumes thatestimated demand for materials is reasonably accurate and that suppliers can deliver basedupon this accurate schedule. It is crucial that delivery
delays be avoided because, underCIRF, production delays are almost unavoidable if the materials are not on hand. An MRFsystem uses a parts list, often called a
bill of materials, and lead times for each type ofmaterial to obtain materials just as they are needed for planned production.

QUESTION 9
An inventory planning method that minimizes inventories by arranging to have raw materials and subcomponents arrive immediately preceding their use is called:
A. A. safety stock planning system.
B. An economic order quantity model.
C. A. just-in-time inventory system.
D. A master budgeting system.
642-883 exam 
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
JIT is a manufacturing philosophy popularized by the Japanese that combines purchasing,production, and inventory control. As with MFP, minimization of inventory is a goal;however, JIT also encompasses changes in the production process itself. An emphasis onquality and a “pull” of materials related to demand are key differences between JIT and MFP. The factory is organized so as to bring materials and tools close to the point of use rather thankeeping them in storage areas. A key element of the JIT system is reduction or elimination ofwaste of materials, labor, factory space, and machine usage. Minimizing inventory is the keyto reducing waste. V1lhen a part is needed on the production line, it arrives just in time, notbefore. Daily deliveries from suppliers are the ultimate objective, and some Japanese usershave been able to get twice-daily deliveries.

QUESTION 10
One of the elements included in the economic order quantity EOQ) formula is:
A. Safety stock.
B. Yearly demand.
C. Selling price of item.
D. Lead time for delivery.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The basic EOQ formula is used to minimize the total of inventory carrying and orderingcosts. The basic EOQ equals the square root of a fraction consisting of a
numerator equal tothe product of twice the unit periodic demand and the variable cost per order and adenominator equal to the unit periodic carrying cost. Using an EOQ analysis assuming aconstant demand), it is determined that the optimal order quantity is 2,500. The companydesires a safety stock of 500 units. A five day lead time is needed for delivery. Annualinventory holding costs equal 25% of the average inventory level. It costs the company U $4per unit to buy the product, which it sells for U $. It costs the company U $150 to place adetailed order, and the monthly demand for the product is 4,000 units.

QUESTION 11
Annual inventory holding costs equal:
A. US $750
B. US $1,250
C. US $1,750
D. US $2,250
642-883 dumps 
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Given that demand is constant and the EOQ is 2,500 units, the average inventory level–1without regard to safety stock is 1,250 units 2,500 – 2). Adding safety stock results in anaverage level of 1,750 units 1,250 + 500). Given also that annual holding costs are 25% ofaverage inventory and that unit cost i s U $4, total annual holding cost i s U $1 ,750 [(1 ,750units : $4) 25%]. Using an EOQ analysis assuming a constant demand), it is determined thatthe optimal order quantity is 2,500. The company desires a safety stock of 500 units. A fivedaylead time is needed for delivery. Annual inventory holding costs equal 25°!a of theaverage inventory level. It costs the company US $4 per unit to buy the product, which itsells for US $8. It costs the company US $150 to place a detailed order, and the monthlydemand for the product is 4,000 units.

QUESTION 12
Total inventory ordering costs per year equal:
A. US $1,250
B. US $2,400
C. US $2,880
D. US $3,600
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Total annual demand is 48,000 units 4,000 per month x 12). Hence, total annual orderingcosts equal US $2,880 [$150 cost per order 48,000 units – 2,500 EOQ)].

QUESTION 13
An organization sells a product for which demand is uncertain. Management would like to ensure that there is sufficient inventory on hand during periods of high demand so that it does not lose sales and customers). To do so, the organization should:
A. Keep a safety stock.
B. Use a just-in-time inventory system.
C. Employ a materials requirements planning system.
D. Keep a master production schedule.
642-883 pdf 
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Safety stock is inventory maintained to reduce the number of stockouts resulting fromhigher-than- expected demand during lead time. Maintaining a safety stock avoids the costs ofstockouts, e.g., lost sales and customer dissatisfaction.

QUESTION 14
The economic order quantity is the size of the order that minimizes total inventory costs which include ordering and holding carrying) costs. It can be calculated using the formula If Q = order size in units, D = annual demand in units, p = cost per purchase order, s = carrying cost per year for one unit of inventory. If the annual demand decreases by 369/o the optimal order size will:
A. Decrease by 20%.
B. Increase by 20°!a.
C. Increase by 6%.Decrease by 6%.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
D decreases by 36%, that is, from 100% to 64%. Because .64 is the square of .8, the EOQ for 64D Q~) equals 80°a of the EOQ for D(Q).

642-883 dumps

See What Our Customers Are Saying:

We at Pass4itsure are committed to our customer’s success. There are 50,000+ customers who used this preparation material for the preparation of various certification exams and this number of customers is enough for new candidates to trust in these products.Our Cisco 642-883 dumps are created with utmost care and professionalism. We utilize the experience and knowledge of a team of industry professionals from leading organizations all over the world.
642-883 dumps
Pass4itsure.com is the 642-883 dumps examination of the right combo in addition to will help you an individual complete quiz from the very first time. “Deploying Cisco Service Provider Network Routing (SPROUTE)”, also known as 642-883 exam, is a Cisco certification which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. Pass4itsure Cisco 642-883 dumps exam questions answers are updated (130 Q&As) are verified by experts. The associated certifications of 642-883 dumps is CCNP Service Provider. These people help to make each product or service thoroughly by using the https://www.pass4itsure.com/642-883.html dumps data of engineering.

Read More Youtube: https://youtu.be/MQUrOx5lN5Q

pass4itsure 642-883 dumps
Compared with other brands, Pass4itsure has up to dated exam information, affordable price, instant exam PDF files downloaded, error correction, unlimited install,etc. Such as Pass4itsure Useful Cisco 642-883 Dumps Exams, Real Cisco 642-883 Dumps Exam Will Be More Popular, We Help You Pass Deploying Cisco Service Provider Network Routing (SPROUTE). Simple and Easy! To take advantage of the guarantee, simply contact Customer Support, requesting the exam you would like to claim. Pass4itsure guarantee insures your success otherwise get your MONEYBACK!

[Jan.-2018-New] Importance Of The Best Cisco CCDP 300-101 Dumps ROUTE Exam Certification With New Discount Video Study

Posted on by

What is the best place for getting the Cisco 300-101 exam dumps? The Implementing Cisco IP Routing (300-101 ROUTE) exam is a 120 minutes (45-65 questions) assessment in pass4itsure that is associated with the CCNP Routing and Switching, CCDP certification. Importance of the best Cisco CCDP 300-101 dumps ROUTE exam certification with new discount video study. “Implementing Cisco IP Routing” is the exam name of Pass4itsure Cisco 300-101 dumps test which designed to help candidates prepare for and pass the Cisco 300-101 exam. The more you put into them, the more you will get out. While the actual information you receive on your way is the actual composition, Cisco https://www.pass4itsure.com/300-101.html dumps certification also indicate to business that you take your job seriously and that you are knowledgeable on the particular technology.

[Jan.-2018-New Cisco 300-101 Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWWDdYaFM0SVFwMTA

[Jan.-2018-New Microsoft 70-461 Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWRFNLVl8xNFJPejg
300-101 dumps
2018 Cisco 300-101 Dumps (All 570 Q&As) From Pass4itsure:
QUESTION 5
You have been asked to evaluate how EIGRP is functioning in a customer network.
300-101 dumps
300-101 dumps
QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit
300-101 dumps
The DHCP client is unable to receive a DHCP address from the DHCP server. Consider the following output:
hostname RouterB
!
interface fastethernet 0/0
ip address 172.31.1.1 255.255.255.0
interface serial 0/0
ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.252
!
ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 10.1.1.2
Which configuration is required on the Router B fastethernet 0/0 port in order to allow the DHCP client to successfully receive an IP address from the DHCP server?
A. RouterB(config-if)# ip helper-address 172.16.1.2
B. RouterB(config-if)# ip helper-address 172.16.1.1
C. RouterB(config-if)# ip helper-address 172.31.1.1
D. RouterB(config-if)# ip helper-address 255.255.255.255
300-101 exam 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
Which option is invalid when configuring Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding?
A. allow self ping to router
B. allow default route
C. allow based on ACL match
D. source reachable via both
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
Which traffic characteristic is the reason that UDP traffic that carries voice and video is assigned to the queue only on a link that is at least 768 kbps?
A. typically is not fragmented
B. typically is fragmented
C. causes windowing
D. causes excessive delays for video traffic

300-101 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
Refer to the following configuration command. router(config)# ip nat inside source static tcp 172.16.10.8 8080 172.16.10.8 80 Which statement about the command is true?
A. Any packet that is received in the inside interface with a source IP port address of 172.16.10.8:80 is translated to 172.16.10.8:8080.
B. Any packet that is received in the inside interface with a source IP port address of 172.16.10.8:8080 is translated to 172.16.10.8:80.
C. The router accepts only a TCP connection from port 8080 and port 80 on IP address 172.16.10.8
D. Any packet that is received in the inside interface with a source IP address of 172.16.10.8 is redirected to port 8080 or port 80.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 10
Given: Use Exhibit 1, 2, and 3 to answer the question. The azimuth and elevation charts for which type of antenna are shown in Exhibit 1?
A. Figure 1
B. Figure 2
C. Figure 3
D. Figure 4
E. Figure 5
F. Figure 6
300-101 pdf 
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 11
Multicast video applications typically require special treatment on the Wi-Fi network due to the nature of multicast traffic. Many vendors implement proprietary multicast-to-unicast conversion for this reason. Which of the following is NOT a valid reason for special unicast conversion of downlink multicast traffic?
A. In QoS WLANs, multicast traffic is always assigned to the best effort (AC_BE) transmit queue.
B. Group addressed downlink frames are not acknowledged on the wireless medium.
C. Multicast traffic must always be transmitted via omnidirectional antennas.
D. Frames with a group receiver address must always be sent at a rate in the Basic Rate Set.
Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 12
Given: Assume that music on hold (MOH) features are unicast only. What VoWiFi implementations require multicast packet delivery support by the WLAN infrastructure?
A. All VoWiFi implementations
B. Push-to-Talk VoWiFi phones
C. VoWiFi soft phones
D. FMC phones
E. Flat (non-VLAN) VoWiFi implementations
300-101 vce 
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 13
As you plan a WLAN upgrade, you have assessed the network requirements and data signatures of your applications. One of the popular applications used on your network requires high bandwidth and low to medium Wi-Fi loss, but can tolerate moderate latency and jitter. What application matches this description?
A. Voice
B. Email
C. Skype chat
D. Video-on-demand
E. Video conferencing
F. FTP
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 14
Given: The 802.11n APs you have selected for your public access deployment support many of the PHY and MAC enhancements offered by the 802.11n standard. The AP is single-band (2.4 GHz) and only allows 20 MHz channels. The WLAN radio in the AP is a 3×3 802.11n chip that supports two spatial streams. What is the maximum MCS rate that could be supported by this AP?
A. 54 Mbps
B. 65 Mbps
C. 108 Mbps
D. 144 Mbps
E. 150 Mbps
F. 300 Mbps
300-101 pdf 
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 15
As an implementation engineer, you have just received initial design specs from a network designer for your dual-band 802.11n deployment. The network design documents prescribe the following data rate configuration for the 2.4 GHz radio:
Basic Rates — 5.5, 6, 11, 12 Mbps Supported Rates —9, 18, 24, 36, 48, and 54 Mbps as well as MCS 0-15 What will result from this design strategy?
A. By disabling support for 1 and 2 Mbps while allowing 5.5 and 11 Mbps, the network will force 802.11b clients to use these higher data rates.
B. Protection mechanisms will always be in use on this network to support 5.5 and 11 Mbps as basic rates.
C. HR/DSSS (802.11b) stations will not be able to associate to the service set.
D. This configuration violates the IEEE specification that defines 6, 12, and 24 Mbps as mandatory data rates for 802.11g/n.
E. MCS 0 will represent the lowest data rate that can be used in the service set.
Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 16
Given: As the wireless network administrator for XYZ Company, you are planning to upgrade your aging wireless network infrastructure, as well as some clients, to support 802.11n. In your research, you have discovered that your new wireless client devices and infrastructure are 802.11n, WMM, and WMM-PS certified by the Wi-Fi Alliance. Some of your existing client devices are 802.11a/b/g devices that do not support WMM.
Given this information, what scenario is possible when your company’s employees begin using both types of client devices on the new WLAN?
A. All WMM-PS certified client devices will be prevented from utilizing WMM-PS features until all stations in use on the wireless medium are WMM-PS certified.
B. The WLAN infrastructure will set the dozing times of the WMM-PS certified client devices based upon their WMM access category, while the non-WMM-PS client devices will continue to use PS Poll frames.
C. Performance and battery life will be inconsistent between WMM-PS and non-WMM-PS client devices when used with applications that support WMM-PS.
D. WMM-PS enabled APs will allow both WMM-PS and non-WMM-PS stations to use the trigger and-delivery mechanism, but WMM-PS stations will get priority.
E. When all STAs are using Power Save features, WMM-PS STAs will experience poor
performance due to PS protection mechanisms.
300-101 vce 
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 17
To achieve a 450 Mbps MCS, what 802.11n features (from the numbered list below) are required?
1. Frame aggregation
2. Short GI
3. 40 MHz channels
4. 2 spatial streams
5. 3 spatial streams
6. Transmit beamforming (TxBF)
A. 1, 2, 3, 4
B. 1, 2, 3, 5
C. 1, 2, 3, 4, 6
D. 1, 2, 3, 5, 6
E. 2, 3, 4
F. 2, 3, 5
Answer: F
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 18
You are tasked with designing the WLAN to accommodate certain high density areas on your university campus where users are highly transient (frequently come and go). With a limited DHCP pool size (subnet mask = 255.255.252.0) for this WLAN subnet, you want to ensure that your DHCP addresses are used efficiently and are not exhausted, which would prevent new client associations. The DHCP server is a Windows Server 2008 machine. Your design task is to determine the best configuration to allow as many users as possible while avoiding WLAN service interruptions and also to use the available addresses as efficiently as possible. What setting would be most effective at achieving this design task?
A. Set the RTS threshold to 2346 bytes
B. Set the inactive wireless client timeout (client age-out) to 5 minutes
C. Set the maximum client limit per radio to 64
D. Set the DHCP lease for this pool to 20 minutes
E. Enable WLAN Controller DHCP relay
F. Enable mandatory admission control
G. Set the AES rekey interval to 5 minutes
H. Set the 802.1X re-authentication timer to 10 minutes
300-101 exam 
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 19
What is the DSCP Per Hop Behavior equivalent classification of the 802.11e AC_VO priority level?
A. AF31
B. CS3
C. VO
D. EF
E. AF12
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 20
You are working on a VoWLAN design with your customer’s wired networking team. How many distinct priority levels do you expect for the voice applications?
A. 1 priority level, but 2 queues (one for uplink traffic, one for downlink traffic)
B. 1 priority level per client and AP pair, so the total number depends on the expected number of clients
C. 1 priority level for voice RTP, 1 priority level for voice control and RTCP
D. 1 priority level for VoWLAN client traffic, 1 priority level for wired VoIP client traffic
300-101 dumps 
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 21
Given: Use the exhibit as a reference. ABC Company has a WLAN controller with 10 controller based APs; the Voice SSID is configured for centralized data forwarding. Each AP is connected to an access port on a layer-2 Ethernet switch. Each layer-2 switch is uplinked to a single layer-3 core Ethernet switch. The WLAN controller is connected directly to the layer-3 core Ethernet switch. Layer-3 tunnels are created between all controller-based APs and the WLAN controller. A voice server is connected to the layer-3 Ethernet switch.  When a voice-enabled QoS STA sends an IP data packet to a voice server in this scenario, the DSCP value carried in the STA’s IP data packet gets mapped to what and by which device?
A. The DSCP value is mapped to an IEEE 802.1Q priority tag value by the WLAN controller.
B. The DSCP value is mapped to the DSCP value in the encapsulating IP header by the layer-3 switch.
C. The DSCP value is mapped to an IEEE 802.1p (802.1D-2004) UP value by the access point.
D. The DSCP value is mapped to an IEEE 802.1Q VLAN tag by the access point.
E. The DSCP value is mapped to the VLAN ID by the layer-2 Ethernet switch.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 22
Given: For this fill-in the blank question, each answer option contains an answer for the first and second blanks, separated by a dash “—”. Choose the answer option that correctly fills in both blanks in the following sentence. A WLAN may use 802.11 admission control to , and admission control requirements are configured separately for each .
A. Block stations with inadequate security parameters — SSID
B. Identify voice-enabled wireless devices — AP radio (that is, 2.4 GHz or 5 GHz)
C. Regulate the available bandwidth resources — Access Category
D. Mark ingress and egress frames with priority values — TCP/IP port
E. Administer VoWiFi use policy — VLAN
300-101 pdf 
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 23
In a large enterprise (5000+ wireless users), by what recommended methods are IP addresses and VLANs assigned to different clients associated to the same AP? (Choose 3)
A. Each SSID is mapped to a static VLAN assignment
B. Upstream AAA servers dynamically assign VLANs to each user or group profile
C. Radio signal metrics (RSSI, SNR, etc.) of WLAN clients are triangulated for location based VLAN assignment during association
D. Each BSSID is assigned a unique VLAN to help manage the size of broadcast domains on the wired network
E. Multiple VLAN pools are designated for an SSID and user IP addresses are selected in a round-robin fashion from the associated pools.
F. In a centralized data forwarding model, clients automatically receive an IP address on the native VLAN of the AP’s Ethernet access port.
G. The configuration profile of the client supplicant is hard-coded with a VLAN ID.
Answer: A,B,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 24
In a multiple channel architecture (MCA) network supporting 802.1X authentication, what aspects of WLAN design affect client roaming efficiency and effectiveness? (Choose 3)
A. Channels supported by infrastructure
B. Key caching protocols
C. Cipher suite
D. PHY standard used by client
E. Supported uplink and downlink MCS rates
F. The infrastructure’s roaming algorithm
G. Channels supported and scanned by client
300-101 vce Answer: A,B,G
Explanation:

300-101 dumps
Cisco 300-101 dumps Cisco Certified Network Professional Routing and Switching Certification works a good section of any IT professional’s work, although there will always be some conversation on how essential certification is, like the greater part of products in life: “Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks”, also known as 300-101 exam, is a Cisco certification which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. Pass4itsure Cisco 300-101 dumps exam questions answers are updated (570 Q&As) are verified by experts. The associated certifications of https://www.pass4itsure.com/300-101.html dumps is CCNP Routing and Switching,CCDP.

Read More Youtube: https://youtu.be/Kzd25sHJz1A

[Jan.-2018-New] Helpful Cisco 300-070 Dumps CIPTV1 Exam CCNP Collaboration Certification 100% Pass With A High Score Youtube Training

Posted on by

How do I get the best exam collection of Cisco 300-070 dumps? The Implementing Cisco IP Telephony & Video, Part 1 v1.0 (300-070 CIPTV1) exam is a 75 Minutes (65 – 75 questions) assessment in pass4itsure that is associated with the CCNP Collaboration certification. For a more difficult and more complete Cisco Certified Network Professional Collaboration 300-070 dumps exam preparation practice test software simulates the environment of the real 300-070 exam. “Implementing Microsoft IP Telephony & Video, Part 1 v1.0” is the exam name of Pass4itsure Cisco 300-070 dumps test which designed to help candidates prepare for and pass the Cisco 300-070 exam. Pass4itsure want good results for all candidates on the first attempt but if you fail to pass you can always contact us.We provide the Cisco https://www.pass4itsure.com/300-070.html dumps exam preparation materials in two different methods, practice test software and pdf format.

[Jan.-2018-New Cisco 300-070 Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWVTN3Mm5VOFZCWVU

[Jan.-2018-New Cisco 300-101 Dumps From Google Drive]https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWWDdYaFM0SVFwMTA
300-070 dumps
2018 Cisco 300-070 Dumps (All 211 Q&As) From Pass4itsure:
QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit.
300-070 dumps
Which party has a SIP B2BUA role in the call?
A. 172.17.4.100
B. 10.100.4.65 and 172.17.4.100
C. 10.100.4.65
D. None of the parties has a B2BUA role in the call.
E. 10.100.4.68 and 10.100.4.65
300-070 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 15
A Cisco Unified Communications Manager group specifies a prioritized list of how many Cisco Unified Communications Managers?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 4
F. 5
G. 6
H. 7
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 16
When dialing 1234, which rule is matched first?
A. route pattern 1XXX
B. route pattern 12[123]X
C. translation pattern 12[123]X
D. translation pattern 1XXX
E. directory number 12345
300-070 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 17
What are the characteristics of a Cisco Unified Communications Manager group?
A. Each call-processing server can be assigned to a single Cisco Unified Communications Manager group.
B. A Cisco Unified Communications Manager group is a prioritized list of (one or more) callprocessing and application servers.
C. Each device has to have a Cisco Unified Communications Manager group assigned, which will determine the primary and backup servers to which it can register.
D. A single Cisco Unified Communications Manager group can exist in a single cluster.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
What are two characteristics of a Cisco Unified Communications Manager dial plan? (Choose two.)
A. partitions and calling search spaces
B. COR

C. dial peers
D. voice translation rules
E. route patterns
300-070 pdf Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 19
Which parameter is required on MCU for ad hoc conferencing?
A. Media Port reservation
B. incoming calls to unknown conferences or auto-attendants
C. DSP reservation for video
D. MCU type
E. MCU Conference Bridge SIP Port
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 20
You are configuring a L2TP solution between your office and your primary branch office. The CEO has requested a report on the benefits of using this technology. Which of the following benefits does L2TP (with IPSec) provide?
A. Bandwidth Management
B. Encryption
C. User Authentication
D. Packet Authentication
E. Key Management
300-070 vce 
Answer: B,D,E
QUESTION NO: 21
As you analyze the settings of the Secure Server (Require Security) IPSec policy in Windows Server 2003, you are looking at the options available for encryption and integrity. Which of the following answers presents a legitimate combination for encryption and integrity in the IPSec policy?
A. Encryption: SHA1, Integrity: 3DES
B. Encryption: 3DES, Integrity: SHA1
C. Encryption: RSA, Integrity: MD5
D. Encryption: MD5, Integrity: RSA
E. Encryption: SHA1, Integrity: MD5
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 22
You are configuring a new custom IPSec policy on your Windows Server 2003 machine. On the rules tab, you find the three default options under the IP Filter List. What are these three default options?
A. All TCP Traffic
B. All UDP Traffic
C. All IP Traffic
D. All ICMP Traffic
E. <Dynamic>
300-070 exam
Answer: C,D,E
QUESTION NO: 23
During an analysis of your IPSec implementation, you capture traffic with Network Monitor. You are verifying that IP is properly identifying AH. When you look into IP, what protocol ID would IP identify with AH?
A. Protocol ID 0x800 (800)
B. Protocol ID 0x6 (6)
C. Protocol ID 0x15 (21)
D. Protocol ID 0x33 (51)
E. Protocol ID 0x1 (1)
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 24

You are designing a new IPSec implementation for your organization, and are trying to determine your security needs. You need to clearly understand the implementation choices, before you make any changes to the network. Which of the following describes what transport and tunnel modes protect using IPSec?
A. In transport mode, IPSec protects upper-layer protocols.
B. In transport mode, IPSec protects just the TCP header.
C. In tunnel mode, IPSec protects the upper-layer protocols.
D. In transport mode, IPSec protects the entire IP packet.
E. In tunnel mode, IPSec protects the entire IP packet.
F. In tunnel mode, IPSec protects just the IP header.
300-070 dumps Answer: A,E
QUESTION NO: 25
If you wish to implement IPSec between two branch offices of your organization, and wish for this to include the encryption of the full packet, which implementation would meet your needs?
A. ESP in Transport Mode
B. AH in Transport Mode
C. ESP in Tunnel Mode
D. AH in Tunnel Mode
E. Combination of both AH and ESP in Transport Mode
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 26
In your current organization, you have been given the task of implementing the IPSec solution. All your servers are running Windows Server 2003, so you wish to use the built in policies. What are the three default IPSec policies in Windows Server 2003?
A. Server (Require Security)
B. Server (Request Security)
C. Client (Respond Only)
D. Client (Request Security)
E. Server (Respond Only)
300-070 pdf
Answer: A,B,C
QUESTION NO: 27
You have clients that are connected to your network via a VPN. What is the internetwork environment that connects the VPN Client to the VPN Server called?
A. VPN Tunnel
B. Ethernet Tunnel
C. Internet Pipe
D. Transit Network
E. Session Pipe
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 28
To verify that your PPTP implementation is working as you intended, you sniff the network after the implementation has been completed. You are looking for specific values in the captures that will indicate to you the type of packets received. You analyze the packets, including headers and payload. PPTP works at which layer of the OSI model?
A. Layer 1
B. Layer 2
C. Layer 3
D. Layer 4
E. Layer 5
300-070 vce 
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 29
You are the firewall administrator for your company and you have just learned that the Server administrators are gearing up support an L2TP based VPN solution. You are told to be sure that your firewall rule sets will not hinder the performance of the VPN. Which port, from the following list, will you have to allow through the firewall?
A. TCP 1701
B. UDP 1701
C. TCP 443
D. UDP 443
E. TCP 1601
Answer: B
QUESTION 30
When renditions are managed along with the document object’s primary rendition, which statement is true?
A. Renditions can be of any format but multiple renditions with the same format cannot exist.
B. Renditions can be of any format but multiple renditions with the same format cannot exist within the same version.
C. Renditions can be of any format.
D. Renditions can be of any format that is not the same format as the primary rendition.
300-070 exam
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 31
Which statement is true about the ability to drag and drop objects from within Webtop to the user’s local desktop?
A. The feature works when multiple files are selected.
B. The feature works only when the browser’s security level is set to Medium.
C. The feature is enabled for all users by default.
D. The feature is only available through the clipboard.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 32
What can be subscribed to in the repository?
A. A permission set
B. An object type
C. A group
D. A folder
300-070 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 33
Where in Webtop can the default application for viewing objects be set?
A. Preferences
B. Tools menu
C. Properties
D. Advanced Search
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 34
What does the Copy/Paste function in Webtop accomplish?
A. creates a link to the object in the repository
B. creates a new, unrelated object in the repository
C. copies content to be pasted into other documents
D. moves the object to another repository location
300-070 pdf
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 35
Which action does the Content Server perform when a user right-clicks an object and selects Edit?
A. It checks out the document.
B. It adds a new version to the object.
C. It adds a new rendition to the object.
D. It changes the object location within the repository.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 36
What is required for a user to initiate editing of a document in D2 that is stored in the repository?
A. The document must be the current version.
B. The document must not have any renditions.
C. The document must not be checked out.
D. The document cannot be part of a virtual document.
300-070 vce 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 37
Which statement is true regarding renditions?
A. Renditions can be added automatically using Media Transformation Services (MTS).
B. Each version of a document can have only one rendition in each file format.
C. Renditions are copied to the new version when versioning a document.
D. Renditions of a document may be edited by any user with SYSADMIN privilege in the repository and WRITE permission on the document.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 38
How are the attributes that are used in the Webtop Smart Navigation feature configured?
A. By each user, on the Advanced Search page.
B. On the repository, by the administrator, and cannot be changed by the user.
C. The attributes used are automatically computed and cannot be changed by the user.
D. By each user, in User Preferences.
300-070 exam
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 39
What is the foundation on which each search template in TaskSpace is built?
A. an object type
B. a cabinet
C. a folder or set of folders
D. a task list template
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 40
By default, which search configuration does Webtop Advanced Search allow?
A. search permission set objects
B. search file size ranges
C. search public websites
D. search specified database
300-070 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 41
What is the “Place in Text” filter available for when using CenterStage?
A. CenterStage content
B. CenterStage and Documentum repository content
C. CenterStage and intranet content
D. CenterStage and public website content
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 42
In CenterStage, which action is necessary to enable users to search for content in remote repositories?
A. Synchronize the LDAP server accounts.
B. Install ACS to enable replication.
C. Configure My Preferences to include the remote repository folders.
D. Connect the CenterStage server to the remote repository’s index servers.
300-070 pdf
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 43
A CenterStage user performs a global search and receives the error message “Authentication failed…” How can the user fix the error and successfully perform this search?
A. Provide valid credentials for the search source that failed in My Preferences.

B. Log in to the operating system as a different user.
C. Log in to CenterStage with different credentials.
D. Configure the search filter to be performed on the server that failed.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 44
What is necessary to limit a search to a single CenterStage space?
A. The search expression must be entered in the CenterStage toolbar Search field and “Search in my extra sources” must be unchecked.
B. The search expression must be entered into the Search field in the CenterStage toolbar using xPlore syntax to specify the space.
C. The space must be open. The search expression must be entered in the CenterStage toolbar Search field and “Search in my extra sources” must be unchecked.
D. The space must be open. The search expression must be entered in the space’s Search tab, in the “Search and filter content” field.
300-070 vce 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 45
How do search rankings in CenterStage appear?
A. Up to three bullets
B. Up to four bars
C. As a percentage
D. As a number from one to five
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 46
Which object properties are indexed by xPlore?
A. properties of dmr_content and dm_attribute
B. properties of dm_sysobject and subtypes of dm_sysobject
C. properties of dm_document and dmr_content
D. properties of dm_filestore and subtypes of dm_filestore
300-070 exam
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 47
If lemmatization is enabled for repository searches, what will users notice when they perform searches using Webtop?
A. Search results include variations of search terms, increasing the number of results.
B. The Preferences include settings that allow users to specify how lemmatization is applied to their searches.

C. The Advanced Search page includes an extra checkbox, allowing the user to enable lemmatization for
searching.
D. Searches have the same results but are returned more quickly.
Correct Answer: A
300-070 dumps

Pass4itsure will always accompany you during your Cisco Certified Network Professional Collaboration 300-070 dumps CIPTV1 exam preparations for the event so if any problem professional puzzle you simply contact our Cisco experts any time. “Implementing Cisco IP Telephony & Video, Part 1 v1.0”, also known as 300-070 exam, is a Cisco certification which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. The PDF format ensures portability across a number of devices to allow for preparation on the go. Pass4itsure Cisco 300-070 dumps exam questions answers are updated (211 Q&As) are verified by experts. The associated certifications of 300-070 dumps is CCNP Collaboration. With multiple modes of testing and self-assessment devices, our https://www.pass4itsure.com/300-070.html dumps practice exam is the best in the industry. Pass4itsure offers CCNP Collaboration 300-070 CIPTV1 practice test and interactive pdf.

Read More Youtube: https://youtu.be/8LY0z3tYCbM

[Jan.-2018-New] Latest Release Cisco ARCH 300-320 Dumps Answers Youtube Preparation Materials Implementing Cisco Secure Mobility Solutions

Posted on by

How I can buy best&valid Cisco 300-320 dumps? The Designing Cisco Network Service Architectures (300-320 ARCH) exam is a 75 minutes (60 – 70 questions) assessment in pass4itsure that is associated with the CCDP certification. Latest release Cisco ARCH 300-320 dumps answers Youtube preparation materials Implementing Cisco Secure Mobility Solutions. “Designing Cisco Network Service Architectures” is the exam name of Pass4itsure Cisco 300-320 dumps test which designed to help candidates prepare for and pass the Cisco 300-320 exam. So do not say you can’t. If you do not give up, the next second is hope. Quickly grab your hope, itis in the Pass4itsure’s Cisco https://www.pass4itsure.com/300-209.html dumps exam training materials.

[Jan.-2018-New Cisco 300-320 Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWck1GZWpsWHY4ZU0

[Jan.-2018-New Cisco 300-360 Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWRzV4WUQyeVN2N2c

300-320 dumps

2018 Cisco 300-320 Dumps (All 453 Q&As) From Pass4itsure:

QUESTION 4
A customer with a single Cisco Adaptive Security Appliance wants to separate multiple segments of the ecommerce network to allow for different security policies. What firewall technology accommodates these
design requirements?
A. virtual contexts
B. private VLANs
C. admission control
D. virtual private network
300-320 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
The Cisco Nexus 1000V is intended to address which disadvantage of the VMware vSphere solution?
A. Inability to deploy new functional servers without requiring physical changes on the network
B. Complexity added by the requirement for an ESX host for each virtual machine
C. Network administrators lack control of the access layer of the network
D. To increase the number of physical infrastructure and the virtual machines that can be managed

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
Which option is correct when using VSS to combine two physical switches into one logical switch?
A. Both data planes forward traffic simultaneously.
B. Only one data plane forwards traffic, while the other data plane is on standby.
C. Both control planes forward traffic simultaneously.
D. Control planes are combined into one virtual control plane.
300-320 dumps 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7
Which protocol is best when there are circuit connections with two different ISPs in a multihoming
scenario?
A. VRRP
B. BGP
C. IPsec
D. SSL
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
Which of the following two are effective and simple means of employing route summarization within the Enterprise Campus network? (Choose two)
A. A default route (0.0.0.0 /0) advertised dynamically into the rest of the network
B. Route filtering to manage traffic flows in the network, avoid inappropriate transit traffic through remote nodes, and provide a defense against inaccurate or inappropriate routing updates
C. Use manual split horizon
D. Use a structured hierarchical topology to control the propagation of EIGRP queries
E. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) stub areas
300-320 pdf 
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 9
Which protocol should be run on the LAN side of two edge routers (that are terminating primary and backup WAN circuits) to provide quick failover in case of primary WAN circuit failure?
A. VTP
B. STP
C. VRRP
D. RIP
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10 Which RMON group provides samplings of packet and error statistics captured at regular intervals?
A. events
B. alarms
C. statistics
D. history
300-320 vce 
Answer: D
QUESTION 11 How does a switch communicate bridge IDs to neighboring switches?
A. RIP
B. ICMP
C. IP
D. BPDU
Answer: D
QUESTION 12 Which of the following is a link state routing protocol?
A. IPX
B. LAT

C. IGRP
D. OSPF
300-320 exam Answer: D
QUESTION 13 Which routing solution prevents loop problems by sending a maximum hop count when a link goes down?
A. Split horizon
B. Poison reverse
C. STP D.
OSPF
Answer: B
QUESTION 14 What transport layer protocol provides a connection oriented service?
A. UDP
B. STP
C. TCP
D. ARP
300-320 dumps 
Answer: C
QUESTION 15 OSPF routers with membership in multiple areas are known as which of the following?
A. autonomous system boundary router
B. autonomous system

C. area border router
D. link-state advertisement
Answer: C
QUESTION 16 Switch sw-FWS2 (see diagram) is running 802.1w (RSTP), with default settings. It has a crossover cable between ports e38 and e48. Select the combination of port titles that match the ports.
A. e38: Root Port e48: Alternate Port
B. e38: Designated Port e48: Designated Port
C. e38: Alternate Port e48: Root Port
D. e38: Backup Port e48: Designated Port
E. e38: Designated Port e48: Backup Port.
300-320 pdf 
Answer: E
QUESTION 17 BPDUs send configuration information messages using what type of frames?
A. unicast
B. multicast
C. tcp D.
udp
Answer: B
QUESTION 18 What is the difference between TACACS+ and TACACS?
A. TACACS is an enhancement to TACACS+
B. TACACS is TCP based and TACACS+ is UDP based

C. TACACS+ provides encryption and uses TCP.
D. TACACS+ provides encryption and uses UDP.
300-320 vce 
Answer: C
QUESTION 19 What is the standard IP multicast address for all routers?
A. 224.0.0.18
B. 224.0.0.1
C. 224.0.0.0
D. 224.0.0.2
Answer: D
QUESTION 20 Which of the following ranges are defined as well-known port numbers?
A. 0-255
B. 1-256
C. 1-1023
D. 1-2048
300-320 exam
Answer: C
QUESTION 21 Which 802.1d state will a switches Root Port and Designated Port enter after the 2 nd expiration of the forwarding-delay timer.
A. Learning
B. Listening
C. Forwarding
D. Blocking
Answer: C
QUESTION 22 What are OSPF routers that run multiple protocols and serve as gateway to routers outside an area and those operating with different protocols?
A. area border router
B. autonomous system boundary router
C. autonomous system
D. redistribution router
300-320 dumps 
Answer: B
QUESTION 23 What is the maximum hop count allowed by RIP?
A. 15
B. 10
C. 255
D. no limit

Answer: A
QUESTION 24 Access list filters should be applied closest to the source node or network where you want to deny access?
A. True

B. False
300-320 pdf 
Answer: A
QUESTION 25 In this RIP network, the administrator wants to ensure that all traffic between server1 and server2 is routed through router 1 and that router 1 is seen as the primary router. To ensure that this occurs, the administrator should configure which of the following?
A. Assign higher hop counts to the router interfaces on router 1
B. Assign higher hop counts to the router interfaces on router 2
C. Assign a higher hop count between Server 1 and R1, and lower hop count between Server 2 and R1
D. Assign a lower hop count between Server 1 and R2, and a higher hop count between Server 2 and R2
Answer: B
QUESTION 26 Which STP bridge parameter manages the interval a bridge will wait for receipt of a hello packet before initiating a topology change?
A. priority
B. forward delay
C. maximum age
D. hello time
300-320 vce 
Answer: C
QUESTION 27 What routing metric does RIP use to select the best path?
A. hop count
B. delay

C. TTL
D. bandwidth
Answer: A
QUESTION 28 The diagram shows an OSPF network with no designated router (DR) and no backup designated router (BDR). Which of the following statements identifiy which routers will be selected DR and BDR?
A. Router C is DR, Router B is BDR
B. Router B is DR, Router A is BDR
C. Router B is BDR, Router A is DR
D. Router A is DR, Router C is BDR
300-320 exam
Answer: B
QUESTION 29 In which 802.1d state does a switch build its MAC tables?
A. Learning
B. Listening
C. Forwarding
D. Blocking
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 30
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET 2008 as its application development platform. You create an ASP.NET Web application using .NET Framework 3.5. You create a Web form in the application that permits users to provide personal information. You add a DropDownList control to the Web form to retrieve the residential status of users. The default item that the DropDownList control displays is the “Select Country” option. You have to ensure that users select a country other than the default option. Which of the following validation controls should you use to accomplish this task?
A. RangeValidator
B. RequiredFieldValidator
C. CustomValidator
D. RegularExpressionValidator
300-320 dumps 
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 31
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET 2005 as its application development platform. You create an application for the company. You need to validate the phone number passed to a class as a parameter in the application. Which of the following is the most effective way to verify that the format of the data matches a phone number?
A. Regular expressions
B. Nested If statements
C. Use the String.Length property
D. A try/catch block
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 32
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET 2005 as its application development platform. You have recently finished development of a Windows application using .NET Framework. Users report that the application is not running properly. When the users try to complete a particular action, the following error message comes out: Unable to find assembly ‘myservices, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=29b5ad26c9de9b95′. You notice that the error occurs as soon as the application tries to call functionality in a serviced component that was registered by using the following command: regsvcs.exe myservices.dll You must make sure that the application can call the functionality in the serviced component with no exceptions being thrown. What will you do to accomplish this task?
A. Run the command line tool: regasm.exe myservices.dll.
B. Copy the serviced component assembly into the C:\Program Files\ComPlus Applications folder.
C. Run the command line tool: gacutil.exe /i myservices.dll.
D. Copy the serviced component assembly into the C:\WINDOWS\system32\Com folder.
300-320 pdf 
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 33
Allen works as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio.NET as its application development platform. He creates an application using .NET Framework. He wants to encrypt all his e-mails that he sends to anyone. Which of the following will he use to accomplish the task?
A. PPP
B. FTP
C. PPTP
D. PGP
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 34
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company has several branches worldwide. The company uses Visual Studio.NET 2005 as its application development platform. You have recently finished the development of an application using .NET Framework 2.0. The application can be used only for cryptography. Therefore, you have implemented the application on a computer. What will you call the computer that implemented cryptography?
A. Cryptographic toolkit
B. Cryptosystem
C. Cryptographer
D. Cryptanalyst
300-320 vce 
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 35
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET as its application development platform. You create a class library using the .NET Framework. The library will be used to open the NSCs of computers. Later, you will set up the class library to the GAC and provide it Full Trust permission. You write down the following code segments for the socket connections: SocketPermission permission = new SocketPermission(PermissionState.Unrestricted); permission.Assert();
A number of the applications that use the class library may not have the necessary permissions to open the network socket connections. Therefore, you are required to withdraw the assertion. Which of the following code segments will you use to accomplish the task?
A. permission.PermitOnly();
B. CodeAccessPermission.RevertDeny();
C. permission.Deny();
D. CodeAccessPermission.RevertAssert();
E. permission.Demand();
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 36
You work as an Application Developer for ABC Inc. You are assigned with developing a Web site that will handle information related to monthly sales of the company. You wish to secure the Web site so that only employees of the Accounts department can view the Web pages. You need to create roles for the employees of this department. The user account information will be stored in a SQL Server database named Database. You decide to do all this by using the Web Site Administration Tool. Which of the following types of security will you use to accomplish the task?
A. Forms-based authentication
B. Integrated Microsoft Windows authentication
C. Basic authentication
D. Digest authentication
300-320 exam
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 37
You work as a Software Developer for ManSoft Inc. The company uses Visual Studio.NET 2005 as its application development platform. You have recently created an application that includes the code shown below.
string str1 = “ABC”;
string str2 = “u”;
str2 += “Certify”;
Console.WriteLine(str1 == str2);
Console.WriteLine((Object) str1 == (Object) str2);
Console.WriteLine(str1.Equals(str2));
What will be the output of the above code?
A. False
False
False
B. False
True
False
C. True
True
True
D. True
False
True
Answer: D
300-320 dumps

Pass4itsure’s Cisco 300-320 dumps exam training materials is a very good training materials. “Designing Cisco Network Service Architectures”, also known as 300-320 exam, is a Cisco certification which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. Pass4itsure can help you to pass the exam successfully. Pass4itsure Cisco 300-320 dumps exam questions answers are updated (453 Q&As) are verified by experts. The associated certifications of https://www.pass4itsure.com/300-209.html dumps is CCDP. And its price is very reasonable, you will benefit from it.

Read More Youtube: https://youtu.be/_P3bCejtO8o

[Jan.-2018-New] Real Cisco SIMOS 300-209 Dumps Exam Answers Certified Professional Youtube Preparation Materials Are The Best Materials

Posted on by

What are the suggestions to get a good score in CCNP Security 300-209 dumps?  The Implementing Cisco Secure Mobility Solutions (300-209 SIMOS) exam is a 90 minutes (65 – 75 questions) assessment in pass4itsure that is associated with the CCNP Security certification. Real Cisco SIMOS 300-209 dumps exam answers Certified Professional Youtube preparation materials are the best materials. “Implementing Microsoft Secure Mobility Solutions” is the exam name of Pass4itsure Cisco 300-209 dumps test which designed to help candidates prepare for and pass the Cisco 300-209 exam. Once the choice is made, the person has to prepare for the Cisco https://www.pass4itsure.com/300-209.html dumps specialist certification exam. Excellent preparation is necessary to clear the Cisco 300-209 exam in the first sitting.

[Jan.-2018-New Cisco 300-209 Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWTlN6bWE4ckRMNmc

[Jan.-2018-New Cisco 300-320 Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWck1GZWpsWHY4ZU0
300-209 dumps
2018 Cisco 300-209 Dumps (All 271 Q&As) From Pass4itsure:
QUESTION 6
Which three plugins are available for clientless SSL VPN? (Choose three.)
A. CIFS
B. RDP2
C. SSH
D. VNC
E. SQLNET
F. ICMP
300-209 exam 
Correct Answer: BCD
Explanation
QUESTION 7
Which command identifies an AnyConnect profile that was uploaded to the router flash?
A. crypto vpn anyconnect profile SSL_profile flash:simos-profile.xml
B. svc import profile SSL_profile flash:simos-profile.xml
C. anyconnect profile SSL_profile flash:simos-profile.xml
D. webvpn import profile SSL_profile flash:simos-profile.xml
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 8
Which algorithm is replaced by elliptic curve cryptography in Cisco NGE?
A. 3DES
B. AES
C. DES
D. RSA
300-209 dumps 
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 9
Which two types of authentication are supported when you use Cisco ASDM to configure site-to-site IKEv2 with IPv6? (Choose two.)
A. preshared key
B. webAuth
C. digital certificates
D. XAUTH
E. EAP
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 10
Which DAP endpoint attribute checks for the matching MAC address of a client machine?
A. device
B. process
C. antispyware
D. BIA
300-209 pdf 
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 11
A user with IP address 10.10.10.10 is unable to access a HTTP website at IP address 209.165.200.225 through a Cisco ASA. Which two features and commands will help troubleshoot the issue? (Choose two.)
A. Capture user traffic using command capture capin interface inside match ip host 10.10.10.10 any
B. After verifying that user traffic reaches the firewall using syslogs or captures, use packet tracer command packet-tracer input inside tcp 10.10.10.10 1234 209.165.200.225 80
C. Enable logging at level 1 and check the syslogs using commands logging enable, logging buffered 1 and show logging | include 10.10.10.10
D. Check if an access-list on the firewall is blocking the user by using command show running-config access-list | include 10.10.10.10
E. Use packet tracer command packet-tracer input inside udp 0.10.10.10 1234192.168.1.3 161 to see what the firewall is doing with the user’s traffic
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 12 What are two valid reasons for creating a cloned application in MAXIMO? (Choose two.)
A.to access data from multiple MAXIMO databases
B.to restrict data access for a specific group of users
C.to allow various screen configurations for presenting the same data
D.to capture custom data not related to any existing MAXIMO application
300-209 vce 
Answer: BC
QUESTION 13 Which three types of records can be assigned a Failure Class? (Choose three.)
A.Stock Item
B.Equipment

C.Work Order
D.Operating Location
Answer: BCD
QUESTION 14 Against which kind of record can downtime be reported?
A.Location
B.Equipment

C.Condition Monitoring
D.Preventive Maintenance
300-209 exam Answer: B
QUESTION 15 Which two statements are true about setting up and working with Master PM? (Choose two.)
A.The Master PM can override an Associated PM’s Job Plan Sequence.
B.Checking the Override Master PM Updates? check box updates the associated PM’s values with the Master PM values.
C.Start Date, Seasonal Date, and Extended date are the only date fields that Master PMs can update on Associated PMs.
D.Last Target Start Date, Last Completion Date, Meter 1 Estimated Next Due Date, and Meter 2 Estimated Next Due Date are the only fields that Master PMs can update on Associated PMs.
Answer: AC
QUESTION 16 The Work Order Failure Class field gets populated automatically from which two applications? (Choose two.)
A.PM
B.Labor
C.Job Plan
D.Locations
E.Equipment

300-209 dumps Answer: DE
QUESTION 17 Which statement about receipt of rotating equipment is true?
A.An equipment number must be assigned to each item.
B.Partial receipts are not allowed for rotating equipment.
C.You can receive the equipment before the PO is approved.
D.The equipment must be received into an inventory storeroom.
Answer: A
QUESTION 18 Which type of inventory adjustment must you perform to have the MAXIMO Inventory table contain the number of items actually in the bin (as verified by the storeroom clerk)?
A.inventory transfer

B.physical count adjustment
C.current balance adjustment
D.reconcile balances adjustment
300-209 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION 19 What is the difference between a network and a hierarchy?
A.A network is a collection of locations and a hierarchy is a collection of locations.
B.A hierarchy logically arranges locations and a network connects the hierarchies.
C.A network is a collection of hierarchies and a hierarchy is a collection of networks.
D.A location in a hierarchy has only one parent and a location in a network can have multiple parents.
Answer: D
QUESTION 20 Which file is accessed when the Application Server is started?
A.WIN.ini
B.SQL.ini

C.Maximo.ini
D.MAXIMO.properties
E.MXServer.properties
300-209 vce 
Answer: E
QUESTION 21 Which applications are within the Control Center?

A.System Security, Currency Manager, and Application setup
B.System Administration, Administrative setup, and Site setup
C.Chart of Accounts, Signature Security, and Asset Catalog setup
D.Multisite setup, Asset Manager setup, and WorkManager Designer
Answer: C
QUESTION 22 What publishes the MAXIMO Application when accessing it through the browser? (Choose two.)

A.MXServer
B.BEA Weblogic
C.Apache Server
D.Internet Information Server
E.IBM Websphere
300-209 exam 
Answer: BE
QUESTION 23 Which four functions does the Signature Security application allow the system administrator to perform? (Choose four.)
A.specify purchasing limits
B.specify access to labor information
C.specify Internet and firewall security
D.change passwords and set password expiration intervals
E.specify editing privileges for GL Account code components
F.specify privileges for both MAXIMO application and database security
Answer: BDEF
QUESTION 24 Which four functions does the Signature Security application allow the system administrator to perform? (Choose four.)
A.specify a user’s default Start Center
B.specify storeroom access privileges
C.specify GL Account validation parameters
D.specify privileges for MAXIMO applications
E.specify SQL privileges for MAXIMO database access
F.specify electronic audit settings (for example, which table columns should be audited)
300-209 dumps 
Answer: ABDE
QUESTION 25 When are application access privileges for a user set?
A.when initially creating the user
B.when assigning the user to a site

C.when assigning the user to a group
D.when assigning a Start Center to the user
Answer: C
QUESTION 26 Which two tasks can be accomplished using Database Configuration? (Choose two.)
A.adding new columns to an existing table
B.specifying currency codes and exchange rates
C.setting up electronic signature and audit records

D.specifying Chart of Accounts combination values
300-209 pdf 
Answer: AC
QUESTION 27 Which statement is FALSE about MAXIMO ESig and EAudit capabilities?
A.Specific menu items can be identified for ESig.
B.ESig and EAudit can track database changes made by external applications.
C.Specific columns on specific tables can be identified for ESig and EAudit.
D.ESig and EAudit can provide a record of specific changes made by specific users.
Answer: B
QUESTION 28 Which two statements are true about establishing a GL Account structure? (Choose two.)
A.An optional component may be specified.
B.Delimiters are always written to the database.
C.Partially-defined accounts can be made mandatory.
D.Optional components can be placed between two mandatory segments.
300-209 vce 
Answer: AC
QUESTION 29 Which file contains the configuration parameters for the Mail Server, Workflow, Actuate Server, and the webMethods B2B Server?
A.Win.ini B.SQL.ini
C.Maximo.ini
D.Maximo.properties
E.MXServer.properties
Answer: E
QUESTION 30 Which of the following configuration parameters is NOT included in the MXServer.properties file?
A.Actuate connectivity
B.data base connectivity
C.automated process / cron jobs
D.capturing diagnostic messages
E.launching the application server
300-209 exam 
Answer: E
QUESTION 31 Which application is used to modify delivered MAXIMO reports?
A.BRIO Workbench
B.Actuate ReportCast
C.eReport Designer Professional
D.Actuate Administrative Desktop tool

Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 32
As per the specifications of the RFC on TCP, identify from the list below the correct order of the Control Bits in the TCP header from the left to the right (i.e., in the order they are sent):
A. PSH, URG, ACK, RST, SYN, FIN
B. SYN, FIN, ACK, PSH, RST, URG
C. ACK, SYN, FIN, URG, PSH, RST
D. URG, ACK, PSH, RST, SYN, FIN
E. FIN, SYN, URG, ACK, PSH, RST
300-209 dumps 
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 32
Network Monitor was run on a Windows Server 2003. The exhibit shows the actual contents of a Network Monitor capture file. What are the IP addresses of the source and destination hosts involved in this communication? To help you determine the two hosts, they have been outlined within the captured content.
A. 10.18.10.211 & 10.18.71.12
B. 10.28.33.131 & 10.28.64.20
C. 172.16.30.1 & 172.16.30.2
D. 17.26.30.1 & 19.26.30.2
E. 212.168.15.1 & 192.168.15.2
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 33
The exhibit shows a router with three interfaces E0, E1 and S0. Interfaces E0 and E1 are connected to internal networks 192.168.10.0 and 192.168.20.0 respectively and interface S0 is connected to the Internet. The objective is to allow only network 192.168.20.0 to access e-commerce Web sites on the Internet, while allowing all internal hosts to access resources within the internal network. From the following, select all the access list statements that are required to make this possible.
A. access-list 113 permit tcp 192.168.20.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 80
B. access-list 113 permit tcp 192.168.20.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 53
C. access-list 113 permit tcp 192.168.20.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 443
D. access-list 113 permit tcp 192.168.20.0 0.0.0.255 any lt 1023
E. int S0, ip access-group 113 in F.
int E1, ip access-group 113 in G.
int S0, ip access-group 113 out
Answer: A,B,C,G
QUESTION NO: 34
What is the function of the following configuration fragment?
Router#configure terminal
Router(config)#line vty 0 4
Router(config-line)#transport input ssh telnet
Router(config-line)#^Z
Router#
A. The router will attempt to use SSH first, then use Telnet
B. The router will attempt to use Telnet first, then use SSH
C. The router will accept only SSH on VTY 0 4
D. The router will accept both Telnet and SSH connections
E. The router will accept only Telnet on VTY 0 4
300-209 pdf 
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 35
The exhibit shows a router with three interfaces E0, E1 and S0. Interfaces E0 and E1 are connected to internal networks 192.168.10.0 and 192.168.20.0 respectively and interface S0 is connected to the Internet. The objective is to allow two hosts, 192.168.20.16 and 192.168.10.7 access to the Internet while all other hosts are to be denied Internet access. All hosts on network 192.168.10.0 and 192.168.20.0 must be allowed to access resources on both internal networks. From the following, select all the access list statements that are required to make this possible.
A. access-list 53 permit 192.168.20.16 0.0.0.0
B. access-list 80 permit 192.168.20.16 0.0.0.0
C. access-list 53 deny 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255
D. access-list 80 permit 192.168.10.7 0.0.0.0
E. int S0, ip access-group 53 out
F. int S0, ip access-group 80 out
Answer: B,D,F
QUESTION NO: 36
You are going to migrate the Cisco routers in your network from RIPv1 to RIPv2. What is a security advantage that RIPv2 provides over RIPv1?
A. RIPv2 encrypts all of the router updates
B. RIPv2 encrypts all the payloads in router updates
C. RIPv2 provides for authentication using Smart Cards and Kerberos
D. RIPv2 provides for authentication using NTLMv2
E. RIPv2 allows for authentication of updates
300-209 vce 
Answer: E
QUESTION NO: 37
The exhibit shows a router with three interfaces E0, E1 and S0. Interfaces E0 and E1 are connected to internal networks 192.168.10.0 and 192.168.20.0 respectively and interface S0 is connected to the Internet. The objective is to allow host 192.168.10.7 access to the Internet via ftp and deny access to the Internet to everyone else while allowing them to access resources amongst themselves. From the following, select all the access list statements that are required to make this possible.
A. access-list 153 permit tcp 192.168.10.7 0.0.0.0 any eq ftp
B. access-list 21 permit ip 192.168.10.7 0.0.0.0 any eq ftp
C. access-list 21 deny 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255
D. int S0, ip access-group 21 out
E. int S0, ip access-group 153 out
F. int E1, ip access-group 153 in
Answer: A,E
QUESTION NO: 38
You are configuring the Access Lists for your new Cisco Router. The following are the commands that are entered into the router for the list configuration. Router(config)#access-list 131 deny tcp 10.10.0.0 0.0.255.255 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 eq 23
Router(config)#access-list 131 permit ip 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255
Router(config)#interface Serial 0
Router(config-if)#ip access-group 131 out
Based on this configuration, and using the exhibit, select the answers that identify what the list will
  accomplish.
A. Block all FTP Data traffic to the Internet
B. Block all FTP Control traffic to the Internet
C. Block all SMTP traffic to the Internet
D. Permit all non-Telnet traffic to the Internet
E. Block all Telnet traffic to the Internet
300-209 exam 
Answer: D,E
QUESTION NO: 39
You are configuring the Access Lists for your new Cisco Router. The following are the commands that are entered into the router for the list configuration.
Router(config)#access-list 171 permit tcp 10.10.0.0 0.0.255.255 any eq 80
Router(config)#access-list 171 deny tcp 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 10.10.0.0 0.0.255.255 eq 80
Router(config)#access-list 171 deny tcp any any eq 23
Router(config)#access-list 171 permit tcp 10.10.0.0 0.0.255.255 any eq 20
Router(config)# access-list 171 permit tcp 10.10.0.0 0.0.255.255 any eq 21
Based on this configuration, and using the exhibit, select the answers that identify how the router will deal with network traffic.

A. Permit WWW traffic to the Internet
B. Deny WWW traffic to the internal networks
C. Deny all Telnet traffic
D. Permit FTP traffic to the Internet
E. Permit FTP traffic to the internal networks
Answer: A,D,E
300-209 dumps

In order for individual to appear attractive in the market, certifications are necessary. A certificate possesses a lot of value and obtaining one is not as easy as it seems. “Implementing Cisco Secure Mobility Solutions”, also known as 300-209 exam, is a Cisco certification which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. Pass4itsure Cisco 300-209 dumps exam questions answers are updated (271 Q&As) are verified by experts. The associated certifications of 300-209 dumps is CCNP Security. Making the right choice is imperative. One has to be careful as to choose the professional https://www.pass4itsure.com/300-209.html dumps certification that best suits his strengths.

Read More Youtube: https://youtu.be/1trxoYGL_V8

[Jan.-2018-New] High Quality Cisco 100-105 Dumps ICND1 Exam Actual Test With The Youtube Knowledge And Skills

Posted on by

Has anyone recently appeared for the Cisco 100-105 dumps and cleared it? The Cisco Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1 v3.0) (100-105 ICND1) exam is a 90 Minutes (45-55 questions) assessment in pass4itsure that is associated with the CCENT, CCNA Routing & Switching, CCDA, CCNA Security, CCNA Wireless certification. High quality Cisco 100-105 dumps ICND1 exam actual test with the Youtube knowledge and skills. “Cisco Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1 v3.0)” is the exam name of Pass4itsure Cisco 100-105 dumps test which designed to help candidates prepare for and pass the Cisco 100-105 exam. With the help of the practice test software,the candidate can check their https://www.pass4itsure.com/100-105.html exam preparation progress and can improve their Cisco Certified Network Associative Routing & Switching certification exam. Pass4itsure want good results for all candidates on the first attempt but if you fail to pass you can always contact us.

[Jan.-2018-New Cisco 100-105 Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWeVQ5WUxjZG1Idnc

[Jan.-2018-New Cisco 200-105 Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWWWw0QXQxY3R1X1E
100-105 dumps
2018 Cisco 100-105 Dumps (All 332 Q&As) From Pass4itsure:
QUESTION 13
What two things does a router do when it forwards a packet? (Choose two.)
A. switches the packet to the appropriate outgoing interfaces
B. computes the destination host address
C. determines the next hop on the path
D. updates the destination IP address
E. forwards ARP requests
100-105 exam Correct Answer: AC
Explanation/Reference:
A primary function of a router is to forward packets toward their destination. This is accomplished by using a switching function, which is the process used by a router to accept a packet on one in

QUESTION 14
What command sequence will configure a router to run OSPF and add network 10.1.1.0 /24 to area 0?
A. router ospf area 0 network 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 area 0
B. router ospf network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255
C. router ospf 1 network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
D. router ospf area 0 network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
E. router ospf network 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 area 0
F. router ospf 1 network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255
Correct Answer: C
Explanation/Reference:
Enabling OSPFSUMMARY STEPS
1.enable
2.configureterminal
3.router ospfprocess-id
4.networkip-addresswildcard-maskareaarea-id
5.end
QUESTION 15
The network administrator is using a Windows PC application that is called putty.exe for remote communication to a switch for network troubleshooting. Which two protocols could be used during this communication? (Choose two.)
A. SNMP
B. HTTP
C. Telnet
D. RMON
E. SSH
100-105 dumps Correct Answer: CE
Explanation/Reference:
PuTTY is a free implementation of Telnet and SSH for Windows and Unix platforms, and is used to connect to Cisco and other networking devices using SSH or Telnet.

QUESTION 16
Which three statements are true about the operation of a full-duplex Ethernet network? (Choose three.)
A. There are no collisions in full-duplex mode.
B. A dedicated switch port is required for each full-duplex node.
C. Ethernet hub ports are preconfigured for full-duplex mode.
D. In a full-duplex environment, the host network card must check for the availability of the network media before transmitting.
E. The host network card and the switch port must be capable of operating in full duplex mode.
Correct Answer: ABE
Explanation/Reference:
Half-duplex Ethernet is defined in the original 802.3 Ethernet and Cisco says you only use one wire pair with a digital signal running in both directions on the wire. It also uses the CSMA/CD prot
QUESTION 17
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
An administrator replaced the 10/100 Mb NIC in a desktop PC with a 1 Gb NIC and now the PC will not connect to the network. The administrator began troubleshooting on the switch. Using the switch output shown, what is the cause of the problem?
A. Speed is set to 100Mb/s.
B. Input flow control is off.
C. Encapsulation is set to ARPA.
D. The port is administratively down.
E. The counters have never been cleared.

100-105 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation/Reference:
For PC to switch connectivity, the speed settings must match. In this case, the 1 Gb NIC will not be able to communicate with a 100Mb fast Ethernet interface, unless the 1Gb NIC can be configured to
QUESTION 18
Identify the four valid IPv6 addresses. (Choose four.)
A. ::
B. ::192:168:0:1
C. 2000::
D. 2001:3452:4952:2837::
E. 2002:c0a8:101::42
F. 2003:dead:beef:4dad:23:46:bb:101
Correct Answer: ABEF
Explanation/Reference:
100-105 dumps
QUESTION 19
What is the purpose of flow control?
A. To ensure data is retransmitted if an acknowledgement is not received.
B. To reassemble segments in the correct order at the destination device.
C. To provide a means for the receiver to govern the amount of data sent by the sender.
D. To regulate the size of each segment.
100-105 vce Correct Answer: C
Explanation/Reference:
Flow control is the management of data flow between computers or devices or between nodes in a network so that the data can be handled at an efficient pace. Too much data arriving before a device ca
QUESTION 20
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
A network associate has configured OSPF with the command: City(config-router)# network 192.168.12.64 0.0.0.63 area 0 After completing the configuration, the associate discovers that not all the interfaces are participating in OSPF. Which three of the interfaces shown in the exhibit will participate in OSPF according to this configuration statement? (Choose three.)
A. FastEthernet0 /0
B. FastEthernet0 /1
C. Serial0/0
D. Serial0/1.102
E. Serial0/1.103

F. Serial0/1.104
Correct Answer: BCD
Explanation/Reference:
The andquot;network 192.168.12.64 0.0.0.63 equals to network 192.168.12.64/26. This network has: + Increment: 64 (/26= 1111 1111.1111 1111.1111 1111.1100 0000) + Network address: 192
QUESTION 21
Which address type does a switch use to make selective forwarding decisions?
A. Source IP address
B. Destination IP address
C. Source and destination IP address
D. Source MAC address
E. Destination MAC address
100-105 exam Correct Answer: E
Explanation/Reference:
Switches analyze the destination MAC to make its forwarding decision since it is a layer 2 device. Routers use the destination IP address to make forwarding decisions.
QUESTION 22
Which two VLANs are reserved for system use only? (Choose two)
A. 1
B. 4095
C. 4096
D. 0
E. 1001
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The VLANs 0 and 4095 are reserved by the IEEE 802.1Q standard and you cannot create, delete, or modify them so they are the correct answers.

Note:
QUESTION 23
SW-C has just been added to the network shown in the graphic 100-105 dumps
What is the purpose of assigning a default gateway to this switch?
A. allows connectivity to Router B from the switch prompt
B. allows console port connectivity to the switch from Host A
C. allows connectivity to remote network devices from Host B
D. allows the switch to pass traffic between Host A and Host B
100-105 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 24
100-105 dumps
100-105 dumps
QUESTION 25 What is the bandwidth on the WAN interface of Router 1?
A. 16 Kbit/sec
B. 32 Kbit/sec
C. 64 Kbit/sec

D. 128 Kbit/sec
E. 512 Kbit/sec
F. 1544 Kbit/sec
Correct Answer: A
Explanation/Reference:
Use the andquot;show interface s0/0andquot; to see the bandwidth set at 16 Kbit/sec. The show interface s0/0
QUESTION 26. More sophisticated IDSs look for common shellcode signatures. But even these systems can be bypassed, by using polymorphic shellcode. This is a technique common among virus writers ?it basically hides the true nature of the shellcode in different disguises. How does a polymorphic shellcode work?
A. They encrypt the shellcode by XORing values over the shellcode, using loader code to decrypt the shellcode, and then executing the decrypted shellcode
B. They convert the shellcode into Unicode, using loader to convert back to machine code then executing them
C. They reverse the working instructions into opposite order by masking the IDS signatures
D. They compress shellcode into normal instructions, uncompress the shellcode using loader code and then executing the shellcode
Answer: A
QUESTION 27 SYN Flood is a DOS attack in which an attacker deliberately violates the three-way handshake and opens a large number of half-open TCP connections. The signature of attack for SYN Flood contains:

A. The source and destination address having the same value
B. A large number of SYN packets appearing on a network without the corresponding
reply packets
C. The source and destination port numbers having the same value
D. A large number of SYN packets appearing on a network with the corresponding reply packets
100-105 pdf 
Answer: B
QUESTION 28 Which of the following type of scanning utilizes automated process of proactively identifying vulnerabilities of the computing systems present on a network?
A. Port Scanning
B. Single Scanning

C. External Scanning
D. Vulnerability Scanning
Answer: D
QUESTION 29 The following script shows a simple SQL injection. The script builds an SQL query by concatenating hard-coded strings together with a string entered by the user: The user is prompted to enter the name of a city on a Web form. If she enters Chicago, the query assembled by the script looks similar to the following: SELECT * FROM OrdersTable WHERE ShipCity = ‘Chicago’ How will you delete the OrdersTable from the database using SQL Injection?
A. Chicago’; drop table OrdersTable –

B. Delete table’blah’; OrdersTable –
C. EXEC; SELECT * OrdersTable > DROP –
D. cmdshell’; ‘del c:\sql\mydb\OrdersTable’ //
100-105 vce 
Answer: A
QUESTION 30 What are the limitations of Vulnerability scanners? (Select 2 answers)
A. There are often better at detecting well-known vulnerabilities than more esoteric ones
B. The scanning speed of their scanners are extremely high
C. It is impossible for any, one scanning product to incorporate all known vulnerabilities in a timely manner
D. The more vulnerabilities detected, the more tests required
E. They are highly expensive and require per host scan license
Answer: A,C
QUESTION 31 Stephanie works as senior security analyst for a manufacturing company in Detroit. Stephanie manages network security throughout the organization. Her colleague Jason told her in confidence that he was able to see confidential corporate information posted on the external website. He tries random URLs on the company’s website and finds confidential information leaked over the web. Jason says this happened about a month ago. Stephanie visits the said URLs, but she finds nothing. She is very concerned about this, since someone should be held accountable if there was sensitive information posted on the website. Where can Stephanie go to see past versions and pages of a website?
A. She should go to the web page Samspade.org to see web pages that might no longer be on the website
B. If Stephanie navigates to Search.com; she will see old versions of the company website
C. Stephanie can go to Archive.org to see past versions of the company website
D. AddressPast.com would have any web pages that are no longer hosted on the company’s website
100-105 exam 
Answer: C
QUESTION 32 Dan is conducting penetration testing and has found a vulnerability in a Web Application which gave him the sessionID token via a cross site scripting vulnerability. Dan wants to replay this token. However,
  the session ID manager (on the server) checks the originating IP address as well. Dan decides to spoof his IP address in order to replay the sessionID. Why do you think Dan might not be able to get an interactive session?
A. Dan cannot spoof his IP address over TCP network
B. The scenario is incorrect as Dan can spoof his IP and get responses
C. The server will send replies back to the spoofed IP address
D. Dan can establish an interactive session only if he uses a NAT
Answer: C
QUESTION 33 Jason works in the sales and marketing department for a very large advertising agency located in Atlanta. Jason is working on a very important marketing campaign for his company’s largest client. Before the project could be completed and implemented, a competing advertising company comes out with the exact same marketing materials and advertising, thus rendering all the work done for Jason’s client
unusable. Jason is questioned about this and says he has no idea how all the material ended up in the hands of a competitor. Without any proof, Jason’s company cannot do anything except move on. After working on another high profile client for about a month, all the marketing and sales material again ends up in the hands of another competitor and is released to the public before Jason’s company can finish the project. Once again, Jason says that he had nothing to do with it and does not know how this could have happened. Jason is given leave with pay until they can figure out what is going on. Jason’s supervisor decides to go through his email and finds a number of emails that were sent to the competitors that ended up with the marketing material. The only items in the emails were attached jpg files, but nothing else. Jason’s supervisor opens the picture files, but cannot find anything out of the ordinary with them. What technique has Jason most likely used?
A. Stealth Rootkit Technique
B. ADS Streams Technique
C. Snow Hiding Technique
D. Image Steganography Technique
100-105 dumps 
Answer: D
QUESTION 34 What type of Virus is shown here?
A. Cavity Virus
B. Macro Virus
C. Boot Sector Virus
D. Metamorphic Virus
E. Sparse Infector Virus

Answer: E
100-105 dumps

“Cisco Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1 v3.0)”, also known as 100-105 exam, is a Cisco certification which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. Pass4itsure Cisco 100-105 dumps exam questions answers are updated (332 Q&As) are verified by experts. The associated certifications of 100-105 dumps is CCENT, CCNA Routing & Switching, CCDA, CCNA Security, CCNA Wireless. It allows the candidate to determine their strength and area of practice.Pass4itsure will always accompany you during your Cisco Certified Network Associative Routing & Switching https://www.pass4itsure.com/100-105.html dumps ICND1 exam preparations for the event so if any problem professional puzzle you simply contact our Cisco experts anytime.

Read More Youtube: https://youtu.be/ROy_RACXzTY

[Dec.-2017-New] Up To Dated Cisco CIVND 210-065 Dumps Exam Question Answers (PDF) Download Free Youtube Training

Posted on by

Why is the Cisco new 400-101 dumps test chosen by so many IT candidates? The Implementing Cisco Video Network Devices v1.0 (210-065 CIVND) exam is a 75 Minutes (55 – 65 questions) assessment in pass4itsure that is associated with the CCNA Collaboration, Cisco Video Network Specialist certification. Up to dated Cisco CIVND 210-065 dumps exam question answers (pdf) download free Youtube training. “Implementing Cisco Video Network Devices v1.0” is the exam name of Pass4itsure Cisco 210-065 dumps test which designed to help candidates prepare for and pass the Cisco 210-065 exam.

We do not offer the only discount for existing members but also for new Implementing Cisco Video Network Devices (CIVND) exam students. With the development in IT field we also add more offers and exciting learning modes in very less dollars. Buy Cisco https://www.pass4itsure.com/210-065.html dumps CIVND exam questions and boost your career.

[Dec.-2017-New Cisco 210-065 Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWQk1xeU5TZ3ExalE

[Dec.-2017-New Cisco 400-101 Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWczJDVzl1SUJLWms
210-065 dumps
2017 Cisco 210-065 Dumps (All 281 Q&As) From Pass4itsure:
QUESTION 87
When configuring the Cisco TelePresence System 500 with a static IP address, where should the IP address be configured?
A. in Cisco Unified Communications Manager after adding the Cisco TelePresence System 500 manually
B. in the Cisco TelePresence System Administration tool
C. in the Cisco TelePresence Management Suite after the Cisco TelePresence System 500 was added under systems
D. Static IP address configuration is not possible. Only a DHCP-provided IP address is supported.
E. using the on-screen display
210-065 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 88
A customer requests a configuration that enables users to easily add a third party to an existing call. The environment contains only three Cisco TelePresence C40 codecs and one Cisco VCS. To achieve the customer\’s requirements, which feature should be added?
A. Cisco MultiWay
B. Cisco TelePresence Conductor
C. Cisco TMS
D. Cisco Multisite
E. Cisco VCS Expressway
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 89
Refer to the exhibit.
210-065 dumps

Which CLI command should be run to resolve these alarms on a Cisco VCS?
A. xcommand DefaultValuesSet
B. xconfiguration DefaultLinksAdd

C. xcommand DefaultLinksAdd
D. xconfiguration DefaultValuesSet
210-065 dump Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 90
Which Cisco Video Surveillance product contains the Cisco Video Surveillance Encoding Server?
A. Video Communications Server
B. Cisco Video Surveillance Operations Manager
C. Cisco Video Surveillance Media Server
D. Cisco Video Surveillance Transcoding and Encoding Server
E. Cisco Video Surveillance Virtual Matrix
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 91
When you configure a zone for firewall traversal, which type of zone is the Cisco VCS C configured for?
A. client
B. server
C. proxy
D. gateway
E. neighbor
210-065 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 92
Which of the following provides the strongest authentication for physical access control?
A. Sign-in logs
B. Dynamic passwords
C. Key verification
D. Biometrics
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Biometrics can be used to provide excellent physical access control.
QUESTION 93
What is an effective countermeasure for the vulnerability of data entry operators
potentially leaving their computers without logging off? Choose the BEST answer.
A. Employee security awareness training
B. Administrator alerts
C. Screensaver passwords
D. Close supervision

210-065 vce Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Screensaver passwords are an effective control to implement as a countermeasure for the vulnerability of data entry operators potentially leaving their computers without logging off.
QUESTION 94
What can ISPs use to implement inbound traffic filtering as a control to identify IP packets transmitted from unauthorized sources? Choose the BEST answer.
A. OSI Layer 2 switches with packet filtering enabled
B. Virtual Private Networks
C. Access Control Lists (ACL)
D. Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
ISPs can use access control lists to implement inbound traffic filtering as a control to  identify IP packets transmitted from unauthorized sources.
QUESTION 95
What is the key distinction between encryption and hashing algorithms?
A. Hashing algorithms ensure data confidentiality.
B. Hashing algorithms are irreversible.
C. Encryption algorithms ensure data integrity.
D. Encryption algorithms are not irreversible.
210-065 exam
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A key distinction between encryption and hashing algorithms is that hashing algorithms are irreversible.
QUESTION 96
Which of the following is BEST characterized by unauthorized modification of data before or during systems data entry?
A. Data diddling
B. Skimming
C. Data corruption
D. Salami attack

Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Data diddling involves modifying data before or during systems data entry.
QUESTION 97
Which of the following is used to evaluate biometric access controls?
A. FAR
B. EER
C. ERR
D. FRR
210-065 dump 
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
When evaluating biometric access controls, a low equal error rate (EER) is preferred.
EER is also called the crossover error rate (CER).
QUESTION 98
Who is ultimately responsible and accountable for reviewing user access to systems?
A. Systems security administrators
B. Data custodians
C. Data owners
D. Information systems auditors
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Data owners are ultimately responsible and accountable for reviewing user access to systems.
QUESTION 99
Establishing data ownership is an important first step for which of the following processes? Choose the BEST answer.
A. Assigning user access privileges
B. Developing organizational security policies
C. Creating roles and responsibilities
D. Classifying data
210-065 pdf 
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
To properly implement data classification, establishing data ownership is an important  first step.
QUESTION 100
Which of the following is MOST is critical during the business impact assessment phase of business continuity planning?
A. End-user involvement
B. Senior management involvement
C. Security administration involvement
D. IS auditing involvement
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
End-user involvement is critical during the business impact assessment phase of
business continuity planning.
QUESTION 101
What type of BCP test uses actual resources to simulate a system crash and validate the plan’s effectiveness?
A. Paper
B. Preparedness
C. Walk-through
D. Parallel
210-065 vce
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Of the three major types of BCP tests (paper, walk-through, and preparedness),
only the preparedness test uses actual resources to simulate a system crash and validate
the plan’s effectiveness.
QUESTION 102
Which of the following typically focuses on making alternative processes and resources available for transaction processing?
A. Cold-site facilities
B. Disaster recovery for networks
C. Diverse processing
D. Disaster recovery for systems
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Disaster recovery for systems typically focuses on making alternative processes and resources available for transaction processing.
QUESTION 103
Which type of major BCP test only requires representatives from each operational area to meet to review the plan?
A. Parallel
B. Preparedness
C. Walk-thorough
D. Paper
210-065 exam
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Of the three major types of BCP tests (paper, walk-through, and preparedness), a walk
through test requires only that representatives from each operational area meet to review the plan.
QUESTION 104
What influences decisions regarding criticality of assets?
A. The business criticality of the data to be protected
B. Internal corporate politics
C. The business criticality of the data to be protected, and the scope of the impact upon the organization as a whole
D. The business impact analysis
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Criticality of assets is often influenced by the business criticality of the data to be protected and by the scope of the impact upon the organization as a whole. For example, the loss of a network backbone creates a much greater impact on the organization as a whole than the loss of data on a typical user’s workstation.
QUESTION 105
Of the three major types of off-site processing facilities, what type is characterized by at least providing for electricity and HVAC?
A. Cold site
B. Alternate site
C. Hot site
D. Warm site

210-065 dump Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Of the three major types of off-site processing facilities (hot, warm, and cold), a cold site is characterized by at least providing for electricity and HVAC. A warm site improves upon this by providing for redundant equipment and software that can be made operational within a short time.
QUESTION 106
With the objective of mitigating the risk and impact of a major business interruption, a
disasterrecovery plan should endeavor to reduce the length of recovery time necessary, as well as costs associated with recovery. Although DRP results in an increase of pre-and post-incident operational costs, the extra costs are more than offset by reduced recovery and business impact costs. True or false?
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
With the objective of mitigating the risk and impact of a major business interruption, a
disaster-recovery plan should endeavor to reduce the length of recovery time necessary and the costs associated with recovery. Although DRP results in an increase of pre-and post-incident operational costs, the extra costs are more than offset by reduced recovery
and business impact costs.
QUESTION 107
Of the three major types of off-site processing facilities, what type is often an acceptable solution for preparing for recovery of noncritical systems and data?
A. Cold site
B. Hot site
C. Alternate site
D. Warm site
210-065 pdf 
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A cold site is often an acceptable solution for preparing for recovery of noncritical
systems and datA.

QUESTION 108
Any changes in systems assets, such as replacement of hardware, should be
immediately recorded within the assets inventory of which of the following? Choose the
BEST answer.
A. IT strategic plan
B. Business continuity plan
C. Business impact analysis
D. Incident response plan
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Any changes in systems assets, such as replacement of hardware, should be
immediately recorded within the assets inventory of a business continuity plan.
QUESTION 109
Although BCP and DRP are often implemented and tested by middle management and end users, the ultimate responsibility and accountability for the plans remain with executive management, such as the _______________. (fill-in-the-blank)
A. Security administrator
B. Systems auditor
C. Board of directors
D. Financial auditor
210-065 vce 
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Although BCP and DRP are often implemented and tested by middle management and
end users, the ultimate responsibility and accountability for the plans remain with executive management, such as the board of directors.
QUESTION 110
Obtaining user approval of program changes is very effective for controlling application changes and maintenance. True or false?
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Obtaining user approval of program changes is very effective for controlling application changes and maintenance.
QUESTION 111
Library control software restricts source code to:
A. Read-only access
B. Write-only access
C. Full access
D. Read-write access
210-065 exam 
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Library control software restricts source code to read-only access.
QUESTION 112
When is regression testing used to determine whether new application changes have introduced any errors in the remaining unchanged code?
A. In program development and change management
B. In program feasibility studies
C. In program development
D. In change management
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Regression testing is used in program development and change management to
determine whether new changes have introduced any errors in the remaining unchanged code.
QUESTION 113
What is often the most difficult part of initial efforts in application development? Choose  the BEST answer.
A. Configuring software
B. Planning security
C. Determining time and resource requirements
D. Configuring hardware
210-065 dump 
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Determining time and resource requirements for an application-development project is
often the most difficult part of initial efforts in application development.
QUESTION 114
What is a primary high-level goal for an auditor who is reviewing a system development project?
A. To ensure that programming and processing environments are segregated
B. To ensure that proper approval for the project has been obtained
C. To ensure that business objectives are achieved
D. To ensure that projects are monitored and administrated effectively
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A primary high-level goal for an auditor who is reviewing a systems-development project is to ensure that business objectives are achieved. This objective guides all other systems development objectives.
QUESTION 115
Whenever an application is modified, what should be tested to determine the full impact of the change? Choose the BEST answer.
A. Interface systems with other applications or systems
B. The entire program, including any interface systems with other applications or systems
C. All programs, including interface systems with other applications or systems
D. Mission-critical functions and any interface systems with other applications or systems
210-065 pdf 
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Whenever an application is modified, the entire program, including any interface systems with other applications or systems, should be tested to determine the full impact of the change.

210-065 dumps

There are Pass4itsure 210-065 dumps for which you can take more facilities for your Implementing Cisco Video Network Devices (CIVND) exam preparation. “Implementing Cisco Video Network Devices v1.0”, also known as 210-065 exam, is a Cisco certification which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. Pass4itsure Cisco 210-065 dumps exam questions answers are updated (281 Q&As) are verified by experts. The associated certifications of 210-065 dumps is CCNA Collaboration, Cisco Video Network Specialist. You can talk online with the professionals for clearing the concepts CIVND https://www.pass4itsure.com/210-065.html dumps questions.