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QUESTION 1
Which compliance framework applies to safeguarding a patient prescription list?
A. PCI
B. SOX
C. HIPAA
D. COBIT
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
What information from HTTP logs can be used to find a threat actor?
A. referer
B. IP address
C. user-agent
D. URL
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which option allows a file to be extracted from a TCP stream within Wireshark?
A. File > Export Objects
B. Analyze > Extract
C. Tools > Export > TCP
D. View > Extract
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which of the following is the team that handles the investigation, resolution, and disclosure of security vulnerabilities in
vendor products and services?
A. CSIRT
B. ICASI
C. USIRP
D. PSIRT
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Refer to the following packet capture. Which of the following statements is true about this packet capture?
00:00:04.549138 IP omar.cisco.com.34548 > 93.184.216.34.telnet: Flags [S], seq 3152949738, win 29200,
options [mss 1460,sackOK,TS val 1193148797 ecr 0,nop,wscale 7], length 0 00:00:05.547084 IP
omar.cisco.com.34548 > 93.184.216.34.telnet: Flags [S], seq 3152949738, win 29200,
options [mss 1460,sackOK,TS val 1193149047 ecr 0,nop,wscale 7], length 0 00:00:07.551078 IP
omar.cisco.com.34548 > 93.184.216.34.telnet: Flags [S], seq 3152949738, win 29200,
options [mss 1460,sackOK,TS val 1193149548 ecr 0,nop,wscale 7], length 0 00:00:11.559081 IP
omar.cisco.com.34548 > 93.184.216.34.telnet: Flags [S], seq 3152949738, win 29200,
options [mss 1460,sackOK,TS val 1193150550 ecr 0,nop,wscale 7], length 0
A. The host with the IP address 93.184.216.34 is the source.
B. The host omar.cisco.com is the destination.
C. This is a Telnet transaction that is timing out and the server is not responding.
D. The server omar.cisco.com is responding to 93.184.216.34 with four data packets.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
You have run a suspicious file in a sandbox analysis tool to see what the file does. The analysis report shows that
outbound callouts were made post infection. Which two pieces of information from the analysis report are needed or
required to investigate the callouts? (Choose two.)
A. file size
B. domain names
C. dropped files
D. signatures
E. host IP addresses
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 7
Which of the following is not true regarding the use of digital evidence?
A. Digital forensics evidence provides implications and extrapolations that may assist in proving some key fact of the
case.
B. Digital evidence helps legal teams and the court develop reliable hypotheses or theories as to the committer of the
crime or threat actor.
C. The reliability of the digital evidence is vital to supporting or refuting any hypothesis put forward, including the
attribution of threat actors.
D. The reliability of the digital evidence is not as important as someone\\’s testimony to supporting or refuting any
hypothesis put forward, including the attribution of threat actors.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which type verification typically consists of using tools to compute the message digest of the original and copies data,
then comparing the digests to make sure that they are the same?
A. evidence collection order
B. data integrity
C. data preservation
D. volatile data collection
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Filtering ports in wireshark?
A. tcp.port == 80
B. tcp port equals 80
C. tcp.port 80
D. port 80
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which statement about collecting data evidence when performing digital forensics is true?
A. Allowing unrestricted access to impacted devices
B. Not allowing items of evidence to be physically touch
C. Powering off the device after collecting the data
D. It must be preserved and integrity checked
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
According to NIST 86, which action describes the volatile data collection?
A. Collect data before rebooting
B. Collect data while rebooting
C. Collect data after rebooting
D. Collect data that contains malware
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which option is the process of remediating the network and systems and/or reconstructing the attack so that the
responsible threat actor can be revealed?
A. data analytics
B. asset attribution
C. threat actor attribution
D. evidence collection
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
In Microsoft Windows, as files are deleted the space they were allocated eventually is considered available for use by
other files. This creates alternating used and unused areas of various sizes. What is this called?
A. network file storing
B. free space fragmentation
C. alternate data streaming
D. defragmentation
Correct Answer: B

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Latest Updated Microsoft MB2-716 Questions & Answers

QUESTION 1
Which three statements regarding form design or behavior for the mobile or tablet application are true? Each correct
answer presents a complete solution.
A. The form selector is available.
B. The first five tabs will display.
C. Activities can be modified.
D. Tabs do not have the expand and collapse capability.
E. If business rules are changed while the mobile app is open, the app must be closed and reopened for those changes
to apply.
Correct Answer: BDE
References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dn531159.aspx

QUESTION 2
You need to configure Microsoft OneNote integration for an organization\\’s Microsoft Dynamics 365 case entity. Which
two components should you enable? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Microsoft Office 365 groups
B. document management for the entity
C. Interactive Service Hub
D. server-based Microsoft SharePoint integration
E. Microsoft OneDrive integration
Correct Answer: BD
References: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics/crm-customer-center/set-up-onenote-integration-indynamics-365.aspx

QUESTION 3
You are implementing a new business process.
The system must send a notification to the manager 24 hours after an opportunity is created based on the date of the
next best action.
Which type of workflow should you implement?
A. synchronous workflow
B. asynchronous workflow
C. Microsoft Dynamics 365 dialogs
D. business process flow (BPF)
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
You add a lookup for contacts to the case form.
You need to display the most recent primary phone number for a contact on the case form while minimizing
administrative effort.
What should you do?
A. Use a workflow to copy the phone number to a new field on the case when the contact changes.
B. Use a quick view form to display the phone number.
C. Use a web resource to query and display the phone number.
D. Use field mapping during record creation to copy the phone number to a new field on the case.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
You need to add the status reason Duplicate to the status value Cancelled for the case entity. What should you do?
A. Add the value to the Cancelled list of the Status field.
B. Add the value to the Cancelled list of the Status Reason field.
C. Using status reason transitions, add the value to the Cancelled status.
D. Using status reason transitions, add the value to the Cancelled status reason.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which two chart types can you combine with another chart type? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. line
B. pie
C. column
D. funnel
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 7
Which three statements regarding actions are true? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Actions can be invoked from a custom client application that uses Microsoft Dynamics 365.
B. Actions can be invoked from JavaScript within the application.
C. Actions must always be associated with a specified entity.
D. Actions require some coding to enable invocation from a workflow or dialog.
E. You can invoke actions from a workflow or dialog without writing code.
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 8
You plan to delete a custom entity from an unmanaged solution. Which of the following statements is true?
A. You must delete the solution that contains the entity.
B. You can only delete the entity from managed solutions.
C. You must delete all records related to the entity from the database.
D. You must remove any dependencies with other objects.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
You need to ensure that users can save private documents in Microsoft OneDrive for Business folders from within
Microsoft Dynamics 365. Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Set the Manage User Synchronization Filters option to Origination for the Security Role.
B. Configure server-based integration for Microsoft Dynamics 365 and Microsoft SharePoint Online.
C. Install and activate the Microsoft SharePoint List Component.
D. Ensure that users have Microsoft OneDrive for Business and SharePoint licenses.
Correct Answer: BD
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/admin/enable-onedrive-for-business

QUESTION 10
You create a new custom entity and add it to the sitemap.
System administrators can see the custom entity. Users report that they cannot see the custom entity.
You need to ensure that users can see the custom entity.
What should you do?
A. Publish the sitemap.
B. Publish the custom entity.
C. Wait for changes to the security roles to take effect.
D. Grant appropriate security roles access to the custom entity.
Correct Answer: D
References: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics/crm-customer-center/create-a-new-entity.aspx

QUESTION 11
You plan to create a field for an entity to capture data in a consistent format.
When a user adds a record for the entity, the choices provided to the user for the field often change or become
outdated.
The choices must not be available for new records.
You need to create the field while minimizing the administrative overhead to maintain the field.
Which field type should you use?
A. global option set
B. single line of text
C. local option set
D. lookup
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
You add a new entity named Parts to Microsoft Dynamics 365.
You need to grant all users that have the Salesperson security role read access to the Parts entity.
Which tab of the Security Role page should you use?
A. Business Management
B. Missing Entities
C. Custom Entities
D. Customization
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
You need to create a business rule for the account entity that runs both client and server side. Which business rule
scope should you use?
A. All forms
B. Account
C. Account for Interactive Experience
D. Entity
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
How would you check the current color of an ECS rack?
A. cat /etc/HOSTNAME
B. getrackinfo
C. cat /var/tmp/installer/provisioning.txt
D. rpm -ivh –color=red ecs-os-base
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
During pre-ECS software installation, which system check should be manually performed?
A. Platform data
B. Rack networking
C. Network separation
D. Disk configuration
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
What is the default path for the customized topology file?
A. /var/tmp/installer
B. /opt/emc/caspian/installer/conf/
C. /home/admin/
D. /opt/emc/caspian/installer
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
In an environment with two or more VDCs, which operation is unavailable when network connectivity is interrupted
between the VDCs?
A. Read object
B. Update object
C. Write object
D. Create bucket
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://storageconsortium.de/content/sites/default/files/downloads/EMC%20ECS%20WP_h14071-ecsarchitectural-guide-wp.pdf (30)

QUESTION 5
An organization wants to implement a federated ECS between two sites and use Dell EMC Isilon CloudPools
functionality to archive data to ECS for long term retention. They are planning to implement ECS with network
separation. What could be deployed optionally in this implementation?
A. DNS entries
B. Static routes configuration
C. Static IP addresses for each of the ECS nodes
D. Load balancer configuration
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
A company has a simple, 3 node VxRail cluster. The VxRail is running version 3.5 and utilizes a vSphere Enterprise
Plus license. The company has asked for a VxRail software upgrade. What are the steps for the upgrade?
A. Log in to VxRail Manager, select “Internet Upgrade”, then follow the prompts.
B. Log in to support.emc.com and download the upgrade packages.Next, open VxRail Manager, select “Off-line
Upgrade”, then follow the prompts.
C. Contact Dell EMC support to request the upgrade to the VxRail cluster.
D. Placeall four nodes into maintenance mode.Next, log in to VxRail Manager, select “Internet Upgrade”, then follow the
prompts.
Correct Answer: A
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QUESTION 2
Which VxRail node type supports only hybrid storage?
A. S Series
B. E Series
C. G Series
D. V Series
Correct Answer: A
 
QUESTION 3
What is the Dell EMC product that is purpose-built for departmental and edge applications, as well as small enterprise
and mid-market data centers?
A. Vscale Architecture
B. VxRail
C. VxRack
D. Vblock/VxBlock
Correct Answer: B
VxRail Appliances are purposebuilt for departmental and edge applications as well as small enterprise and mid-market data centers. Like VxRack Systems they do not contain a storage array, but instead run a software-defined storage
environment on the appliance. They are built using standard x86 hardware, and tend to focus on ease of use and use
case specific features. VxRail Appliances scale from 4 to 64 nodes.
 
QUESTION 4
In a VxRail Stretched Cluster built from eight all-flash nodes, what should be the recommended storage policy to ensure
the highest possible protection?
A. Raid-1(Mirroring) FTT=1
B. Raid-1(Mirroring) FTT=2
C. Raid-5/6(Erasure Coding) FTT=1
D. Raid-5/6(Erasure Coding) FTT=2
Correct Answer: B
 
QUESTION 5
A VxRail deployment has just been completed, and the performance service is enabled, but the vSAN performance
statistics are not available for the cluster or virtual machines. What is the reason for this situation?
A. vSAN performance hot-fix has not been applied
B. Monitoring policy has not been created
C. Performance service has not been manually enabled
D. Data has not been populated
Correct Answer: B
 

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QUESTION 1
Which level of data protection can be configured across sites in a VxRail Stretched Cluster?
A. RAID1
B. RAID 5
C. RAID 1/0
D. RAID 6
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Dell EMC VxRail All-Flash nodes have been deployed in a Stretched Cluster configuration A storage policy has been
configured with:
*
PFTT = 1
*
SFTT = 0
*
FTM = Default
What protection will a VMDK have with this storage policy?
A.
RAID 1 cross-site RAID 5 locally
B.
No cross-site protection RAID 1 locally
C.
RAID 1 cross-site RAID 1 locally
D.
RAID 1 cross-site No local protection
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
You are planning to install CloudArray Virtual Edition. Where should you navigate to in VxRail Manager?
A. Config > System
B. Config > General
C. Support > Download
D. Config > Market
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
A VxRail administrator has been asked to configure fault domains for an All-Flash VxRail cluster The application VMs
must be able to tolerate two failures and use capacity as efficiently as possible. What is the minimum number of fault
domains that must be configured?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which software component is used to collect real-time log activity for VxRail?
A. Platform Services Controller
B. vRealize Log Insight
C. vCenter
D. VxRail Manager
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
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You use the following statement to create a table.

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You have the following queries.

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You need to create an index to minimize the execution time of the queries.
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Box 1: LastName Redesign nonclustered indexes with a large index key size so that only columns used for searching
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have all columns needed to cover the query, but the index key itself is small and efficient.
Box 2: FirstName
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Box 4: OfficeID

QUESTION 2
You are designing two stored procedures named Procedure1 and Procedure2. You identify the following requirements:
Procedure1 must take a parameter that ensures that multiple rows of data can pass into the stored procedure. Procedure2 must use business logic that resides in a Microsoft .NET Framework assembly.
You need to identify the appropriate technology for each stored procedure.
Which technologies should you identify?
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QUESTION 3
You are a SQL Server 2014 Developer. A database that you work on contains two tables that are defined as follows:

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Product is an important table that has sensitive audit requirements. You need to create a trigger that supports the
following requirements:
1.Every row that is inserted or updated in Product will reflect its actual LastUpdat edDate and LastUpdatedBy values in the Product table.
2.Any row that is updated or deleted must write a new record reflecting the OLD values into the ProductAudit table.
3.Any error that occurs during the course of the trigger\\’s execution must prevent the changes from happening.
Develop the solution by selecting and arranging the required code blocks in the correct order.
You may not need all of the code blocks.
Select and Place:

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Correct Answer:

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Note:
* Executing a ROLLBACK TRANSACTION or COMMIT TRANSACTION Transact-SQL statement inside a stored
procedure or trigger is possible, but doing so may cause errors.

QUESTION 4
You need to ensure that usp_AddXMLOrder can be used to validate the XML input from the retailers.
Which parameters should you add to usp_AddXMLOrder on line 04 and line 05? (Each correct answer presents part of
the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. @schema varbinary(100).
B. @items varchar(max).
C. @schema sysname.
D. @items varbinary(max).
E. @items xml.
F. @schema xml.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 5
You have a Microsoft SQL Azure database named DBAzure1.
You create a table in DBAzure1 by using the following script:

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You need to recommend a solution to ensure that each combination of CustomerContact and CustomerDetails is not
duplicated. What should you recommend creating?
A. A CHECK constraint
B. A filtered index
C. A columnstore index
D. A UNIQUE constraint
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
You plan to create a database that has multiple tables. The tables will contain product information. Each product has a
stock-keeping unit (SKU).
You need to recommend a solution to ensure that each SKU starts with the letters “ADV” and is followed by 10 digits.
The solution must minimize the amount of development effort required.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. A FOREIGN KEY constraint
B. A trigger
C. A user-defined data type
D. A CHECK constraint
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
You need to implement a solution that addresses the bulk insert requirements. What should you add to line 08 in
usp_ImportOrderDetails?
A. LASTROW=0.
B. BATCHSIZE=0.
C. BATCHSIZE=1000.
D. LASTROW = 1000.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
You need to modify the function in CountryFromID.sql to ensure that the country name is returned instead of the country
ID. Which line of code should you modify in CountryFromID.sql?
A. 04
B. 05
C. 06
D. 19
Correct Answer: D
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QUESTION 9
You are planning two stored procedures named SProc1 and SProc2. You identify the following requirements:
SProc1 must return a table.
SProc2 must return a scalar value.
You need to identify which option must be implemented for each stored procedure to return the desired data.
Which options should you identify?
To answer, drag the appropriate option to the correct requirement in the answer area. (Answer choices may be used
once, more than once, or not at all.)
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-464 exam questions q9-1

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-464 exam questions q9-2

Note:
*
a table (a set of rows) can be returned through a SELECT statement *a scalar can be returned through an output
parameter.
*
incorrect: TVP is used for input not output.

QUESTION 10
You need to create a function that will use a SELECT statement in ProductsByProductType.sql. Which code segment
should you use to complete the function?

Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-464 exam questions q10

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: B
http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms191320.aspx http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms186755.aspx

QUESTION 11
You have a SQL Azure database.
You execute the following code:

Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-464 exam questions q11

The Sales.Customers table will contain 100,000 rows. You expect the FaxNumber column to contain a null value for 70
percent of the rows. You need to create an index to support Sales.CustomersByFaxNumber. The solution must
minimize the disk storage requirements.
Which code segment should you execute?
A. CREATE INDEX IX_Customers ON Customers (FaxNumber) WHERE FaxNumber IS NOT NULL
B. CREATE INDEX IX_Customers ON Customers (FaxNumber) WITH FILLFACTOR=0
C. CREATE INDEX IX_Customers ON Customers (CustomerName) INCLUDE (FaxNumber)
D. CREATE INDEX IX_Customers ON Customers (FaxNumber)
E. CREATE INDEX IX_Customers ON Customers (FaxNumber) WHERE FaxNumber IS NULL
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
You need to create a function that filters invoices by CustomerID. The SELECT statement for the function is contained
in InvoicesByCustomer.sql. Which code segment should you use to complete the function?

Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-464 exam questions q12

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
You run the following code:

Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-464 exam questions q13

You need to ensure that the root node of the XML data stored in the Details column is .
What should you implement?
More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. A user-defined data type
B. An XML index
C. A Data Definition Language (DDL) trigger
D. A Data Manipulation Language (DML) trigger
E. An XML schema collection
Correct Answer: E
http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms187856.aspx

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CompTIA CySA+ CS0-001 Online Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
DRAG DROP
You suspect that multiple unrelated security events have occurred on several nodes on a corporate network. You must
review all logs and correlate events when necessary to discover each security event by clicking on each node. Only
select
corrective actions if the logs shown a security event that needs remediation. Drag and drop the appropriate corrective
actions to mitigate the specific security event occurring on each affected device.
Instructions:
The Web Server, Database Server, IDS, Development PC, Accounting PC and Marketing PC are clickable. Some
actions may not be required and each actions can only be used once per node. The corrective action order is not
important. If
at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please select the Reset button. When you
have completed the simulation, please select the Done button to submit. Once the simulation is submitted, please select
the
Next button to continue.pass4itsure cl0-001 exam question q1

Select and Place:

pass4itsure cl0-001 exam question q1-1

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure cl0-001 exam question q1-2

QUESTION 2
An administrator has been investigating the way in which an actor had been exfiltrating confidential data from a web
server to a foreign host. After a thorough forensic review, the administrator determined the server\\’s BIOS had been
modified by rootkit installation. After removing the rootkit and flashing the BIOS to a known good state, which of the
following would BEST protect against future adversary access to the BIOS, in case another rootkit is installed?
A. Anti-malware application
B. Host-based IDS
C. TPM data sealing
D. File integrity monitoring
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
The development team currently consists of three developers who each specialize in a specific programming language:
Developer 1 ?C++/C# Developer 2 ?Python Developer 3 ?Assembly
Which of the following SDLC best practices would be challenging to implement with the current available staff?
A. Fuzzing
B. Peer review
C. Regression testing
D. Stress testing
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
A university wants to increase the security posture of its network by implementing vulnerability scans of both centrally
managed and student/employee laptops. The solution should be able to scale, provide minimum false positives and high
accuracy of results, and be centrally managed through an enterprise console. Which of the following scanning
topologies is BEST suited for this environment?
A. A passive scanning engine located at the core of the network infrastructure
B. A combination of cloud-based and server-based scanning engines
C. A combination of server-based and agent-based scanning engines
D. An active scanning engine installed on the enterprise console
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
An investigation showed a worm was introduced from an engineer\\’s laptop. It was determined the company does not
provide engineers with company-owned laptops, which would be subject to company policy and technical controls.
Which of the following would be the MOST secure control implement?
A. Deploy HIDS on all engineer-provided laptops, and put a new router in the management network.
B. Implement role-based group policies on the management network for client access.
C. Utilize a jump box that is only allowed to connect to clients from the management network.
D. Deploy a company-wide approved engineering workstation for management access.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
DRAG DROP
You suspect that multiple unrelated security events have occurred on several nodes on a corporate network. You must
review all logs and correlate events when necessary to discover each security event by clicking on each node. Only
select
corrective actions if the logs shown a security event that needs remediation. Drag and drop the appropriate corrective
actions to mitigate the specific security event occurring on each affected device.
Instructions:
The Web Server, Database Server, IDS, Development PC, Accounting PC and Marketing PC are clickable. Some
actions may not be required and each actions can only be used once per node. The corrective action order is not
important. If
at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please select the Reset button. When you
have completed the simulation, please select the Done button to submit. Once the simulation is submitted, please select
the
Next button to continue.pass4itsure cs0-001 exam question q6 pass4itsure cs0-001 exam question q6-1

Select and Place:

pass4itsure cs0-001 exam question q6-2

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure cs0-001 exam question q6-3

QUESTION 7
NOTE: Question IP must be 192.168.192.123
During a network reconnaissance engagement, a penetration tester was given perimeter firewall ACLs to accelerate the
scanning process. The penetration tester has decided to concentrate on trying to brute force log in to destination IP
address 192.168.192.132 via secure shell.pass4itsure cs0-001 exam question q7

A. B. C. D.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
During an investigation, a computer is being seized. Which of the following is the FIRST step the analyst should take?
A. Power off the computer and remove it from the network.
B. Unplug the network cable and take screenshots of the desktop.
C. Perform a physical hard disk image.
D. Initiate chain-of-custody documentation.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
HOTSPOT
A security analyst suspects that a workstation may be beaconing to a command and control server. Inspect the logs
from the company’s web proxy server and the firewall to determine the best course of action to take in order to
neutralize the
threat with minimum impact to the organization.
Instructions:
Modify the firewall ACL, using the Firewall ACL form to mitigate the issue.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please select the Reset All button.
Hot Area:

pass4itsure cl0-001 exam question q9

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure cl0-001 exam question q9-1

QUESTION 10
A company has implemented WPA2, a 20-character minimum for the WiFi passphrase, and a new WiFi passphrase
every 30 days, and has disabled SSID broadcast on all wireless access points. Which of the following is the company
trying to mitigate?
A. Downgrade attacks
B. Rainbow tables
C. SSL pinning
D. Forced deauthentication
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
A cybersecurity analyst has identified a new mission-essential function that utilizes a public cloud-based system. The
analyst needs to classify the information processed by the system with respect to CIA. Which of the following should
provide the CIA classification for the information?
A. The cloud provider
B. The data owner
C. The cybersecurity analyst
D. The system administrator
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
A computer at a company was used to commit a crime. The system was seized and removed for further analysis. Which
of the following is the purpose of labeling cables and connections when seizing the computer system?
A. To capture the system configuration as it was at the time it was removed
B. To maintain the chain of custody
C. To block any communication with the computer system from attack
D. To document the model, manufacturer, and type of cables connected
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
A SIEM analyst noticed a spike in activities from the guest wireless network to several electronic health record (EHR)
systems. After further analysis, the analyst discovered that a large volume of data has been uploaded to a cloud
provider in the last six months. Which of the following actions should the analyst do FIRST?
A. Contact the Office of Civil Rights (OCR) to report the breach
B. Notify the Chief Privacy Officer (CPO)
C. Activate the incident response plan
D. Put an ACL on the gateway router
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
If you have just installed OTM, which domain would not be created by default?
A. GUEST
B. STAGE
C. MASTER
D. BLUEPRINT
E. SERVPROV
Correct Answer: A
After installation, the following default domains are automatically created:
GUEST is a sample domain that you can use to get started and experiment with all the functions and public data.
Reference: https://tms.caleres.com/html/help/webhelp/en/user_management/add_domain.htm

 

QUESTION 2
How should you set up permissions for users to access data in other domains?
A. Use domain Grants.
B. Assign User Preference via Manage User access.
C. Use Insert User Role in VPD Profile.
D. Assign Access Control List in User Role.
Correct Answer: A
Using the Domain Grants option, administrators can grant access from subdomains to domains, and between domains
for increased functional security.
Reference: https://tms.caleres.com/html/help/webhelp/en/user_management/add_domain.htm

 

QUESTION 3
While reviewing Invoices in OTM, you want to search for Invoices based on the “Financial Consolidation Type”.
Identify two Types that you can choose from. (Choose two.)
A. BUY
B. SYSTEM
C. SELL
D. PARENT
E. STANDARD
Correct Answer: DE


QUESTION 4
You are creating a Shipment Agent and you need to Raise an Event to trigger another agent for the Order Release that
is linked to the shipment.
Which agent action do you have to use?
A. SCHEDULE EVENT
B. FOR EACH
C. RAISE EVENT
D. RAISE RELEASE EVENT
E. FOR
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 5pass4itsure 1z0-988 exam question q5

View the exhibit. Bob is a user in the “3PL COMPANY” domain and has been assigned the “Admin” User Role ID.
What must you do to make sure that Bob has the authority to view and plan all the orders from all the Client domains
shown?
A. Create a Role in the 3PL COMPANY domain that has at least “Default” authority, and use OTM\\’s GRANTS to
assign Bob\\’s user ID in each of the Client domains.
B. Use OTM\\’s VPD to assign Bob\\’s user ID in each of the Client domains.
C. Do nothing, because Bob will automatically be authorized to plan all of the orders.
D. Create a Role in each of the Client domains with the same name, and add Bob\\’s user ID to the Role.
E. Use OTM\\’s to add Bob to the Planner Role in the 3PL COMPANY domain.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 6
In which two ways can you determine which tables have “parent” or “child” relationships to the CONTACT table?
(Choose two.)
A. View the data dictionary to identify the relationships.
B. Refer to Power Data under Configuration and Administration.
C. In OTM, navigate to Configuration and Administration > Contacts > Contacts. Select “Help” and review the data table
relationships.
D. Export the CONTACTS table, and use the “scsvwpcd” command.
Correct Answer: AB

 

QUESTION 7
If a Rate Record and a Rate Offering are configured with conflicting values in the same data elements, how does OTM
address this?
A. OTM\\’s planning engine will run the solver for both settings, but only consider the least cost result.
B. Such a conflict cannot exist in OTM.
C. The Rate Offering will take priority over the Rate Record configuration.
D. The Rate Record will take priority over the Rate Offering configuration.
E. During planning, the user will have the option of indicating if OTM should prioritize either the Rate Offering or the
Rate Record setting.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 8
Why is OTM considered to be based on an n-Tier model?
A. because the OTM presentation layer, the application processing layer, and the data management layers are logically
separate processes
B. because OTM supports third party application integrations (PCMiler, Rand McNally, etc.)
C. because it supports the tiered domain structure, from Public, to Parent, to Child, to grandchild domain levels
D. because OTM\\’s data is based on whether it is Master data, Static data, or Transactional data
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 9
Which statement is false about the User Role?
A. User Role controls data visibility via function security (Level).
B. User Role controls data visibility via a private database (VPD).
C. You can assign multiple roles to a master role.
D. Only one role can be assigned to one User.
Correct Answer: D
You can assign one or more of these roles to a user and the user could switch between the roles as needed without
logging in and out.
Reference: https://tms.caleres.com/html/help/webhelp/en/user_management/user_role.htm

 

QUESTION 10
In which two of the following cases is it useful to use the “Show Routing Options” shipment planning method? (Choose
two.)
A. when you want to view OTM\\’s recommendation without actually planning the shipment
B. when you want to auto-tender the shipment after planning is complete
C. when you want to specify the carrier that you want to receive the shipment tender
D. when you want to override the delivery constraints on the Order Base
E. when you want to specify the itinerary that you want to use for the shipment
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 11
Identify the option which cannot be performed by the Screen Set Manager.
A. Define default criteria for search fields.
B. Customize the Actions menu.
C. Customize the Results page columns.
D. Create multi-panel layouts containing tables, maps, Gantt charts.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 12
To import Rates in OTM, which are four key components that you must configure? (Choose four.)
A. Accessorial
B. Lanes
C. Rate Record
D. Rate Quality
E. Rate Service
F. Rate Offering
G. Itinerary
Correct Answer: ACEF

 

QUESTION 13
Your customer has implemented OTM and has a requirement to have a selected menu to be displayed separately.
How should you assign this to a user?
A. Assign it in User Role ID.
B. Assign it via Manage User Access.
C. Assign it in User Preference and assign this preference to User.
D. It is a customization that OTM does not support.
Correct Answer: B

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The latest Cisco CCNP Security 300-208 exam practice questions test your strength

QUESTION 1
A network administrator configured DUAL SSID , where the first SSID is used for guest provisioning and the other SSID
for Employee provisioning which option he can use for layer 2 security provision?
A. MAB
B. 802.1x
C. authentication open
D. option
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 2
A network engineer is configuring HTTP based CWA on a switch. Which three configuration elements are required?
(Choose three.)
A. HTTP server enabled
B. Radius authentication on the port with MAB
C. Redirect access-list
D. Redirect-URL
E. HTTP secure server enabled
F. Radius authentication on the port with 802.1x
G. Pre-auth port based access-list
Correct Answer: ABC

 

QUESTION 3
What are Supplicant and Authentication server that support EAP Chaining?
A. Cisco Anyconnect NAM
B. ACS
C. ISE
D. NFL
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 4
Which components must be selected for a client provisioning policy to do a Posture check on the Cisco ISE?
A. Configuration Wizard, Wizard Profile
B. Remediation Actions, Posture Requirements
C. Operating System, Posture Requirements
D. Agent, Profile, Compliance Module
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 5
Which option in the SSID must be enable to immediately connect to the corp SSID in DUAL SSID deployment?
A. AP Fallback
B. SSID fast transition
C. AAA override
D. option
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 6
Which two identity databases are supported when PEAP-MSCHAPv2 is used as EAP type? (Choose two.)
A. Windows Active Directory
B. LDAP
C. RADIUS token server
D. internal endpoint store
E. internal user store
F. certificate authentication profile
G. RSA SecurID
Correct Answer: AE

 

QUESTION 7
Which feature of Cisco ASA allows VPN users to be postured against Cisco ISE without requiring an inline posture
node?
A. RADIUS Change of Authorization
B. device tracking
C. DHCP snooping
D. VLAN hopping
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8
Which mechanism does Cisco ISE use to force a device off the network if it is reported lost or stolen?
A. CoA
B. dynamic ACLs
C. SGACL
D. certificate revocation
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
What are two actions that can occur when an 802.1X-enabled port enters violation mode? (Choose two.)
A. The port is error disabled.
B. The port drops packets from any new device that sends traffic to the port.
C. The port generates a port resistance error.
D. The port attempts to repair the violation.
E. The port is placed in quarantine state.
F. The port is prevented from authenticating indefinitely.
Correct Answer: AB

 

QUESTION 10
What is a feature of Cisco WLC and IPS synchronization?
A. Cisco WLC populates the ACLs to prevent repeat intruder attacks.
B. The IPS automatically send shuns to Cisco WLC for an active host block.
C. Cisco WLC and IPS synchronization enables faster wireless access.
D. IPS synchronization uses network access points to provide reliable monitoring.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 11
What is the first step that occurs when provisioning a wired device in a BYOD scenario?
A. The smart hub detects that the physically connected endpoint requires configuration and must use MAB to
authenticate.
B. The URL redirects to the Cisco ISE Guest Provisioning portal.
C. Cisco ISE authenticates the user and deploys the SPW package.
D. The device user attempts to access a network URL.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 12
Where is client traffic decrypted in a controller-based wireless network protected with WPA2 Security?
A. Access Point
B. Switch
C. Wireless LAN Controller
D. Authentication Server
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
Which configuration is required in the Cisco ISE Authentication policy to allow Central Web Authentication?
A. Dot1x and if authentication failed continue
B. MAB and if user not found continue
C. MAB and if authentication failed continue
D. Dot1x and if user not found continue
Correct Answer: B

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B. It executes successfully and displays the required list.
C. It executes successfully but displays an incorrect list.
D. It fails because the ON clause condition is not valid
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which statement is true about transactions?
A. A set of Data Manipulation Language (DML) statements executed in a sequence ending with a SAVEPOINT forms a
single transaction.
B. Each Data Definition Language (DDL) statement executed forms a single transaction.
C. A set of DDL statements executed in a sequence ending with a COMMIT forms a single transaction.
D. A combination of DDL and DML statements executed in a sequence ending with a COMMIT forms a single
transaction.
Correct Answer: B
https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/CNCPT/transact.htm#CNCPT038

QUESTION 3
View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the EMP table which is not partitioned and not an index-organized table.
(Choose two.)pass4itsure 1z0-071 exam question q3Evaluate this SQL statement:
ALTER TABLE emp
DROP COLUMN first_name;
Which two statements are true?
A. The FIRST_NAME column can be dropped even if it is part of a composite PRIMARY KEY provided the CASCADE
option is added to the SQL statement.
B. The FIRST_NAME column would be dropped provided at least one column remains in the table.
C. The FIRST_NAME column would be dropped provided it does not contain any data.
D. The drop of the FIRST_NAME column can be rolled back provided the SET UNUSED option is added to the SQL
statement.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Examine the structure of the BOOKS_ TRANSACTIONS table:pass4itsure 1z0-071 exam question q4Examine the SQL statement: pass4itsure 1z0-071 exam question q4-1Which statement is true about the outcome?
A. It displays details only for members who have borrowed before today with RM as TRANSACTION_TYPE.
B. It displays details for members who have borrowed before today\\’s date with either RM as TRANSACTION_TYPE or
MEMBER_ID as A101 and A102.
C. It displays details for only members A101and A102 who have borrowed before today with RM as
TRANSACTION_TYPE.
D. It displays details for members who have borrowed before today with RM as TRANSACTION_TYPE and the details
for members A101 or A102.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
The following are the steps for a correlated subquery, listed in random order:
1.
The WHERE clause of the outer query is evaluated.
2.
The candidate row is fetched from the table specified in the outer query.
3.
This is repeated for the subsequent rows of the table, till all the rows are processed.
4.
Rows are returned by the inner query, after being evaluated with the value from the candidate row in the outer query.
Which is the correct sequence in which the Oracle server evaluates a correlated subquery?
A. 2, 1, 4, 3
B. 4, 1, 2, 3
C. 4, 2, 1, 3
D. 2, 4, 1, 3
Correct Answer: D
http://rajanimohanty.blogspot.co.uk/2014/01/correlated-subquery.html

QUESTION 6
Evaluate the following two queries: SQL> SELECT cust_last_name, cust_city FROM customers WHERE
cust_credit_limit IN (1000, 2000, 3000); SQL> SELECT cust_last_name, cust_city FROM customers WHERE
cust_credit_limit = 1000 or cust_credit_limit = 2000 or cust_credit_limit = 3000 Which statement is true regarding the
above two queries?
A. Performance would improve in query 2 only if there are null values in the CUST_CREDIT_LIMIT column.
B. There would be no change in performance.
C. Performance would degrade in query 2.
D. Performance would improve in query 2.
Correct Answer: B
http://oraclexpert.com/restricting-and-sorting-data/

QUESTION 7
View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the ORDERS table. The ORDER_ID column is the PRIMARY KEY in the
ORDERS table.pass4itsure 1z0-071 exam question q7Evaluate the following CREATE TABLE command:
CREATE TABLE new_orders(ord_id, ord_date DEFAULT SYSDATE, cus_id)
AS
SELECT order_id.order_date,customer_id
FROM orders;
Which statement is true regarding the above command?
A. The NEW_ODRDERS table would not get created because the DEFAULT value cannot be specified in the column
definition.
B. The NEW_ODRDERS table would get created and only the NOT NULL constraint defined on the specified columns
would be passed to the new table.
C. The NEW_ODRDERS table would not get created because the column names in the CREATE TABLE command and
the SELECT clause do not match.
D. The NEW_ODRDERS table would get created and all the constraints defined on the specified columns in the
ORDERS table would be passed to the new table.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which two statements are true regarding subqueries? (Choose two.)
A. A subquery can appear on either side of a comparison operator.
B. Only two subqueries can be placed at one level.
C. A subquery can retrieve zero or more rows.
D. A subquery can be used only in SQL query statements.
E. There is no limit on the number of subquery levels in the WHERE clause of a SELECT statement.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 9
Examine the structure of the EMPLOYEES table. NameNull-Type
EMPLOYEE_IDNOT NULLNUMBER(6)
FIRST_NAMEVARCHAR2(20)
LAST_NAMENOT NULLVARCHAR2(25)
EMAILNOT NULLVARCHAR2(25)
PHONE NUMBERVARCHAR2(20)
HIRE_DATENOT NULLDATE
JOB_IDNOT NULLVARCHAR2(10)
SALARYNUMBER(8,2)
COMMISSION_PCTNUMBER(2,2)
MANAGER_IDNUMBER(6)
DEPARTMENT_IDNUMBER(4)
There is a parent/child relationship between EMPLOYEE_ID and MANAGER_ID.
You want to display the last names and manager IDs of employees who work for the same manager as the employee
whose EMPLOYEE_ID is 123.
Which query provides the correct output?
A. SELECT e.last_name, m.manager_idFROM employees e RIGHT OUTER JOIN employees mon (e.manager_id =
m.employee_id)AND e.employee_id = 123;
B. SELECT e.last_name, m.manager_idFROM employees e RIGHT OUTER JOIN employees mon (e.employee_id =
m.manager_id)WHERE e.employee_id = 123;
C. SELECT e.last_name, e.manager_idFROM employees e RIGHT OUTER JOIN employees mon (e.employee_id =
m.employee_id)WHERE e.employee_id = 123;
D. SELECT m.last_name, e.manager_idFROM employees e LEFT OUTER JOIN employees mon (e.manager_id =
m.manager_id)WHERE e.employee_id = 123;
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Examine the commands used to create DEPARTMENT_DETAILS and COURSE_DETAILS:pass4itsure 1z0-071 exam question q10You want to generate a report that shows all course IDs irrespective of whether they have corresponding department
IDs or not but no department IDs if they do not have any courses. Which SQL statement must you use?
A. SELECT course_id, department_id, FROM department_details d RIGHT OUTER JOIN course_details c USING
(department_id)
B. SELECT c.course_id, d.department_id FROM course_details c RIGHT OUTER JOIN .department_details d ON
(c.depatrment_id=d.department_id)
C. SELECT c.course_id, d.department_id FROM course_details c FULL OUTER JOIN department_details d ON
(c.department_id=d. department_id)
D. SELECT c.course_id, d.department_id FROM course_details c FULL OUTER JOIN department_details d ON
(c.department_idd. department_id)
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Which three statements are true about the ALTER TABLE….DROP COLUMN…. command?
A. A column can be dropped only if it does not contain any data.
B. A column can be dropped only if another column exists in the table.
C. A dropped column can be rolled back.
D. The column in a composite PRIMARY KEY with the CASCADE option can be dropped.
E. A parent key column in the table cannot be dropped.
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 12
View the Exhibit and examine, the description for the SALES and CHANNELS tables. (Choose the best answer.) You
issued this SQL statement:
INSERT INTO SALES VALUES (23, 2300, SYSDATE,
(SELECT CAHNNEL_ID
FROM CHANNELS
WHERE CHANNEL_DESC=\\’DIRECT SALES\\’), 12, 1, 500);
Which statement is true regarding the result?
A. The statement will fail because the sub-query in the VALUES clause is not enclosed within single quotation marks.
B. The statement will fail because a subquery cannot be used in a VALUES clause.
C. The statement will execute and a new row will be inserted in the SALES table.
D. The statement will fail because the VALUES clause is not required with the subquery.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Examine the command:
SQL> ALTER TABLE books_transactions
ADD CONSTRAINT fk_book_id FOREIGN KEY (book_id)
REFERENCES books (book_id) ON DELETE CASCADE;
What does ON DELETE CASCADE imply?
A. When the BOOKS table is dropped, the BOOK_TRANSACTIONS table is dropped.
B. When the BOOKS table is dropped, all the rows in the BOOK_TRANSACTIONS table are deleted but the table
structure is retained.
C. When a row in the BOOKS table is deleted, the rows in the BOOK_TRANSACTIONS table whose BOOK_ID
matches that of the deleted row in the BOOKS table are also deleted.
D. When a value in the BOOKS.BOOK_ID column is deleted, the corresponding value is updated in the
BOOKS_TRANSACTIONS.BOOK_ID column.
Correct Answer: C

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Exam MB6-890: Microsoft Dynamics AX Development Introduction:
https://www.microsoft.com/en-za/learning/exam-mb6-890.aspx

Pass4itsure offers the latest Microsoft Dynamics AX MB6-890 practice test free of charge (22Q&As)

QUESTION 1
You need to write an expression to calculate the compound interest that a bank needs
The formula for compound interest after one period is as follows:
I = (P * (1 + R)) – P
Where
I = Compound interest
P = Principal that was invested
R = Rate of interest
after one period.
Which X++ expression is equivalent to the formula above using operator precedence in X+- +-?
A. I = P* 1 + R- P
B. I = P*(1 + R-P)
C. I = P*(1 + R)-P
D. I = (P* 1) + (R-P)
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
You have a table named CustTable. which has the following three fields: AccountNum, Currency, and CustGroup. You need to wnte X++ code to insert a record into CustTable and set the values of the three fields as follows:
AccountNum = “5000-
Currency = “USD”
CustGroup=”30″
Which two code segments can you use to achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution
pass4itsure MB6-890 question
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 3
You have an X++ class that has the following code
pass4itsure MB6-890 question
You are writing a static method. You have an object of AssetBookCompareContract named assetBookCompareContractObj that is initialized within this method.
You need to print the current value of the firstAssetBookld variable from the assetBookCompareContractObj object.
Which piece of code should you use to achieve this goal?
A. irvFo(assetBookCompareContractObj : :fIrstAssetBookld);
B. info(assetBookCompareContractObj.f IrstAssetBookld);
C. info(assetBookCompareContractObj.panmFirstAssetBookId(“”));
D. info(assetBookCompareContractObj.parmFirstAssel:BookId());
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
You have the following X++ statement
pass4itsure MB6-890 question
What is the output of the statement?
A. An error has occurred.
VariableB cannot be less than variableA.
B. An error has occurred.
Process was aborted.
C. An error has occurred.
VariableB cannot be less than variableA.
D. VariableB cannot be less than variableA.
Process was aborted.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
You want to have a form where you can display an image in a fast tab. Which type of sub- pattern should you apply to the fast tab?
A. Horizontal fields and Button group
B. Section tiles
C. Custom filters
D. Image preview
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
You are using Visual Studio to manage development with Microsoft Dynamics AX. You need to complete a project for use within the application. Which step must be performed?
A. best practice check
B. synchronization
C. build
D. validation
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
You have two classes written in X++ with the following code:
pass4itsure MB6-890 question
Which three methods of the DirParty class are accessible from the Write method? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution.)
A. duplicateCurrentParty()
B. addLocation()
C. update()
D. getContactlnfo()
E. add LocationCI ientO
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 8
You need to develop a new XDS policy for employees. You employees’ expense records.
Where should you apply the filter?A. Constrained tables
B. Query
C. Policy group
D. Context string
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
You are developing a form that allows users to update an order status. You create a table named Tablel that you will use as a data source for this form.
You want to include a radio-button style selection so that the end user can choose between three different order statuses: “Canceled”, “Delivered”, “Processing”.
What should you add to Table1 so that you can add the radio button selection to the form?
A. three different string fields that represent each order status
B. three different Extended Data Types (EDTs) of type string with each order status
C. a Boolean data type with values that represent each choice
D. a base enumeration with three elements that represent each order status
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
You need to ensure that the custom roles that are created for your company comply with the segregation of duties. What are three possible ways to achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Verification
B. Authorization
C. Application
D. Validation
E. Contextualization
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 11
You have an X+ + class that has the following code:
public class CustAdvancelnvoiceJourDP
{
private void insertCustVendAdvanceInvoiceJourTmp()
{
// do work
}
public void processReport()
{
// call InsertCustVendAdvancelnvoiceJourTmp
}
}
You need to call insertCustVendAdvancelnvoiceJourTmpO from the processReport method on the current instance of the object Which piece of code should you write within the processReport method to achieve this goal?
A. CustiAdvancelnvoiceJourDP newObj = new CustAdvanceInvoiceDourDP(); newObj.insertCustVendAdvanceInvoiceDourTmp();
B. CustAdvancelnvoiceDourDP.insertCustVendAdvancelnvoiceJourTmp();
C. CustAdvancelnvoiceDourOP: :insertCustVendAdvanceInvoiceDourTmp( ) ;
D. this.insertCustVendAdvanceInvoice3ourTmp();
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
You are writing a class named Asset Copy.
You need to create a menu item that, when clicked, runs code written in the Asset Copy class.
What should you do to achieve this goal?
A. Create a method in the AssetCopy class which has a prototype of “client static void main(Args args)’ Create an Action Menu item, and set the ObjectType to Class and the Object to “AssetCopy”.
B. Create a method in the AssetCopy class which has a prototype of “void run()”.
Create an Action Menu item, and set the ObjectType to Class and the Object to “AssetCopy”.
C. Create a method in the AssetCopy class which has a prototype of “void new(AssetTable _assetTable)”.
Create an Action Menu item, and set the ObjectType to Class and the Object to “AssetCopy”.
D. Create a method in the AssetCopy class which has a prototype of “Object dialogO”.
Create an Action Menu item, and set the ObjectType to Class and the Object to “AssetCopy”.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
You are using the Visual Studio development environment to perform a customization for your client.
You need to follow best practices to create a new table to store customer ranking information for each custom
What should you name this new table element?
A. Custrankinginfo
B. CustRankinglnfo
C. CustRankinglnfo
D. custrankinginfo
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
You have the following X++ classes:
class ProductDimensionAttribute;
{
string attribute
void getAttribute()
{
return “Color”;
}
}
Class ColorDiraensionAttnibute extends ProductDimensionAttribute
{
void getAttribute( )
{
return “Green”;
}
}
You also have a runnable class which has the following co
ProductDimensionAttribute dimension;ColorDimensionAttribute color = new ColorDimensionAttribute();
info(color.getAttnibute());
dimension = color;
inf o(dimension . getAttribute()) ;
Which output is correct if you run the above code that is part of the runnable class?
A. Green Color
B. Green Green
C. Color Color
D. Color Green
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
You are working in the Visual Studio development environment of Microsoft Dynamics AX. You need to delete the data in a specific table. What should you use?
A. Table Browser
B. Delete Actions
C. Code Profiler
D. Type Hierarchy Browser
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
You create a duty to maintain customer master information.
Which two elements can you add to the duty?
A. permissions
B. policies
C. privileges
D. process cycles
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
You need to create several reports that use the same combination of tables as data sources. You know that you will need a relation between these tables so that the report outputs as desired. You also want the ability to change details, such
as report parameters or sorting options, at run time.
Which element should you create to store these tables and the relations so that you can reuse the element as the data source on future reports?
A. a new table
B. a query
C. a view
D. a table map
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
Your company needs a new table that will track customer names and numbers for three new types of transactions, along with the date for each transaction.
You need to create the new table and fields.
Which field should you create using a base enumeration?
A. customer name
B. transaction type
C. customer account number
D. transaction date
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
You need to explain the attributes of a package in Microsoft Dynamics AX.
Which three statements are true? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. A package can be associated with one or more projects.
B. A package can only be associated with one project.
C. A package can contain one or more models.
D. A package can only be associated with one model.
E. A package can be exported to a file.
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 20
You have two tables: CustTable and CustTrans.
CustTrans has a foreign key relation with CustTable on the “AccountNum” field. Multiple CustTrans records refer to a single CustTable record. Each CustTrans record can refer to a single CustTable record.
You want to write code to display records of customers and their corresponding transactions. You need to display the following fields:
AccountNum from CustTable table
CustGroup from CustTable table
AmountCur from CustTrans table
Finally, you want to select only the approved transactions. An approved transaction is a CustTrans record where the value of the Approved field is NoYes::Yes.
You need to choose the data that meets these requirements.
Which select statement should you use?
A. CustTable custTable;
CustTrans custTrans;
while select: AccountNum, CustGroup -From custTable join AmountCur -from custTrans
where custTrans.AccountNum == custTable.AccountNum && custTrans.Approved == NoYes::Yes
{
// do work
}
B. CustTable custTable;
CustTrans custTrans;
while select: AccountNum, CustGroup from custTable exists join AmountCur -from custTrans
where custTrans.AccountNum == custTable.AccountNum && custTrans-Approved == NoYes::Yes
{
// do work
}
C. CustTable custTable;
CustTrans custTrans;
while select AccountNum, CustGroup from custTable where custTrans .AccountNum == custTable. AccountNum join AmountCust -from custTrans where custTrans.Approved == NoYes:;Yes {
// do work
}
D. CustTable custTable;
CustTrans custTrans;
while select AccountNum, CustGroup, AmountCur -from custTable join custTrans
where custTrans-AccountNum == custTable.AccountNum && custTrans.Approved == NoYes::Yes
{
// do work
}
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
You are working in Visual Studio to manage development with Microsoft Dynamics AX.What are three capabilities of the Application Explorer? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Searching
B. Filtering
C. Server view
D. Model view
E. Project view
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 22
You are writing a function “SumOflnt(n)” that returns the sum of numbers from 0 to n as shown in the following exhibit:
SumOflnt(l) = 0 + 1 = 1
SumOflnt(2) = 0+1 + 2 = 3
SumOflnt(n) = 0 + 1 + … (n-1) + n
The function prototype is the following:
public static int SumOflnUint n)
{
}
Which two functions return the correct answer? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. public static int SumOflnt(int n)
{
int total = O;
int i = O;
do
{
I++;
total = total + i;
}
while (i < n);
return total;
}
B. public static int SumOfInt(int n)
{
int total = 0;
int i = 0;
while(i < n)
{
total = total + i;
i + + ;
}
return total;
}
C. public static int SumOflnt(int n)
{
int total = 0;
int i = O;
do
{
i++;
total = total + i;
}
while (i <= n);
return total;
}
D. public static int SumOflnt(int n)
{
int total = 0;
int i = 0;
while(i <= n)
{
total = total + i;
i + +;
}
return total;
}
Correct Answer: BC

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https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-mb6-892.aspx

Pass4itsure offers the latest Microsoft Dynamics AX MB6-892 practice test free of charge (20Q&As)

QUESTION 1
You are a purchasing agent.
Your company agrees on a purchase price with a supplier. You create a purchase agreement.
Which two tasks can you perform with the agreement? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Createa release order when no commitment is defined for quantity of a product.
B. Create purchase agreements based on quality or weight.
C. Define a validity period for the purchase agreement.
D. Put purchase agreements on hold during ordering.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 2
You are working with a vendor who supplies you with apparel and sporting good products. You are
negotiating a new purchase agreement with the vendor.
The agreement terms you have arranged with the vendor are for a 3 percent discount on all of the sporting
good products when the order volume over the next month is at least 50,000 USD.
Which commitment type should you use?
A. product quantity
B. product value
C. product category value
D. value
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
You are the controller at Contoso, Ltd. You have configured the chart of accounts for the company and
included two main accounts that should be used for posting vendor account balances. One is used for
regular external vendor accounts, and the other is used for intercompany vendor accounts.
You need to configure the system to use these two main accounts.
What should you do?
A. Create a vendor posting profile.
B. Create a journal name.
C. Create an inventory posting profile.
D. Create an allocation journal.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
You are implementing Microsoft Dynamics AX Distribution and Trade for a new customer.
You need to configure the costing methodology to be a Weighted Average for all items.
What should you configure?
A. product dimension groups
B. item model groups
C. tracking dimension groups
D. item groups
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
You need to configure commissions to be calculated on sales, only after all discounts are taken on the line
items of a sales order.
What should you use?
A. The Sales order journal
B. The Price/discount agreement journal
C. The Commission percentage field
D. The Discount field
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
You need to set up locations for a warehouse that will store finished goods for one of your company’s
divisions.
What are three possible details that you can specify for the locations? Each correct answer presents a
complete solution.
A. The maximum number of pallets
B. The physical dimensions
C. The inventory dimensions
D. The maximum dimensions of the items
E. The maximum weight that can be stored
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 7
You need to ensure that a shipment from a vendor can be accepted into inventory, even if the quantity of
the product received is greater than the amount ordered.
What should you configure?
A. The inventory and warehouse management parameters
B. The procurement and sourcing parameters
C. The product Information management parameters
D. The accounts payable parameters
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
You are presenting sales quotations to your client for review.
What are the two statuses that can be selected on an open sales quotation? Each correct answer presents
a complete solution.
A. Order status is sent.
B. Run in the background is selected.
C. Order status is confirmed.
D. Reason lost or cancelled is selected.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 9
You are the purchasing administrator for your company.You need to create a purchasing policy.
Which two policy rules should be selected to manage employee access to specific categories in the
procurement category hierarchy and to define rules that control the requisition creation process? Each
correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Category access policy rule.
B. Replenishment category access policy rule.
C. Requisition purpose rule
D. Purchase requisition control rule
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 10
You are the accounts receivable manager. You need to match customer invoices to payments that will be
recorded by searching invoice lines that meet selected criteria.
Which search option should you use?
A. Bridging method
B. Settlements
C. Create lines
D. Payment proposal
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
You are the purchasing agent for your company.
You need to create a request for quotation (RFQ) for a product that is not in the item drop- down list.
Which type of line item should you create?
A. Category
B. Open
C. Solicitation
D. Item
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
You need to register a pallet controlled item.
What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Complete a pallet transport.
B. Post an arrival journal.
C. Use the Direct registration function on the Arrival overview form.
D. Use the registration function on the order line.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 13
You plan to create a sales order for an item.
Currently, you do not have the item on hand, but you have a purchase order for the item.
You need to ensure that the item can be reserved against the purchase order.
What should you do?A. From the Accounts payable parameters form, set Reservation to Automatic.
B. From the Inventory and warehouse management parameters form, select Reserve items automatically.
C. From the Accounts receivable parameters form, set Reservation to Automatic.
D. From the Inventory and warehouse management parameters form, select Reserve ordered items.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
The bill of exchange process needs to be set up on your new Microsoft Dynamics AX Distribution and
Trade system.
Which three configuration steps are required? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. journal names for eachstage
B. bridging account
C. posting profiles
D. remittance format
E. a method of payment
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 15
You need to add freight and handling charges when you enter a new purchase order.
What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Create a journal for the freight and handling charges.
B. Add two additional lines to the purchase order, one for the freight service item and one for the handling
service items.
C. Add two additional supplementary items to the purchase order, one for freight and one for handling.
D. Add two charges transactions that each has a charges code.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 16
You are an accounts receivable manager.
Your company wants its top 10 customers in August to receive a best-selling product at a reduced price.
You need to establish a price.
Which two actions should you perform to configure Microsoft Dynamics AX Distribution and Trade for this
task? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Set up the item sales price in the released product table.
B. Set up a Customer group for the 10 customers to be assigned to.
C. Set up a price/discount journal.
D. Set up a Price/Discount group for the 10 customers.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 17
Your department manager wants an estimate of the actual invoice amounts that you will bill for a customer
this month. However, the department manager does not want these amounts posted.
From which two types of invoices can you create a pro forma invoice? Each correct answer presents a
complete solution.A. subledger
B. customer
C. payment schedule
D. free text
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 18
You are an order processor at Contoso, Ltd.
You create a new sales order for a wholesale company. Later, the sales manager at Contoso, Ltd. for the
wholesales account informs you that their company has a sales agreement for a 10 percent discount on
apparel items.
You need to ensure that the discount is applied correctly to the order and that the order updates the
fulfillment of the sales agreement.
What should you do?
A. Put the sales order on hold, and then create a release from the sales agreement.
B. Update the existing sales order lines to link to the sales agreement by using the Price details option
under the Sales orderline button on the sales order.
C. Delete the sales order, and then create a new sales order by using the Copy from journal function.
D. Update the existing sales order lines to link to the sales agreement by using the Create link option
under the Update line button on the sales order.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
You are the purchasing agent for your company. You create a request for quotation (RFQ) and send it to
vendors.
You need to categorize the responses you receive from the vendors.
What should you set up?
A. Purchase agreement classification
B. Results view
C. Reason codes
D. Vendor reply status
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20
You are the accounts payable manager for your company. You and the vendor agree that defective items
will be returned with a reference to the original purchase order.
You need to create a vendor credit note.
What are three methods that can be used? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Copy the original purchase invoice.
B. Createa purchase order with the purchase type blanket order.
C. Create a purchase order with the purchase type journal.
D. Create a purchase order with the purchase type returned order.
E. Create a purchase order line for a negative quantity.
Correct Answer: CDE

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