[2021.4] Free Test | Latest HP HPE0-V17 Exam Practice Questions

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Latest HP HPE0-V17 exam exercise questions 1-13 online

QUESTION 1
During a meeting, you learn that your client has an SLA with another business, but that business asks tor
lower RTO and RPO times for data recovery.
Is this a correct statement regarding how HPE solutions can help to comply with this tighter SLA? Solution:
HPE OneView uses templates for its managed server and storage objects, which allows the attachment of
baselines to verify compliancy with pre-defined rules reflecting your SLA objectives.
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 2
Your customer wants to replace an aging tape library with a new data protection solution that Improves their RTO/RPSs.
Their existing platform consists of HPE ProLiant DL380 Gen10 and 8Gb FC connected Nimble Arrays. You recommend
an HPE StoreOnce appliance and Veeam software is this a true statement? Solution: The new HPE storeOnce
appliances can be Direct-Attached lo one or the HPE ProLiant servers
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 3
You need to meet with a customer about replacing their aging EMC Data Domain-based platform with a new solution is
this a tool that you could use to effectively assess current backup deployment? Is this a tool that you could use to
effectively assess current backup deployment? Solution:NinjaStars
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
A customer wants to replace an aging tape-based backup platform using a Grandfather-Father-Son (GFS) rotation
scheme. They are considering replacing the entire solution with public cloud storage as a backup target is this a valid
recommendation for this customer? Solution: Cloud storage is ideal for the Grandfather copies of backup data for longterm data retention Keep an on-premises solution for the \\’Son\\’ copies to guarantee lower RTO and RPO numbers.
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 5
A customer contacts you tor assistance with performance troubleshooting of Ihelr backup environment
because over the last few days they notice Increasing times tor backup completion They see no apparent
reason for this, since the data volume to be backed up did not change unusually compared to the previous
days and weeks.
You also notice that the deduplication ratio, historically steady at about 20:1. is now gradually declining.
Is this a potential cause or the problem?
Solution:There might be a network bottleneck, which could increase backup times Verify the network
traffic.
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 6
You are showing your customer now veeam integrates with HPE storage products, such as HPE Nimble and HPE
3PAR. You show how Veeam can restore in a fast and efficient way from HPE storage snapshots Is this a correct
statement? Solution:The HPE Nimble Storage Replication Adapter (SRA) for VMware must be installed on the host
running VMware
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Is this a reason why your customer might choose the HPE Apollo 4510 systems instead of the HPE Apollo
42O0 system?
Solution: The Apollo 4510 system has a higher density chassis, and so can host more drives with more
backup capacity.
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 8
Does this option describe a valid scenario for using the 3-2-1 data protection rule or the 3-2-1-1-0 data protection rule?
Solution:You Intend to use at least 3 different types of on-premises storage
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 9
A customer wants to discuss their current backup environment While walking to the meeting room, you
pass what me customer tells you is their only computer room You notice they have a mix of Proliant DL
servers, three Synergy frames. Nimble, and a MSL3040 In the racks.
Is this a tool you can use to gather information on the current backup data to size a new solution?
Solution:NinjaProlected+
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Does this topology/implementation comply with the 3-2-1 rule of data protection? Solution:An HPE MSA array creating
local snapshots on the same array Backups are made with Veeam to a local HPE StoreOnce system using MAS shares
Within Veeam a copy fob is active to a Veeam Cloud Connect repository target hosted at a public cloud provider
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 11
Your customer wants compliance with 3-2-1 data protection best practices. You tell the customer about the HPE
StoreOnce repttcatton options to copy backup data to multiple locations is this a valid statement regarding HPE
StoreOnce data mobility? Solution: Replication is only supported when both HPE StoreOnce systems are registered
with HPE infoSight
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 12
You are organizing a Proof-of-Concept (PCX:) for your customer for Ihetr new data protection solution based on
Commvault technology in combination with HPE Nimble Storage and HPE StoreOnce backup targets. The customer
asks you to demonstrate the configuration options for deduplication within the Commvault solution Is this a location
where you can modify the duplication parameters? Solution: Access the Advanced Client Properties screen under
Client Computers.
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 13
You are running a Proof-of-Concept for a customer\\’s new data protection solution based on Veeam and HPE
StoreOnce. You want to demonstrate the source-side deduplication features of the solution, to reduce the volume of
data being sent across the network, is this a parameter that should be set? Solution:\\’\\’Source Side deduplication\\’\\’ in
the Global Deduplication section of the HPE StoreOnce system
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

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[2021.4] Free Test | Latest HP HPE0-V14 Exam Practice Questions

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QUESTION 1
A customer requires 12 Gb local storage for their VMware boot volumes, which require high- performance read cycles to
enable the operating system to boot quickly. Which drive type provides the most appropriate size and most costeffective way to meet this requirement?
A. Mixed-use SSD
B. Flash media drive
C. SATA nearline
D. SAS midline
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 2
You need to update the firmware on an MSL2024 to version 26.43.51. Which HPE utility do you need to use?
A. OneView Standard
B. Smart Storage Administrator
C. Central Management Console
D. Library and Tape Tools
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 3
DRAG DROP
Match the speed and protocol with the appropriate component.
Select and Place:

hpe0-v14 exam questions-q3

Correct Answer:

hpe0-v14 exam questions-q3-2

Reference: https://buy.hpe.com/us/en/options/transceivers/server-transceivers/hpe-sfp-transceivers/p/7263510 https://itg.buy.hpe.com/emea_europe/en/options/transceivers/server-transceivers/server-transceivers/hpeqsfp28-transceivers/p/1008789459


QUESTION 4
DRAG DROP
A customer is expanding from local storage to a SAN environment for the firt time. They plan to future proof their
environment with a 16 Gb Fibre Channel. They also want to allow for future I/O expansion with new servers. Identify the
correct server and storage to meet the customer requirements.
Select and Place:

hpe0-v14 exam questions-q4

Correct Answer:

hpe0-v14 exam questions-q4-2

 

QUESTION 5
A customer needs to increase the availability and bandwidth of network connectivity to their servers. Which switch
feature meets the customer\\’s needs?
A. Remote direct memory access over Converged Ethernet (RoCE)
B. Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN)
C. Jumbo frames
D. Link Aggregation and Control Protocol (LACP)
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 6
You have configured a port on an HPE FlexFabric 5900 series switch that is connected to a VMware ESXi server to
support multiple VLANs.

hpe0-v14 exam questions-q6

Given the configuration above, what should happen to any of the untagged traffic coming from the VMware ESXi host?
A. The untagged traffic with be dropped.
B. The untagged traffic will be transmitted in vlan 2.
C. The untagged traffic will be transmitted in vlan 50.
D. The untagged traffic will be transmit.ted in vlan 1.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 7
A customer purchased a Nimble HF20 a year ago They are experiencing an issue with a few of their VMware servers in
the RTP Nimble date center and asked that you make a recommendation based on the data in infoSight.

hpe0-v14 exam questions-q7

What should you recommend\\’?
A. Add cache to the array for the RTP Nimble Datacenter.
B. increase the cache size for VMware-DS-Space-NoDeDup
C. increase the datastore size for VMware-DS-Space-NoDeDup.
D. Add another datastore for the RTP Nimble Datacenter
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
DRAG DROP
Match each workload profile description with the corresponding profile. (Select all that apply.)
hpe0-v14 exam questions-q8

 

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.

hpe0-v14 exam questions-q9

An administrator connected a hypervisor to interface Ten-GigabitEthernet1/0/1 in a switch. The administrator created
virtual machines in VLAN 10 and 20 on the hypervisor. VLAN 10 is configured to be tagged, and VLAN 20 is configured
to be untagged on the hypervisor. The administrator found that all the virtual machines in VLAN 20 can communicate
with each other, but not with any virtual machines on VLAN 20 external to the hypervisor. Given the output in the exhibit,
customer needs a new environment to support an ERP system. The sizing information you received shows the
following
A. Permit VLAN 1 on the interface.
B. Configure the PVID of the interface to be VLAN 20.
C. Configure the interface as an access port.
D. Configure the interface as an IRF port.check
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 10
You are installing a combined server and storage solution at a customer location. What must you keep in mind
regarding the typical requirements for the location? (Choose two.)
A. Room temperature must not exceed 35 C (95 F)
B. Rack tie kit should be installed on the rack for proper airflow
C. UPSs should be installed at the top of the rack for top mounted power feed
D. There must be at least a 10 cm (4 in) clearance space at the front and back of the components within the racks
E. Rack doors must be unlocked for easy component removal and maintenance
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 11
A customer has an ESXi server in a branch office They need to perform backups locally. The local backups must be
replicated to the main data center with built-in deduplication What should the customer install at the branch office?
A. StoreOnce 3100
B. StoreOnce VSA
C. MSA 2042
D. Storevirtual VSA
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 12
A customer environment is being managed and monitored with HPE OneView. A review of the OneView log shows that
there have been several trap storm events. Which series of events must take place for OneView to insert a Trap Storm
event entry into the log of system events?
A. SNMP traps from three or more identical hosts have been logged within the past 256 seconds.
B. Four or more identical SNMP traps have been logged within the past 30 seconds.
C. Three or more SNMP trap messages have been logged with increasingly critical variable string values.
D. Four or more ports on the same network switch have reported sequential SNMP trap mesages
Correct Answer: B
https://community.hpe.com/t5/hpe-oneview/snmp-trap-storm-handling/td-p/6763380#.XvfE_ChKiM8


QUESTION 13
A customer needs to provide inventory management, health monitoring, status alerting, and reporting for their ProLiant
servers. Which HPE management offering meets the customer\\’s needs?
A. OneView
B. Insight Remote Support
C. InfoSight
D. Insight Online
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
What is the main function of a Cisco Adaptive Security Appliance (ASA)?
A. A Proxy
B. A Switch
C. A Firewall
D. An Authentication device
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 2
Events and Flows both have multiple different timestamps available to them. Which timestamp is available to both
events and flows?
A. End Time
B. Storage Time
C. First Activity Time
D. Last Activity Time
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://developer.ibm.com/answers/questions/292620/why-do-i-see-different-time-stamps-for-qradar-even/


QUESTION 3
Which three things can be found under the Information menu when right-clicking an IP address? (Choose three.)
A. Asset Profile
B. DNS Lookup
C. Hide Offense
D. WHOIS Lookup
E. Annotation View
F. Username Lookup
Correct Answer: ABD
Reference: https://www.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/en/SS42VS_7.2.6/com.ibm.qradar.doc/c_qradar_ug_asset_rightclick.html

QUESTION 4
An event is happening regularly and frequently; each event indicates the same target username. There is a rule
configured to test for this event which has a rule action to create an offense indexed on the username. What will QRadar
do with the triggered rule assuming no offenses exist for the username and no offenses are closed during this time?
A. Each matching event will be tagged with the Rule name, but only one Offense will be created.
B. Each matching event will cause a new Offense to be created and will be tagged with the Rule name.
C. Events will be tagged with the rule name as long as the Rule Response limiter is satisfied. Only one offense will be
created.
D. Each matching event will be tagged with the Rule name, and an Offense will be created if the event magnitude is
greater than 6.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 5
While on the Offense Summary page, a specific Category of Events associated with the Offense can be investigated.
Where should a Security Analyst click to view them?
A. Click on Events, then filter on Flows
B. Highlight the Category and click the Events icon
C. Scroll down to Categories and view Top 10 Source IPs
D. Right Click on Categories and choose Filter on Network Activity
Correct Answer: B
Reference:
IBM Security QRadar SIEM Users Guide. Page: 42

QUESTION 6
What is the key difference between Rules and Building Blocks in QRadar?
A. Rules have Actions and Responses; Building Blocks do not.
B. The Response Limiter is available on Building Blocks but not on Rules.
C. Building Blocks are built-in to the product; Rules are customized for each deployment.
D. Building Blocks are Rules which are evaluated on both Flows and Events; Rules are evaluated on Offenses of Flows
or Events.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which QRadar component provides Layer 7 visibility within a physical network infrastructure?
A. QRadar Data Node
B. QRadar Flow Analyzer
C. QRadar Flow Collector
D. QRadar VFlow Collector
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.robertrojek.pl/2017/11/09/qradar-appliances-types/


QUESTION 8
What is accessible from the Offenses Tab but is not used to present a sorted list of offenses?
A. Rules
B. Category
C. Source IP
D. Destination IP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which set of information is provided on the asset profile page on the assets tab in addition to ID?
A. Asset Name, MAC Address, Magnitude, Last user
B. IP Address, Asset Name, Vulnerabilities, Services
C. IP Address, Operating System, MAC Address, Services
D. Vulnerabilities, Operative System, Asset Name, Magnitude
Correct Answer: C
Reference:
https://www.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/SS42VS_7.2.1/com.ibm.qradar.doc_7.2.1/c_qradar_ug_asset_sum.html

QUESTION 10
What is the effect of toggling the Global/Local option to Global in a Custom Rule?
A. It allows a rule to compare events and flows in real-time.
B. It allows a rule to analyze the geographic location of the event source.
C. It allows rules to be tracked by the central processor for detection by any Event Processor.
D. It allows a rule to inject new events back into the pipeline to affect and update other incoming events.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Which file type is available for a report format?
A. TXT
B. DOC
C. PDF
D. PowerPoint
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Given the following window:

C2150-612 exam questions-q10

What are the steps to get this window within an offense?
A. Right click on the IP > Information > DNS Lookup
B. Right click on the IP > Information > Reverse DNS
C. Right click on the IP > Information > WHOIS Lookup
D. Right click on the IP > Information > Asset Profile
Correct Answer: A
Reference: http://www-01.ibm.com/support/docview.wss?uid=swg21690480

QUESTION 13
What is the difference between TCP and UDP?
A. They use different port number ranges
B. UDP is connectionless, whereas TCP is connection based
C. TCP is connectionless, whereas UDP is connection based
D. TCP runs on the application layer and UDP uses the Transport layer
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
In order to use Cognos TM1 Connector, which statement is TRUE?
A. Installing the Cognos TM1 API component alone is sufficient.
B. Import the IBM Cognos TM1 certificate and create a property file that stores truststore password
C. Install the Cognos TM1 API component and create a property file that stores truststore password
D. Install the Cognos TM1 API component and import the IBM Cognos TM1 certificate and create a property file that
stores truststore password
Correct Answer: D
Reference:
https://www-01.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/SSZJPZ_11.3.0/com.ibm.swg.im.iis.conn.tm1.usage.doc/topics/tm1_installing_configuring.html


QUESTION 2
Which of the following is the correct schema format for a Time column?
A. record (tField:time[hour:minute:second];)
B. record (tField:nullable time[];)
C. record (tField:time[seconds];)
D. record (tField:time[microseconds];)
Correct Answer: C
Reference:
https://www-01.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/SSZJPZ_11.3.0/com.ibm.swg.im.iis.ds.parjob.dev.doc/topics/r_deeref_Time_Columns.html

QUESTION 3
The APT_SubProcessOperator is used for what purpose?
A. It allows you to incorporate a third-party executable into the framework
B. It provides the capability to break predefined operators into sub-processes
C. It provides the capability to define custom operators at the subprocess level
D. It allows you to incorporate composite operators, which contain more than one operator
Correct Answer: A
Reference:
https://www-01.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/SSZJPZ_11.3.0/com.ibm.swg.im.iis.ds.pxop.dev.doc/topics/creatingopers.html

QUESTION 4
You are experiencing performance issues for a given job. You are assigned the task of understanding what is
happening at run time for that job. What steps should you take to understand the job performance issues? (Choose
two.)
A. Use the resource estimation tool
B. Use the performance analysis tool
C. Replace Join stages by Lookup stages
D. Run the job with $APT_TRACE_RUN set to true
E. Run the job with $APT_DUMP_SCORE set to true
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 5
Which statement about restartable sequence jobs is TRUE?
A. If a restartable sequence aborts, it can be restarted from Director.
B. Choosing “Reset job” from Director will start the job where it left off.
C. Checkpoints are always added to every eligible Job Activity stage in the sequence.
D. There is no way to force a Job Activity stage to return if the sequence got beyond it.
Correct Answer: A
Reference: http://www-01.ibm.com/support/docview.wss?uid=swg1JR46534


QUESTION 6
In order to collect operational metadata, you must do which of the following?
A. Enable “Generate operational metadata” in the Execution tab of the job properties using the Designer client
B. Enable “Generate operational metadata” in the General tab of the project properties using the Director client
C. Enable “Record job performance data” in the General tab of the project properties using the Administrator client
D. Enable “Generate operational metadata” in the General tab of the Job Run Options dialog box in the Director client
Correct Answer: C
Reference:
https://www-01.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/SSZJPZ_11.3.0/com.ibm.swg.im.iis.ds.admin.doc/topics/t_daclref_Capturing_Process_Meta_Data.html

QUESTION 7
For very large records, you may need to set the following environment variable with an appropriate value in order to
allow the job to run successfully:
A. $APT_MONITOR_SIZE
B. $APT_RECORD_COUNTS
C. $APT_DISABLE_COMBINATION
D. $APT_DEFAULT_TRANSPORT_BLOCK_SIZE
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 8
To run multiple copies of the same job within Director, which of the following must be supplied?
A. Job name
B. Invocation ID
C. Parameter values
D. Username and password
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 9
Which restructure stage has a single reject link?
A. Split Vector
B. Column Import
C. Make Subrecord
D. Combine Records
Correct Answer: D
Reference:
http://www-01.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/SSZJPZ_8.5.0/com.ibm.swg.im.iis.ds.parjob.dev.doc/topics/c_deeref_Column_Import_Stage.html

QUESTION 10
By default, how much internal memory does the Sort use per partition?
A. 10MB
B. 20MB
C. 25MB
D. 30MB
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://datastage4u.wordpress.com/2011/04/26/sorting-in-datastage/


QUESTION 11
Which statement about the ISD input stage is NOT TRUE?
A. A job must have zero or one ISD input stages
B. A job with an ISD input stage must have an ISD output stage
C. Buffer size and timeout values can be supplied as job parameters
D. Text over JMS binding is only available if you are using Network Deployment
Correct Answer: D
Reference:
https://www-01.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/SSZJPZ_11.3.0/com.ibm.swg.im.iis.infoservdir.user.doc/topics/t_isd_user_configuring_wisd_input_stage.html

QUESTION 12
Which of the following is NOT a valid use of stage variables?
A. Storing values to be used in both derivations and constraints
B. Storing values that can be referenced by name in downstream stages
C. Storing values from one row to compare with values in the next row read
D. Storing the result on an expression to be used in multiple output columns
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 13
In the Masking Policy Editor in the Data Masking stage of your job, you have specified for a column containing credit
card numbers the Random Replacement masking policy. For the Copy option you have specified “(1,2)(3,4)”. What
changes will be made to a credit card number, such as 6327664369, to mask it?
A. Digits 1 through 2 and digits 3 through 4 will be randomly changed. The rest of the digits will remain the same.
B. Digits 1 through 2 and digits 3 through 4 will remain the same. The rest of the digits will be randomly changed.
C. The 2 digits starting at digit 1 and the 4 digits starting at digit 3 will remain the same. The rest of the digits will be
randomly changed.
D. The 2 digits starting at digit 1 and the 4 digits starting at digit 3 will be randomly changed. The rest of the digits will
remain the same.
Correct Answer: D

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Latest HP HPE6-A67 exam exercise questions 1-13 online

QUESTION 1
A guest user connects to an Open Guest SSID on a wireless network and is redirected to a web login page on
ClearPass.
How is the authentication performed?
A. The controller will capture the credentials as they are passed to ClearPass by the Web Login page.
B. ClearPass instructs the wireless controller to fetch the credentials from the Web Login Page.
C. The User submits the credentials, and ClearPass instructs the browser to post the credentials to the wireless
controller.
D. When the user submits the credentials, ClearPass will capture the credentials and post them to the wireless
controller.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 2
What must be configured when a network administrator wants to configure RADIUS authentication with a network
access device (NAD)? (Choose two.)
A. The NAD and ClearPass must be configured for NTP time synchronization.
B. The NAD must be configured for RADIUS accouning.
C. The ClearPass EAP/RADIUS server certificate must be installed on the NAD.
D. ClearPass and the NAD must have the same shared secret.
E. The NAD must be configured as a known network device in ClearPass.
Correct Answer: CD
Reference: https://community.arubanetworks.com/t5/Security/ArubaOS-Admin-Authentication-with-Microsoft-NPS/tdp/433832


QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.

hpe6-a67 exam questions-q3

Based on the self-registration customization, which statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. The client\\’s browser will submit the credentials in plain text to the controllers.
B. The user will automatically be logged in when they submit the self-registration form.
C. The HTTPS certificate on ClearPass has been changed to a wildcard certificate.
D. The client\\’s browser will submit the credentials encrypted but over HTTP.
E. The user will have to press the login button to submit the credentials to the controller.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 4
What is the function of the primary and backup servers when configuring an authentication source in ClearPass?
A. The primary server and backup servers can be configured for round-robin.
B. The primary server can be from one Active Directory domain; the backup server can be from another.
C. The primary server is always authenticated first, then the backup is used if authentication fails.
D. The primary server is always authenticated first, then the backup is used if that times out.
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://community.arubanetworks.com/t5/Security/CPPM-amp-AD-Questions-Re-Auth/td-p/74888

QUESTION 5
In Guest authentication without MAC caching, which statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. When the client disconnects from the network, the user will NOT be asked to login when the client reconnects.
B. The endpoint can be mapped to the correct Guest account for auditing.
C. When the guest logs in, the system will remember the client as a guest for the next login.
D. When the client disconnects from the network, the user will be asked to login when the client reconnects.
E. When the User logs into the Guest network, the endpoint will be marked as status = “known”
Correct Answer: CE


QUESTION 6
What are two ways that devices can download the Onboard provisioning profile and credentials from ClearPass?
(Choose two.)
A. from the Android market
B. Over-the-Air API
C. download from iTunes
D. Bonjour
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 7
When a NAD sends an authentication request to ClearPass for a Guest Web Login with Username and Password,
which methods can it use? 
A. CHAP –RADIUS Request
B. EAP PEAP
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
ClearPass Onboard can be configured for which three types of security? (Choose three.)
A. SSL-VPN
B. EAP-RADIUS
C. EAP-TLS
D. EAP-PEAP
E. Personal PSK
Correct Answer: BCD
Reference: https://community.arubanetworks.com/t5/Wireless-Access/One-SSID-for-multiple-authentication-types/tdp/251344

QUESTION 9
Which enforcement actions are used in ClearPass to bounce a client? (Choose two.)
A. Filter-ID Based
B. Agent Enforcement
C. VLAN Enforcement
D. RADIUS CoA
E. Session Notification
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 10
Which items would ClearPass be useful for? (Choose three.)
A. Unified wired and wireless access control
B. Access control on transient networks
C. Administrative access control
D. User device management
E. Firewall configuration management
Correct Answer: ACD
Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/v2/GetPDF.aspx/4AA6-2768ENW.pdf

QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.

hpe6-a67 exam questions-q11

What needs to be configured for ClearPass to enforce a bandwidth limit on the Guest Network? (Choose two.)
A. Enable Active Sessions in ClearPass Guest
B. Configure Interim Accounting on the Network Access Device
C. Make sure that Endpoint Profiling is configured
D. Enable Logging of Accounting Interim-Update packets
E. Configure a ClearPass server for Insight Master
Correct Answer: CD


QUESTION 12
In ClearPass guest, which statement is true? (Choose three.)
A. All guest accounts will be assigned a role of Guest and that cannot be changed.
B. The Create Guest Account form is fully configurable and fields can be edited.
C. Account Expiration date and time cannot be edited by the administrator.
D. A guest User is automatically disconnected from the network when their account expires.
E. A guest user will be denied access to the network after their account expires but is not disconnected.
F. A visitor location data field can be added to a guest registration form.
Correct Answer: ADF

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit.

hpe6-a67 exam questions-q13

Which user authentication request will match the service rules of the Policy Service shown?
A. a wireless user connecting to an Aruba IAP on the SSID “CORP”
B. a wireless user connection would fail because of miss-configured service rules.
C. a wireless user connecting to any SSID on an Aruba Controller
D. a wireless user connected to any SSID named “CORP”
Correct Answer: A

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Latest HP HPE0-V14 exam exercise questions 1-13 online

QUESTION 1
A customer needs a single, dual-processor server for an Enterprise Resource Planning solution for a single office. The
customer application uses a mix of HDDs and SSDs and up to 3TB of RAM. Which HPE Solution should you propose?
A. HPE Synergy Solution
B. HPE Apollo 2000 Server
C. HPE ML350 Gen10
D. HPE ML110 Gen10
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/V2/GetPDF.aspx/4AA0-8758ENW.pdf


QUESTION 2
A customer requires an entry-level, all-flash system with a predictable performance at the lowest possible price. They
have performance-sensitive workloads that require speed and efficiency. Which HPE storage system needs the
customer\\’s requirements?
A. Nimble CS1000
B. Nimble SFA
C. Nimble AF1000
D. Nimble AF5000
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 3
A customer requires an entry-level, all-flash storage system with a predictable performance at the lowest possible price.
They have performance-sensitive workloads that require speed and efficiency. Which HPE storage system meets the
customer\\’s requirements?
A. 3PAR 8450
B. MSA 2052
C. StoreVirtual 4335
D. Nimble AF 1000
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
When should you choose to populate a server with LRDlMMs?
A. when error correction is the most important factor
B. when the price is the most important factor
C. when memory capacity is the most important factor
D. when memory speed is the most important factor
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 5
DRAG DROP
A customer is considering an upgrade of their networking infrastructure with the HPE FlexFabric 5940 series switch.
Match the fan tray option with the airflow direction.
Select and Place:

HPE0-V14 exam questions-q5

Correct Answer:

HPE0-V14 exam questions-q5-2

QUESTION 6
A customer needs to reconfigure their data center network because their network often becomes congested, and the
customer cannot monitor the network. How should the customer configure their network?
A. Isolate the management network from production traffic
B. Isolate the SAN on a public network and use a virtual private network (VPN) for secure data
C. Configure IRF on the switches
D. Configure in-band management to manage the switches through gigabit Ethernet ports
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 7
A customer is considering an HPE ProLiant DL380 Gen10 server for their data center. The customer runs a large Oracle
database. They need to increase performance and reduce their licensing costs. Which feature of HPE Gen10 servers
offers these benefits?
A. workload profile matching
B. agentless management
C. jitter smoothing
D. core boosting
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
When should you use the HPE Switch Selector?
A. when you need to list the price information of the switches
B. when you need to select a switch VLAN configuration
C. when you need to compare features between multiple switches
D. when you need to perform a competitive analysis between vendors
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Which backup targets are available from an HPE StoreOnce backup system? (Choose two.)
A. VTL
B. Catalyst
C. NVMe
D. S3
E. iSCSI
Correct Answer: AB
Reference: https://support.hpe.com/hpesc/public/docDisplay?docId=emr_na-c03824941

QUESTION 10
A customer has a VMware environment with HPE ProLiant servers and Nimble storage. They have been using a
Windows VM to provide file services for their employees. The customer is experiencing performance issues with the
solution
due to memory constraints on the virtual environment.
What could be added to the existing environment that will provide dedicated file services with better performance that
would still utilize the existing storage and backup solutions?
A. HPE StoreEver 30750
B. HPE Storage Performance File Controller
C. HPE StoreEasy 1460 Storage
D. HPE StoreEasy 1650 Expanded Storage
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
A customer requires a software-defined storage solution. Which storage solution meets the customer\\’s needs?
A. HPE MSA
B. HPE StoreVirtual VSA
C. HPE 3PAR StoreServ
D. HPE Nimble Storage
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 12
In which layer of the OSI model would you find an IP address?
A. Application
B. Network
C. Physical
D. Data link
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 13
You are designing a solution to run a Citrix XenDesktop workload. Which HPE planning and designing resource
contains a detailed example of this type of solution, including a list of all the hardware and software components?
A. Sales Builder for Windows
B. Product Bulletin
C. Smart Selling Tool
D. Reference Architecture
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
A development team uses open-source software and follows an Agile methodology with two-week sprints. Last month,
the security team filed a bug for an insecure version of a common library. The DevOps team updated the library on the
server, and then the security team rescanned the server to verify it was no longer vulnerable. This month, the security
team found the same vulnerability on the server.
Which of the following should be done to correct the cause of the vulnerability?
A. Deploy a WAF in front of the application.
B. Implement a software repository management tool.
C. Install a HIPS on the server.
D. Instruct the developers to use input validation in the code.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 2
An employee in the billing department accidentally sent a spreadsheet containing payment card data to a recipient
outside the organization The employee intended to send the spreadsheet to an internal staff member with a similar
name and was unaware of the mistake until the recipient replied to the message In addition to retraining the employee,
which of the following would prevent this from happening in the future?
A. Implement outgoing filter rules to quarantine messages that contain card data
B. Configure the outgoing mail filter to allow attachments only to addresses on the whitelist
C. Remove all external recipients from the employee\\’s address book
D. Set the outgoing mail filter to strip spreadsheet attachments from all messages.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 3
During routine monitoring, a security analyst discovers several suspicious websites that are communicating with a local
host. The analyst queries for IP 192.168.50.2 for a 24-hour period:

cs0-002 exam questions-q3

To further investigate, the analyst should request PCAP for SRC 192.168.50.2 and __________.
A. DST 138.10.2.5.
B. DST 138.10.25.5.
C. DST 172.10.3.5.
D. DST 172.10.45.5.
E. DST 175.35.20.5.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which of the following technologies can be used to house the entropy keys for disk encryption on desktops and
laptops?
A. Self-encrypting drive
B. Bus encryption
C. TPM
D. HSM
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
A web developer wants to create a new web part within the company website that aggregates sales from individual team
sites. A cybersecurity analyst wants to ensure security measurements are implemented during this process. Which of
the following remediation actions should the analyst take to implement a vulnerability management process?
A. Personnel training
B. Vulnerability scan
C. Change management
D. Sandboxing
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 6
Which of the following is the use of tools to simulate the ability for an attacker to gain access to a specified network?
A. Reverse engineering
B. Fuzzing
C. Penetration testing
D. Network mapping
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) is concerned the development team, which consists of contractors, has too
much access to customer data. Developers use personal workstations, giving the company little to no visibility into the
development activities.
Which of the following would be BEST to implement to alleviate the CISO\\’s concern?
A. DLP
B. Encryption
C. Test data
D. NDA
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
A security analyst conducted a risk assessment on an organization\\’s wireless network and identified a high-risk
element in the implementation of data confidentially protection. Which of the following is the BEST technical security
control to mitigate this risk?
A. Switch to RADIUS technology
B. Switch to TACACS+ technology.
C. Switch to 802 IX technology
D. Switch to the WPA2 protocol.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 9
Which of the following should be found within an organization\\’s acceptable use policy?
A. Passwords must be eight characters in length and contain at least one special character.
B. Customer data must be handled properly, stored on company servers, and encrypted when possible
C. Administrator accounts must be audited monthly, and inactive accounts should be removed.
D. Consequences of violating the policy could include discipline up to and including termination.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Bootloader malware was recently discovered on several company workstations. All the workstations run Windows and
are current models with UEFI capability. Which of the following UEFI settings is the MOST likely cause of the
infections?
A. Compatibility mode
B. Secure boot mode
C. Native mode
D. Fast boot mode
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
A security analyst is responding to an incident on a web server on the company network that is making a large number
of outbound requests over DNS Which of the following is the FIRST step the analyst should take to evaluate this
potential indicator of compromise\\’?
A. Run an anti-malware scan on the system to detect and eradicate the current threat
B. Start a network capture on the system to look into the DNS requests to validate command and control traffic.
C. Shut down the system to prevent further degradation of the company network
D. Reimage the machine to remove the threat completely and get back to a normal running state.
E. Isolate the system on the network to ensure it cannot access other systems while evaluation is underway.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
A security analyst is reviewing the logs from an internal chat server. The chat.log file is too large to review manually, so
the analyst wants to create a shorter log file that only includes lines associated with a user demonstrating anomalous
activity. Below is a snippet of the log:

cs0-002 exam questions-q12

Which of the following commands would work BEST to achieve the desired result?
A. grep -v chatter14 chat.log
B. grep -i pythonfun chat.log
C. grep -i javashark chat.log
D. grep -v javashark chat.log
E. grep -v pythonfun chat.log
F. grep -i chatter14 chat.log
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
During an investigation, a security analyst identified machines that are infected with malware the antivirus was unable to
detect. Which of the following is the BEST place to acquire evidence to perform data carving?
A. The system memory
B. The hard drive
C. Network packets
D. The Windows Registry
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://resources.infosecinstitute.com/memory-forensics/#gref https://www.computerhope.com/jargon/d/datacarving.htm

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hpe0-v14

HP hpe0-v14 exam practice test 1-8

QUESTION 1
You are creating an internal array on an HPE ProLiant server. What can you do to maximize the storage space
efficiency?
A. Populate drive bays with the smallest-capacity drive first.
B. Install drives that have the same capacity.
C. Match the device numbers for the drives with their bay numbers.
D. Populate drive bays with the largest-capacity drive first.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 2
Which two HPE applications are installed on Windows operating systems with intelligent Provisioning? (Choose two.)
A. Lights-Out Online Configuration Utility
B. OneView
C. UEFI Control Suite
D. Intelligent Management Center
E. Smart Storage Administrator
Correct Answer: AE


QUESTION 3
DRAG DROP
A customer is considering an upgrade of their networking infrastructure with HPE FlexFabric 5940 series switch.
Match the fan tray option with the airflow direction.
Select and Place:

hpe0-v14 exam questions-q3

QUESTION 4
When is it appropriate for a customer to implement HPE OneView Standard?
A. To manage multiple servers
B. To monitor their services
C. To enable the Advanced iLO license
D. To update firmware
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/v2/GetPDF.aspx/c04111367.pdf

QUESTION 5
You are installing HPE ProLiant servers into a rack that will be fully loaded. You also need to install four power
distribution units (PDUs) in the rack. How should you install the PDUs to maximize power distribution and space
efficiency?
A. at the top of the rack with the cables running between the RETMA rails
B. horizontally on extension bars mounted directly to the frame for improved clearance
C. in the bottom bay of the rack with the outlets facing the front
D. vertically, side by side on both sides of the rack with the outlets facing the center
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 6
A customer has an application that consumes 500 GB storage and requires an RTO and PRO of 15 minutes.
Which backup and recovery technology enables the customer to meet their requirements in the most cost-effective
manner?
A. offsite tape backup
B. remote storage replication
C. log shipping
D. disk-to-disk appliance
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 7
A customer needs a solution that supports rapid provisioning changes on physical bare-metal servers and on a
virtualization hypervisor. They are considering migrating to a new solution that supports software-defined storage.
Which HPE compute platform should the customer implement?
A. ProLiant DL
B. BladeSystem
C. Synergy
D. SimpliVity
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
A customer is considering an HPE ProLiant DL380 Gen10 server for their data center. The customer runs a large Oracle
database. They need to increase performance and reduce their licensing costs. Which feature of HPE Gen10 servers
offers these benefits?
A. workload profile matching
B. agentless management
C. jitter smoothing
D. core boosting
Correct Answer: D

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HP HPE2-T36 exam practice test 1-8

QUESTION 1
What is required for a user to authenticate to an HPE OneView appliance configured for two-factor authentication?
A. Smartcard
B. Self-signed certificate
C. SMS
D. One-time Passwords
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 2
A customer is preparing their environment for a new two frame Synergy configuration. They have deployed an HPE
OneView virtual appliance on ESXi and are not able to discover the new Synergy frames. What is preventing the
discovery of the Synergy frames?
A. Synergy isn\\’t supported with the HPE OneView appliance.
B. The IPv6 address of the Frame Link module is entered incorrectly.
C. The x.509 certificates aren\\’t authenticating with the HPE OneView appliance.
D. The management ring isn\\’t cabled properly.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 3
Which license is required to remotely access the DL server console and event logs?
A. HPE OneView Advanced
B. Insight Remote Support
C. iLO Amplifier pack
D. Global Dashboard
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 4
Your customer reports receiving an error after re-configuring some uplink sets. The error states that their Logical
Interconnects are non-compliant with the Logical Interconnect Group. What must they do to clear this error?
A. Delete the affected Logical Interconnect Group and recreate it.
B. Go to HPE OneView Dashboard to acknowledge the error.
C. Update the Enclosure Group configuration with the new uplink set information.
D. Go to Logical Interconnect and select “update” from the group options.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
What does HPE OneView use to define the network connectivity for an Enclosure Group?
A. Logical Switch Group
B. Logical Interconnect Group
C. Smart Link
D. network set
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 6
Which REST API headers are recommended when creating a new Ethernet network? (Choose two.)
A. Content-Type
B. X-API-Version
C. Accept-Language
D. Accept-CharSet
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 7
Which condition will prevent HPE OneView from reapplying a server profile?
A. The server hardware matches the server hardware type defined in the profile.
B. The server profile is assigned to the server hardware.
C. The server hardware is in a degraded state.
D. The server hardware is powered off.
Correct Answer: B
 

QUESTION 8
DRAG DROP
Match the HPE OneView element to its function.
Select and Place:

hpe2-t36 exam questions-q8

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hpe6-a66

HP HPE6-A66 exam practice test 1-8

QUESTION 1
A customer is designing a new wired network. The customer requires 50 Gbps uplinks, VSF logical switching, and smart
rate port support.
Which of the following switches would meet these requirements?
A. 3810M series
B. 6300 series
C. 5400R series
D. 8300 series
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 2
A network architect has developed a design for a new Aruba Wi-Fi network that will include a virtual Mobility Master
(MM) running the ArubaOS 8.4 operating system that will manage:
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 3
A network architect imports a floorplan defined in a PNG file format. What is the function of the measurement tool in
Aruba\\’s VisualRF?
A. Define the appropriate dimensions of each object in a Floorplan View
B. Define the appropriate dimensions of a Floorplan and Building View
C. Define the appropriate dimensions of a Floorplan View
D. Define the appropriate dimensions of each room in a Floorplan View
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
What is the main key for a network design to ensure users have a good experience running their applications\\’?
A. Provision adequate bandwidth.
B. Provide appropriate AP density.
C. Determine the number of users per location.
D. Implement appropriate security controls
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 5
A customer requires Aruba switches that support Smart Rate ports to connect to Aruba APs.
Which switching product should the customer purchase that will provide 24 Smart Rate ports per access layer switch\\’?
A. OfficeConnect 1950
B. Aruba 2930F
C. Aruba 2930M
D. Aruba 2540
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 6
Which must you perform in IRIS to assign a device to a Design Group?
A. Right-click the device and select Set Layer Membership
B. Right-click the device and select Set Design Group
C. Drag and drop the device into the Site
D. Drag and drop the device into the Design Group
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
NewRocket requires a wireless capacity design 30 Aruba 510 APs will be connected to each wiring closet using
SmartRate connections. Wireless coverage needs to be provided even if a POE+ switch loses power
Because of security concerns, wired video cameras were recently installed throughout the facility. There are 12 of these
per floor. 6 per wiring closet. The cameras are 802.11n WiFi capable and have power injectors from which to draw
power.
Based on the POE+ needs of the mentioned devices, which solution would meet the POE+ requirements while still
providing a redundant and cost-effective Wi-Fi solution for the devices that require POE+ for Building 1, Floor 2?
A. One 3810M 40G 8 HPE Smart Rate switch
B. Two 2930F 24-port POE+ switches
C. Two 2930M 24-port POE+ switches
D. One 2930M 48-port POE+ switch
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 8
A customer currently has sets of three Aruba 5406R switches deployed for an access layer in multiple wiring closets in a
building They are clustered in a VSF domain The customer wants to set up Multiple Active Detection (MAD) for the
OOBM port, as well as use this port for remote management access. To simplify the connectivity, the customer wants to
connect these three switches\\’ OOBM ports to a separate switch in the wiring closet for the OOBM connectivity. Which
would be the most cost-effective solution that would meet the customer\\’s requirements?
A. 2530
B. 5406R
C. 2930F
D. 2930M
Correct Answer: A

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HP HPE6-A68 exam practice test 1-8

QUESTION 1
Which authorization servers are supported by ClearPass? (Choose two.)
A. Active Directory
B. Cisco Controller
C. Aruba Controller
D. LDAP server
E. Aruba Mobility Access Switch
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.

hpe6-a68 exam questions-q2

An AD user\\’s department attribute value is configured as “QA”. The user authenticates from a laptop running MAC OS
X. Which role is assigned to the user in ClearPass?
A. HR Local
B. Remote Employee
C. [Guest]
D. iOS Device
E. Executive
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.

hpe6-a68 exam questions-q3

Which statement accurately describes the cp82 ClearPass node? (Choose two.)
A. It stays as a Subscriber when the Publisher fails.
B. It becomes the Publisher when the primary Publisher fails.
C. It operates as a Publisher in a separate cluster when the Publisher is active.
D. It operates as a Publisher in the same cluster as the primary Publisher when the primary is active.
E. It operates as a Subscriber when the Publisher is active.
Correct Answer: AE


QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.

hpe6-a68 exam questions-q4

What is the purpose of the `Clock Skew Allowance\\’ setting? (Choose tow.)
A. to ensure server certificate validation does not fail due to client clock sync issues
B. to set expiry time in client certificate to a few minutes longer that the default setting
C. to adjust clock time on client device to a few minutes before current time
D. to ensure client certificate validation does not fail due to client clock sync issues
E. to set start time in client certificate to a few minutes before current time
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.

hpe6-a68 exam questions-q5

Based on the configuration for the client\\’s certificate private key as shown, which statements accurately describe the
settings? (Choose two.)
A. More bits in the private key will increase security.
B. The private key for TLS client certificates is not created.
C. The private key is stored in the ClearPass server.
D. More bits in the private key will reduce security.
E. The private key is stored in the user device.
Correct Answer: AE


QUESTION 6
A customer with an Aruba Controller wants to set it up to work with ClearPass Guest.
Hoe should they configure ClearPass as an authentication server in the controller so that guests are able to authenticate
successfully?
A. Add ClearPass as RADIUS CoA server.
B. Add ClearPass as a TACACS+ authentication server.
C. Add ClearPass as a RADIUS authentication server.
D. Add ClearPass as a HTTPS authentication server.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.

hpe6-a68 exam questions-q7

Based on the Enforcement Policy configuration, when a user with Role Engineer connects to the network and the
posture token assigned is Unknown, which Enforcement Profile will be applied?
A. RestrictedACL
B. HR VLAN
C. Remote Employee ACL
D. [Deny Access Profile]
E. EMPLOYEE_VLAN
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.

hpe6-a68 exam questions-q8

What does the Cache Timeout Value refer to?
A. The amount of time the Policy Manager caches the user credentials stored in the Active Directory.
B. The amount of time the Policy Manager waits for a response from the Active Directory before checking the backup
authentication source.
C. The amount of time the Policy Manager caches the user attributes fetched from Active Directory.
D. The amount of time the Policy Manager waits for response from the Active Directory before sending a timeout
message to the Network Access Device.
E. The amount of time the Policy Manager caches the user\s client certificate.
Correct Answer: C

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hpe6-a70

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QUESTION 1
Which APs operate in an autonomous or standalone mode?
A. remote APs (RAPs)
B. spectrum analyzers (SAs)
C. mesh points (APs)
D. instant AP (IAP) clusters
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.

hpe6-a70 exam questions-q2

The alias in the rule shown in the exhibit is network 10.1.1.0/24. A wireless client is assigned IP address 10.1.2.10/24
and the “admins” role. The wireless client at 10.1.2.10 attempts to initiate a Web session with a server at 10.1.1.2. A
wired
client at 10.1.1.3 attempts to initiate an SSH session with the wireless client at 10.1.2.10.
How does the Aruba firewall handle these attempts?
A. The firewall drops the traffic from the wireless client. The firewall drops the traffic from the wired client.
B. The firewall permits the traffic from the wireless client, but drops the return traffic from the server.The firewall drops
the traffic from the wireless client.
C. The firewall permits the traffic from the wireless client and also permits the return traffic from the server. The firewall
permits the traffic from the wired client and also permits the return traffic from the wireless client.
D. The firewall permits the traffic from the wireless client and also permits the return traffic from the server. The firewall
drops the traffic from the wired client.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Network administrators use the wizard to create a WLAN that uses WPA2-Enterprise security to a RADIUS server at
10.21.98.55. They do not manually change any settings. Which device determines the EAP type that the wireless clients
must support?
A. Mobility Master (MM)
B. Mobility Controller (MC)
C. RADIUS server
D. AP
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.

hpe6-a70 exam questions-q4

A network administrator sets up the Exam_Employees WLAN on an Aruba solution with a default role of guest, as
shown in the exhibit. To which users does the guest role apply?
A. users who successfully authenticate and are assigned to the default role by the RADIUS server
B. users who successfully authenticate and are not assigned a different role by the RADIUS server
C. users who have connected to the SSID, but have not yet attempted authentication
D. users who fail authentication
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibits.
Exhibit 1

hpe6-a70 exam questions-q5

Exhibit 2 A network administrator configures a guest WLAN on an Aruba Mobility Master (MM)-based solution. The
exhibits show some of the settings for this WLAN. Which settings must the administrator configure on each Mobility
Controller (MC) at the device level for this configuration to function properly?

hpe6-a70 exam questions-q5-2

A. an IPsec preshared key
B. CPSec certificates
C. a portal page
D. VLAN 99 IP settings
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 6
A company has an Aruba solution and wants to provide guests with wireless access. The company wants to assign
guests IP addresses in subnets that exist only within the Aruba solution. Which feature should network administrators
set up so guests can send traffic on the Internet without changes to the company routing solution?
A. Enable NAT on the VLAN assigned to the guest WLAN.
B. Set up a dynamic default gateway on the Mobility Controllers (MCs).
C. Create destination NAT rules for the guest role.
D. Enable policy-based routing for the guest traffic.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
A network administrator has installed PEF licenses in the global pool of a Mobility Master (MM) solution. When the
administrator tries to configure roles and policies, an error indicates that the PEF licenses must be installed.
What should the administrator do to correct this issue?
A. Ensure the PEF licenses were installed at the Managed Network and not at the MM level.
B. Enable Building 1 as a local license pool.
C. Enable the PEF feature in the Global Usage window.
D. Activate the PEF licenses through an Aruba Activate account.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 8
What is one difference between how a network administrator can monitor clients in the Mobility (MM) interface and in
the AirWave Management Platform?
A. AirWave shows trends for the past several minutes, while MM shows longer trends.
B. AirWave combines information from more sources, such as RADIUS authenticating servers and APs.
C. AirWave shows the current signal level for the client connection, while MM does not show RF statistics.
D. MM shows user and role information associated with clients, while AirWave does not.
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
With MTA (Mail Transfer Agent) enabled the gateways to manages SMTP traffic and holds external email with potentially
malicious attachments. What is required in order to enable MTA (Mail Transfer Agent) functionality in the Security
Gateway?
A. Threat Cloud Intelligence
B. Threat Prevention Software Blade Package
C. Endpoint Total Protection
D. Traffic on port 25
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 2
If you needed the Multicast MAC address of a cluster, what command would you run?
A. cphaprob -a if
B. cphaconf ccp multicast
C. cphaconf debug data
D. cphaprob igmp
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 3
In which formats can Threat Emulation forensics reports be viewed in?
A. TXT, XML and CSV
B. PDF and TXT
C. PDF, HTML, and XML
D. PDF and HTML
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 4
The back end database for Check Point R80 Management uses:
A. DBMS
B. MongoDB
C. PostgreSQL
D. MySQL
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 5
What are the types of Check Point APIs available currently as part of the R80.10 code?
A. Security Gateway API Management API, Threat Prevention API, and Identity Awareness Web Services API
B. Management API, Threat Prevention API, Identity Awareness Web Services API, and OPSEC SDK API
C. OSE API, OPSEC SDK API, Threat Extraction API, and Policy Editor API
D. CPMI API, Management API, Threat Prevention API, and Identity Awareness Web Services API
Correct Answer: B
Reference: http://dl3.checkpoint.com/paid/29/29532b9eec50d0a947719ae631f640d0/CP_R80_CheckPoint_API_ReferenceGuide.pdf?HashKey=1517088487_4c0acda205460a92f44c83d399826a7bandxtn=.pdf


QUESTION 6
What are the steps to configure the HTTPS Inspection Policy?
A. Go to ManageandSettings > Blades > HTTPS Inspection > Configure in SmartDashboard
B. Go to Applicationandurl filtering blade > Advanced > Https Inspection > Policy
C. Go to ManageandSettings > Blades > HTTPS Inspection > Policy
D. Go to Applicationandurl filtering blade > Https Inspection > Policy
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 7
Which of the SecureXL templates are enabled by default on Security Gateway?
A. Accept
B. Drop
C. NAT
D. None
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 8
While using the Gaia CLI. what is the correct command to publish changes to the management server?
A. json publish
B. mgmt publish
C. mgmt_cli commit
D. commit
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 9
What is the protocol and port used for Health Check and State Synchronization in ClusterXL?
A. CCP and 18190
B. CCP and 257
C. CCP and 8116
D. CPC and 8116
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_ClusterXL_AdminGuide/index.html

QUESTION 10
There are two R77.30 Security Gateways in the Firewall Cluster. They are named FW_A and FW_B. The cluster is
configured to work as HA (High availability) with default cluster configuration. FW_A is configured to have a higher priority
than FW_B. FW_A was active and processing the traffic in the morning. FW_B was on standby. Around 1100 am, its
interfaces went down and this caused a failover. FW_B became active. After an hour, FW_A\\’s interface issues were
resolved and it became operational.
When it re-joins the cluster, will it become active automatically?
A. No, since the `maintain\\’ current active cluster member\\’ option on the cluster object properties is enabled by default.
B. No, since the `maintain\\’ current active cluster member\\’ option is enabled by default on the Global Properties.
C. Yes, since the `Switch to higher priority cluster member\\’ option on the cluster object properties is enabled by default.
D. Yes, since the `Switch to higher priority cluster member\\’ option is enabled by default on the Global Properties.
Correct Answer: A   Reference: http://dl3.checkpoint.com/paid/7e/7ef174cf00762ceaf228384ea20ea64a/CP_R77_ClusterXL_AdminGuide.pdf?HashKey=1479822138_31410b1f8360074be87fd8f1ab682464andxtn=.pdf


QUESTION 11
Which command shows detailed information about VPN tunnels?
A. cat $FWDIR/conf/vpn.conf
B. vpn tu tlist
C. vpn tu
D. cpview
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80.20_GA/WebAdminGuides/EN/CP_R80.20_CLI_ReferenceGuide/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R80.20_GA/WebAdminGuides/EN/CP_R80.20_CLI_ReferenceGuide/209239


QUESTION 12
In R80, where do you manage your Mobile Access Policy?
A. Access Control Policy
B. Through the Mobile Console
C. Shared Gateways Policy
D. From the Dedicated Mobility Tab
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 13
What is the least amount of CPU cores required to enable CoreXL?
A. 2
B. 1
C. 4
D. 6
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_PerformanceTuning_WebAdmin/6731.htm
 

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QUESTION 1
Which three requirements should be gathered during a design workshop? (Choose three.)
A. Constraints
B. Recoverability
C. Manageability
D. Risks
E. Requirements
Correct Answer: ACD


QUESTION 2
A company is starting a cloud deployment project. They have a requirement to provide one time and operational pricing
for virtual machine provisioning by line of business. Which two vRealize Suite products will meet the requirements?
A. vRealize Automation
B. vRealize Operations Manager
C. vRealize Organizer
D. vRealize Orchestrator
E. vRealize Business
Correct Answer: AE
Reference: https://www.vmware.com/products/vrealize-automation.html


QUESTION 3
Which feature of VMware vSphere will enable migration of powered-on virtual machines to another host in an ESXI
environment?
A. High Availability
B. vMotion
C. vSphere Replication
D. Fault Tolerance
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
A supervisor wants employees to seamlessly log into remote applications without having to enter their credentials
multiple times. What is required to support true Single Sign On (SSO)?
A. Horizon 7 and Windows Server 2016
B. Horizon 7 and any Linux Operating System
C. Only Horizon 7 is required
D. Horizon 7 and Identity Manager
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-Horizon-7/7.3/horizon-architecture-planning/GUIDE8152572-1B10-42C2-B605-1EF738AC2D20.html


QUESTION 5
In which form does Virtual SAN store and manage data?
A. Files
B. Disks
C. Objects
D. Blocks
Correct Answer: C
Virtual SAN stores and manages data in the form of flexible data containers called objects. An object is a logical volume
that has its data and metadata distributed and accessed across the entire cluster. Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-vSphere/5.5/com.vmware.vsphere.storage.doc/GUID-2B3B720F-0A7E-4B4B-883F-85A39C1A6C5A.html

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QUESTION 1
One of your virtual machines (VM) has performance issues and sometimes is unresponsive. Which VM file must be
checked in order to find the root cause?
A. vpxd.log
B. ds.log
C. vminst.log
D. vmware.log
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 2
A vSphere administrator has been tasked with ensuring that 500 virtual desktops are unable to communicate with one
another, but can communicate with required services. Which two solutions does VMware recommend? (Choose two.)
A. vSphere Host Firewall
B. Private VLAN
C. VMware NSX Distributed Firewall
D. Port Filtering
Correct Answer: BC


QUESTION 3
Which is a valid requirement for deploying the vCenter Server Appliance 6.x to a DRS cluster?
A. At least one host in the cluster must be in maintenance mode or lockdown mode.
B. One ESXi host in the cluster must not be in maintenance mode or lockdown mode.
C. All ESXi hosts in the cluster must not be in maintenance mode.
D. One ESXi host in the cluster must not be in lockdown mode.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which two statements are correct when licensing an ESXi 6.x host? (Choose two.)
A. ESXi licenses can only applied to ESXi hosts connected to a vCenter Server.
B. Bulk licensing requires vSphere Auto Deploy to be enabled.
C. ESXi licenses can be assigned utilizing the ESXi host client.
D. Bulk licensing requires vSphere PowerCLI.
Correct Answer: CD
Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMwarevSphere/6.5/com.vmware.vsphere.install.doc/GUID-28D25806-748B-49C0-97A1-E7DE5CB335A9.html


QUESTION 5
What are two requirements needed to enable a 4 vCPU virtual machine with Fault Tolerance? (Choose two.)
A. vSphere Enterprise Plus license
B. 1 GbE uplink for FT logging network
C. vSphere Standard license
D. 10 GbE uplink for FT logging network
Correct Answer: AD
Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMwarevSphere/6.5/com.vmware.vsphere.avail.doc/GUID-57929CF0-DA9B-407A-BF2E-E7B72708D825.html

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QUESTION 1
An NSX administrator has been tasked with deploying a NSX Edge Virtual machine through an ISO image.
Which virtual network interface card (vNIC) type must be selected while creating the NSX Edge VM to allow participation
in overlay and VLAN transport zones?
A. VMXNET3
B. VMXNET2
C. e1000
D. Flexible
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://vdc-download.vmware.com/vmwb-repository/dcr-public/182d387c-eaa8-4cdc-812d-8cb25812fefd/d09cad1f-553d-4c9e-a5b1-6544280eec25/NSX-T%20Command-Line%20Interface%20Reference.html


QUESTION 2
Which CLI command is used to start the NSX Manager virtual machine in the KVM environment?
A. virsh start
B. virsh poweron
C. virsh poweron
D. virsh start
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-NSX-T-DataCenter/2.1/com.vmware.nsxt.install.doc/GUID-928BAF6E-4684-43A0-8766-8FE191FE1FA7.html

QUESTION 3

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initiate communication with public networks?
A. Reverse NAT
B. SNAT
C. 1:1 NAT
D. DNAT
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which NSX CLI command is used to change the authentication policy for local users?
A. set cli-timeout
B. set hardening-policy
C. get auth-policy minimum-password-length
D. set auth-policy
Correct Answer: C
Reference https://vdc-download.vmware.com/vmwb-repository/dcr-public/182d387c-eaa8-4cdc-812d-8cb25812fefd/d09cad1f-553d-4c9e-a5b1-6544280eec25/NSX-T%20Command-Line%20Interface%20Reference.html


QUESTION 5
Which TraceFlow traffic type should an NSX administrator use for validating connectivity between App and DB virtual
machines that reside on different segments?
A. Multicast
B. Anycast
C. Broadcast
D. Unicast
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://images.nsx.techzone.vmware.com/sites/default/files/NSXT%20Reference%20Design%20Guide%20Version%202.0.pdf

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