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Latest effective Oracle 1Z0-071 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
Examine the commands used to create department details and course details:pass4itsure 1z0-071 exam question q1You want to generate a list of all department IDs that do not exist in the COURSE_DETAILS table. You execute the
SQL statement: pass4itsure 1z0-071 exam question q1-1What is the outcome?
A. it fails because the Join type used is Incorrect
B. It executes successfully and displays the required list.
C. It executes successfully but displays an incorrect list.
D. It fails because the ON clause condition is not valid
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 2
Which statement is true about transactions?
A. A set of Data Manipulation Language (DML) statements executed in a sequence ending with a SAVEPOINT forms a
single transaction.
B. Each Data Definition Language (DDL) statement executed forms a single transaction.
C. A set of DDL statements executed in a sequence ending with a COMMIT forms a single transaction.
D. A combination of DDL and DML statements executed in a sequence ending with a COMMIT forms a single
transaction.
Correct Answer: B
https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/CNCPT/transact.htm#CNCPT038


QUESTION 3
View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the EMP table which is not partitioned and not an index-organized table.
(Choose two.)pass4itsure 1z0-071 exam question q3Evaluate this SQL statement:
ALTER TABLE emp
DROP COLUMN first_name;
Which two statements are true?
A. The FIRST_NAME column can be dropped even if it is part of a composite PRIMARY KEY provided the CASCADE
option is added to the SQL statement.
B. The FIRST_NAME column would be dropped provided at least one column remains in the table.
C. The FIRST_NAME column would be dropped provided it does not contain any data.
D. The drop of the FIRST_NAME column can be rolled back provided the SET UNUSED option is added to the SQL
statement.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 4
Examine the structure of the BOOKS_ TRANSACTIONS table:pass4itsure 1z0-071 exam question q4Examine the SQL statement: pass4itsure 1z0-071 exam question q4-1Which statement is true about the outcome?
A. It displays details only for members who have borrowed before today with RM as TRANSACTION_TYPE.
B. It displays details for members who have borrowed before today\\’s date with either RM as TRANSACTION_TYPE or
MEMBER_ID as A101 and A102.
C. It displays details for only members A101and A102 who have borrowed before today with RM as
TRANSACTION_TYPE.
D. It displays details for members who have borrowed before today with RM as TRANSACTION_TYPE and the details
for members A101 or A102.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 5
The following are the steps for a correlated subquery, listed in random order:
1.
The WHERE clause of the outer query is evaluated.
2.
The candidate row is fetched from the table specified in the outer query.
3.
This is repeated for the subsequent rows of the table, till all the rows are processed.
4.
Rows are returned by the inner query, after being evaluated with the value from the candidate row in the outer query.
Which is the correct sequence in which the Oracle server evaluates a correlated subquery?
A. 2, 1, 4, 3
B. 4, 1, 2, 3
C. 4, 2, 1, 3
D. 2, 4, 1, 3
Correct Answer: D
http://rajanimohanty.blogspot.co.uk/2014/01/correlated-subquery.html


QUESTION 6
Evaluate the following two queries: SQL> SELECT cust_last_name, cust_city FROM customers WHERE
cust_credit_limit IN (1000, 2000, 3000); SQL> SELECT cust_last_name, cust_city FROM customers WHERE
cust_credit_limit = 1000 or cust_credit_limit = 2000 or cust_credit_limit = 3000 Which statement is true regarding the
above two queries?
A. Performance would improve in query 2 only if there are null values in the CUST_CREDIT_LIMIT column.
B. There would be no change in performance.
C. Performance would degrade in query 2.
D. Performance would improve in query 2.
Correct Answer: B
http://oraclexpert.com/restricting-and-sorting-data/


QUESTION 7
View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the ORDERS table. The ORDER_ID column is the PRIMARY KEY in the
ORDERS table.pass4itsure 1z0-071 exam question q7Evaluate the following CREATE TABLE command:
CREATE TABLE new_orders(ord_id, ord_date DEFAULT SYSDATE, cus_id)
AS
SELECT order_id.order_date,customer_id
FROM orders;
Which statement is true regarding the above command?
A. The NEW_ODRDERS table would not get created because the DEFAULT value cannot be specified in the column
definition.
B. The NEW_ODRDERS table would get created and only the NOT NULL constraint defined on the specified columns
would be passed to the new table.
C. The NEW_ODRDERS table would not get created because the column names in the CREATE TABLE command and
the SELECT clause do not match.
D. The NEW_ODRDERS table would get created and all the constraints defined on the specified columns in the
ORDERS table would be passed to the new table.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 8
Which two statements are true regarding subqueries? (Choose two.)
A. A subquery can appear on either side of a comparison operator.
B. Only two subqueries can be placed at one level.
C. A subquery can retrieve zero or more rows.
D. A subquery can be used only in SQL query statements.
E. There is no limit on the number of subquery levels in the WHERE clause of a SELECT statement.
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 9
Examine the structure of the EMPLOYEES table. NameNull-Type
EMPLOYEE_IDNOT NULLNUMBER(6)
FIRST_NAMEVARCHAR2(20)
LAST_NAMENOT NULLVARCHAR2(25)
EMAILNOT NULLVARCHAR2(25)
PHONE NUMBERVARCHAR2(20)
HIRE_DATENOT NULLDATE
JOB_IDNOT NULLVARCHAR2(10)
SALARYNUMBER(8,2)
COMMISSION_PCTNUMBER(2,2)
MANAGER_IDNUMBER(6)
DEPARTMENT_IDNUMBER(4)
There is a parent/child relationship between EMPLOYEE_ID and MANAGER_ID.
You want to display the last names and manager IDs of employees who work for the same manager as the employee
whose EMPLOYEE_ID is 123.
Which query provides the correct output?
A. SELECT e.last_name, m.manager_idFROM employees e RIGHT OUTER JOIN employees mon (e.manager_id =
m.employee_id)AND e.employee_id = 123;
B. SELECT e.last_name, m.manager_idFROM employees e RIGHT OUTER JOIN employees mon (e.employee_id =
m.manager_id)WHERE e.employee_id = 123;
C. SELECT e.last_name, e.manager_idFROM employees e RIGHT OUTER JOIN employees mon (e.employee_id =
m.employee_id)WHERE e.employee_id = 123;
D. SELECT m.last_name, e.manager_idFROM employees e LEFT OUTER JOIN employees mon (e.manager_id =
m.manager_id)WHERE e.employee_id = 123;
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 10
Examine the commands used to create DEPARTMENT_DETAILS and COURSE_DETAILS:pass4itsure 1z0-071 exam question q10You want to generate a report that shows all course IDs irrespective of whether they have corresponding department
IDs or not but no department IDs if they do not have any courses. Which SQL statement must you use?
A. SELECT course_id, department_id, FROM department_details d RIGHT OUTER JOIN course_details c USING
(department_id)
B. SELECT c.course_id, d.department_id FROM course_details c RIGHT OUTER JOIN .department_details d ON
(c.depatrment_id=d.department_id)
C. SELECT c.course_id, d.department_id FROM course_details c FULL OUTER JOIN department_details d ON
(c.department_id=d. department_id)
D. SELECT c.course_id, d.department_id FROM course_details c FULL OUTER JOIN department_details d ON
(c.department_idd. department_id)
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 11
Which three statements are true about the ALTER TABLE….DROP COLUMN…. command?
A. A column can be dropped only if it does not contain any data.
B. A column can be dropped only if another column exists in the table.
C. A dropped column can be rolled back.
D. The column in a composite PRIMARY KEY with the CASCADE option can be dropped.
E. A parent key column in the table cannot be dropped.
Correct Answer: BDE


QUESTION 12
View the Exhibit and examine, the description for the SALES and CHANNELS tables. (Choose the best answer.) You
issued this SQL statement:
INSERT INTO SALES VALUES (23, 2300, SYSDATE,
(SELECT CAHNNEL_ID
FROM CHANNELS
WHERE CHANNEL_DESC=\\’DIRECT SALES\\’), 12, 1, 500);
Which statement is true regarding the result?
A. The statement will fail because the sub-query in the VALUES clause is not enclosed within single quotation marks.
B. The statement will fail because a subquery cannot be used in a VALUES clause.
C. The statement will execute and a new row will be inserted in the SALES table.
D. The statement will fail because the VALUES clause is not required with the subquery.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 13
Examine the command:
SQL> ALTER TABLE books_transactions
ADD CONSTRAINT fk_book_id FOREIGN KEY (book_id)
REFERENCES books (book_id) ON DELETE CASCADE;
What does ON DELETE CASCADE imply?
A. When the BOOKS table is dropped, the BOOK_TRANSACTIONS table is dropped.
B. When the BOOKS table is dropped, all the rows in the BOOK_TRANSACTIONS table are deleted but the table
structure is retained.
C. When a row in the BOOKS table is deleted, the rows in the BOOK_TRANSACTIONS table whose BOOK_ID
matches that of the deleted row in the BOOKS table are also deleted.
D. When a value in the BOOKS.BOOK_ID column is deleted, the corresponding value is updated in the
BOOKS_TRANSACTIONS.BOOK_ID column.
Correct Answer: C

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Exam MB6-890: Microsoft Dynamics AX Development Introduction:
https://www.microsoft.com/en-za/learning/exam-mb6-890.aspx

Pass4itsure offers the latest Microsoft Dynamics AX MB6-890 practice test free of charge (22Q&As)

QUESTION 1
You need to write an expression to calculate the compound interest that a bank needs
The formula for compound interest after one period is as follows:
I = (P * (1 + R)) – P
Where
I = Compound interest
P = Principal that was invested
R = Rate of interest
after one period.
Which X++ expression is equivalent to the formula above using operator precedence in X+- +-?
A. I = P* 1 + R- P
B. I = P*(1 + R-P)
C. I = P*(1 + R)-P
D. I = (P* 1) + (R-P)
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
You have a table named CustTable. which has the following three fields: AccountNum, Currency, and CustGroup. You need to wnte X++ code to insert a record into CustTable and set the values of the three fields as follows:
AccountNum = “5000-
Currency = “USD”
CustGroup=”30″
Which two code segments can you use to achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution
pass4itsure MB6-890 question
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 3
You have an X++ class that has the following code
pass4itsure MB6-890 question
You are writing a static method. You have an object of AssetBookCompareContract named assetBookCompareContractObj that is initialized within this method.
You need to print the current value of the firstAssetBookld variable from the assetBookCompareContractObj object.
Which piece of code should you use to achieve this goal?
A. irvFo(assetBookCompareContractObj : :fIrstAssetBookld);
B. info(assetBookCompareContractObj.f IrstAssetBookld);
C. info(assetBookCompareContractObj.panmFirstAssetBookId(“”));
D. info(assetBookCompareContractObj.parmFirstAssel:BookId());
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
You have the following X++ statement
pass4itsure MB6-890 question
What is the output of the statement?
A. An error has occurred.
VariableB cannot be less than variableA.
B. An error has occurred.
Process was aborted.
C. An error has occurred.
VariableB cannot be less than variableA.
D. VariableB cannot be less than variableA.
Process was aborted.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
You want to have a form where you can display an image in a fast tab. Which type of sub- pattern should you apply to the fast tab?
A. Horizontal fields and Button group
B. Section tiles
C. Custom filters
D. Image preview
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
You are using Visual Studio to manage development with Microsoft Dynamics AX. You need to complete a project for use within the application. Which step must be performed?
A. best practice check
B. synchronization
C. build
D. validation
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
You have two classes written in X++ with the following code:
pass4itsure MB6-890 question
Which three methods of the DirParty class are accessible from the Write method? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution.)
A. duplicateCurrentParty()
B. addLocation()
C. update()
D. getContactlnfo()
E. add LocationCI ientO
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 8
You need to develop a new XDS policy for employees. You employees’ expense records.
Where should you apply the filter?A. Constrained tables
B. Query
C. Policy group
D. Context string
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
You are developing a form that allows users to update an order status. You create a table named Tablel that you will use as a data source for this form.
You want to include a radio-button style selection so that the end user can choose between three different order statuses: “Canceled”, “Delivered”, “Processing”.
What should you add to Table1 so that you can add the radio button selection to the form?
A. three different string fields that represent each order status
B. three different Extended Data Types (EDTs) of type string with each order status
C. a Boolean data type with values that represent each choice
D. a base enumeration with three elements that represent each order status
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
You need to ensure that the custom roles that are created for your company comply with the segregation of duties. What are three possible ways to achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Verification
B. Authorization
C. Application
D. Validation
E. Contextualization
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 11
You have an X+ + class that has the following code:
public class CustAdvancelnvoiceJourDP
{
private void insertCustVendAdvanceInvoiceJourTmp()
{
// do work
}
public void processReport()
{
// call InsertCustVendAdvancelnvoiceJourTmp
}
}
You need to call insertCustVendAdvancelnvoiceJourTmpO from the processReport method on the current instance of the object Which piece of code should you write within the processReport method to achieve this goal?
A. CustiAdvancelnvoiceJourDP newObj = new CustAdvanceInvoiceDourDP(); newObj.insertCustVendAdvanceInvoiceDourTmp();
B. CustAdvancelnvoiceDourDP.insertCustVendAdvancelnvoiceJourTmp();
C. CustAdvancelnvoiceDourOP: :insertCustVendAdvanceInvoiceDourTmp( ) ;
D. this.insertCustVendAdvanceInvoice3ourTmp();
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
You are writing a class named Asset Copy.
You need to create a menu item that, when clicked, runs code written in the Asset Copy class.
What should you do to achieve this goal?
A. Create a method in the AssetCopy class which has a prototype of “client static void main(Args args)’ Create an Action Menu item, and set the ObjectType to Class and the Object to “AssetCopy”.
B. Create a method in the AssetCopy class which has a prototype of “void run()”.
Create an Action Menu item, and set the ObjectType to Class and the Object to “AssetCopy”.
C. Create a method in the AssetCopy class which has a prototype of “void new(AssetTable _assetTable)”.
Create an Action Menu item, and set the ObjectType to Class and the Object to “AssetCopy”.
D. Create a method in the AssetCopy class which has a prototype of “Object dialogO”.
Create an Action Menu item, and set the ObjectType to Class and the Object to “AssetCopy”.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
You are using the Visual Studio development environment to perform a customization for your client.
You need to follow best practices to create a new table to store customer ranking information for each custom
What should you name this new table element?
A. Custrankinginfo
B. CustRankinglnfo
C. CustRankinglnfo
D. custrankinginfo
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
You have the following X++ classes:
class ProductDimensionAttribute;
{
string attribute
void getAttribute()
{
return “Color”;
}
}
Class ColorDiraensionAttnibute extends ProductDimensionAttribute
{
void getAttribute( )
{
return “Green”;
}
}
You also have a runnable class which has the following co
ProductDimensionAttribute dimension;ColorDimensionAttribute color = new ColorDimensionAttribute();
info(color.getAttnibute());
dimension = color;
inf o(dimension . getAttribute()) ;
Which output is correct if you run the above code that is part of the runnable class?
A. Green Color
B. Green Green
C. Color Color
D. Color Green
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
You are working in the Visual Studio development environment of Microsoft Dynamics AX. You need to delete the data in a specific table. What should you use?
A. Table Browser
B. Delete Actions
C. Code Profiler
D. Type Hierarchy Browser
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
You create a duty to maintain customer master information.
Which two elements can you add to the duty?
A. permissions
B. policies
C. privileges
D. process cycles
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
You need to create several reports that use the same combination of tables as data sources. You know that you will need a relation between these tables so that the report outputs as desired. You also want the ability to change details, such
as report parameters or sorting options, at run time.
Which element should you create to store these tables and the relations so that you can reuse the element as the data source on future reports?
A. a new table
B. a query
C. a view
D. a table map
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
Your company needs a new table that will track customer names and numbers for three new types of transactions, along with the date for each transaction.
You need to create the new table and fields.
Which field should you create using a base enumeration?
A. customer name
B. transaction type
C. customer account number
D. transaction date
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
You need to explain the attributes of a package in Microsoft Dynamics AX.
Which three statements are true? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. A package can be associated with one or more projects.
B. A package can only be associated with one project.
C. A package can contain one or more models.
D. A package can only be associated with one model.
E. A package can be exported to a file.
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 20
You have two tables: CustTable and CustTrans.
CustTrans has a foreign key relation with CustTable on the “AccountNum” field. Multiple CustTrans records refer to a single CustTable record. Each CustTrans record can refer to a single CustTable record.
You want to write code to display records of customers and their corresponding transactions. You need to display the following fields:
AccountNum from CustTable table
CustGroup from CustTable table
AmountCur from CustTrans table
Finally, you want to select only the approved transactions. An approved transaction is a CustTrans record where the value of the Approved field is NoYes::Yes.
You need to choose the data that meets these requirements.
Which select statement should you use?
A. CustTable custTable;
CustTrans custTrans;
while select: AccountNum, CustGroup -From custTable join AmountCur -from custTrans
where custTrans.AccountNum == custTable.AccountNum && custTrans.Approved == NoYes::Yes
{
// do work
}
B. CustTable custTable;
CustTrans custTrans;
while select: AccountNum, CustGroup from custTable exists join AmountCur -from custTrans
where custTrans.AccountNum == custTable.AccountNum && custTrans-Approved == NoYes::Yes
{
// do work
}
C. CustTable custTable;
CustTrans custTrans;
while select AccountNum, CustGroup from custTable where custTrans .AccountNum == custTable. AccountNum join AmountCust -from custTrans where custTrans.Approved == NoYes:;Yes {
// do work
}
D. CustTable custTable;
CustTrans custTrans;
while select AccountNum, CustGroup, AmountCur -from custTable join custTrans
where custTrans-AccountNum == custTable.AccountNum && custTrans.Approved == NoYes::Yes
{
// do work
}
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
You are working in Visual Studio to manage development with Microsoft Dynamics AX.What are three capabilities of the Application Explorer? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Searching
B. Filtering
C. Server view
D. Model view
E. Project view
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 22
You are writing a function “SumOflnt(n)” that returns the sum of numbers from 0 to n as shown in the following exhibit:
SumOflnt(l) = 0 + 1 = 1
SumOflnt(2) = 0+1 + 2 = 3
SumOflnt(n) = 0 + 1 + … (n-1) + n
The function prototype is the following:
public static int SumOflnUint n)
{
}
Which two functions return the correct answer? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. public static int SumOflnt(int n)
{
int total = O;
int i = O;
do
{
I++;
total = total + i;
}
while (i < n);
return total;
}
B. public static int SumOfInt(int n)
{
int total = 0;
int i = 0;
while(i < n)
{
total = total + i;
i + + ;
}
return total;
}
C. public static int SumOflnt(int n)
{
int total = 0;
int i = O;
do
{
i++;
total = total + i;
}
while (i <= n);
return total;
}
D. public static int SumOflnt(int n)
{
int total = 0;
int i = 0;
while(i <= n)
{
total = total + i;
i + +;
}
return total;
}
Correct Answer: BC

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Exam MB6-892: Microsoft Dynamics AX Distribution and Trade:
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Pass4itsure offers the latest Microsoft Dynamics AX MB6-892 practice test free of charge (20Q&As)

QUESTION 1
You are a purchasing agent.
Your company agrees on a purchase price with a supplier. You create a purchase agreement.
Which two tasks can you perform with the agreement? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Createa release order when no commitment is defined for quantity of a product.
B. Create purchase agreements based on quality or weight.
C. Define a validity period for the purchase agreement.
D. Put purchase agreements on hold during ordering.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 2
You are working with a vendor who supplies you with apparel and sporting good products. You are
negotiating a new purchase agreement with the vendor.
The agreement terms you have arranged with the vendor are for a 3 percent discount on all of the sporting
good products when the order volume over the next month is at least 50,000 USD.
Which commitment type should you use?
A. product quantity
B. product value
C. product category value
D. value
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
You are the controller at Contoso, Ltd. You have configured the chart of accounts for the company and
included two main accounts that should be used for posting vendor account balances. One is used for
regular external vendor accounts, and the other is used for intercompany vendor accounts.
You need to configure the system to use these two main accounts.
What should you do?
A. Create a vendor posting profile.
B. Create a journal name.
C. Create an inventory posting profile.
D. Create an allocation journal.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
You are implementing Microsoft Dynamics AX Distribution and Trade for a new customer.
You need to configure the costing methodology to be a Weighted Average for all items.
What should you configure?
A. product dimension groups
B. item model groups
C. tracking dimension groups
D. item groups
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
You need to configure commissions to be calculated on sales, only after all discounts are taken on the line
items of a sales order.
What should you use?
A. The Sales order journal
B. The Price/discount agreement journal
C. The Commission percentage field
D. The Discount field
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
You need to set up locations for a warehouse that will store finished goods for one of your company’s
divisions.
What are three possible details that you can specify for the locations? Each correct answer presents a
complete solution.
A. The maximum number of pallets
B. The physical dimensions
C. The inventory dimensions
D. The maximum dimensions of the items
E. The maximum weight that can be stored
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 7
You need to ensure that a shipment from a vendor can be accepted into inventory, even if the quantity of
the product received is greater than the amount ordered.
What should you configure?
A. The inventory and warehouse management parameters
B. The procurement and sourcing parameters
C. The product Information management parameters
D. The accounts payable parameters
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
You are presenting sales quotations to your client for review.
What are the two statuses that can be selected on an open sales quotation? Each correct answer presents
a complete solution.
A. Order status is sent.
B. Run in the background is selected.
C. Order status is confirmed.
D. Reason lost or cancelled is selected.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 9
You are the purchasing administrator for your company.You need to create a purchasing policy.
Which two policy rules should be selected to manage employee access to specific categories in the
procurement category hierarchy and to define rules that control the requisition creation process? Each
correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Category access policy rule.
B. Replenishment category access policy rule.
C. Requisition purpose rule
D. Purchase requisition control rule
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 10
You are the accounts receivable manager. You need to match customer invoices to payments that will be
recorded by searching invoice lines that meet selected criteria.
Which search option should you use?
A. Bridging method
B. Settlements
C. Create lines
D. Payment proposal
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
You are the purchasing agent for your company.
You need to create a request for quotation (RFQ) for a product that is not in the item drop- down list.
Which type of line item should you create?
A. Category
B. Open
C. Solicitation
D. Item
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
You need to register a pallet controlled item.
What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Complete a pallet transport.
B. Post an arrival journal.
C. Use the Direct registration function on the Arrival overview form.
D. Use the registration function on the order line.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 13
You plan to create a sales order for an item.
Currently, you do not have the item on hand, but you have a purchase order for the item.
You need to ensure that the item can be reserved against the purchase order.
What should you do?A. From the Accounts payable parameters form, set Reservation to Automatic.
B. From the Inventory and warehouse management parameters form, select Reserve items automatically.
C. From the Accounts receivable parameters form, set Reservation to Automatic.
D. From the Inventory and warehouse management parameters form, select Reserve ordered items.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
The bill of exchange process needs to be set up on your new Microsoft Dynamics AX Distribution and
Trade system.
Which three configuration steps are required? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. journal names for eachstage
B. bridging account
C. posting profiles
D. remittance format
E. a method of payment
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 15
You need to add freight and handling charges when you enter a new purchase order.
What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Create a journal for the freight and handling charges.
B. Add two additional lines to the purchase order, one for the freight service item and one for the handling
service items.
C. Add two additional supplementary items to the purchase order, one for freight and one for handling.
D. Add two charges transactions that each has a charges code.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 16
You are an accounts receivable manager.
Your company wants its top 10 customers in August to receive a best-selling product at a reduced price.
You need to establish a price.
Which two actions should you perform to configure Microsoft Dynamics AX Distribution and Trade for this
task? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Set up the item sales price in the released product table.
B. Set up a Customer group for the 10 customers to be assigned to.
C. Set up a price/discount journal.
D. Set up a Price/Discount group for the 10 customers.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 17
Your department manager wants an estimate of the actual invoice amounts that you will bill for a customer
this month. However, the department manager does not want these amounts posted.
From which two types of invoices can you create a pro forma invoice? Each correct answer presents a
complete solution.A. subledger
B. customer
C. payment schedule
D. free text
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 18
You are an order processor at Contoso, Ltd.
You create a new sales order for a wholesale company. Later, the sales manager at Contoso, Ltd. for the
wholesales account informs you that their company has a sales agreement for a 10 percent discount on
apparel items.
You need to ensure that the discount is applied correctly to the order and that the order updates the
fulfillment of the sales agreement.
What should you do?
A. Put the sales order on hold, and then create a release from the sales agreement.
B. Update the existing sales order lines to link to the sales agreement by using the Price details option
under the Sales orderline button on the sales order.
C. Delete the sales order, and then create a new sales order by using the Copy from journal function.
D. Update the existing sales order lines to link to the sales agreement by using the Create link option
under the Update line button on the sales order.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
You are the purchasing agent for your company. You create a request for quotation (RFQ) and send it to
vendors.
You need to categorize the responses you receive from the vendors.
What should you set up?
A. Purchase agreement classification
B. Results view
C. Reason codes
D. Vendor reply status
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20
You are the accounts payable manager for your company. You and the vendor agree that defective items
will be returned with a reference to the original purchase order.
You need to create a vendor credit note.
What are three methods that can be used? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Copy the original purchase invoice.
B. Createa purchase order with the purchase type blanket order.
C. Create a purchase order with the purchase type journal.
D. Create a purchase order with the purchase type returned order.
E. Create a purchase order line for a negative quantity.
Correct Answer: CDE

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Exam MB6-893: Microsoft Dynamics AX Financials:
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Pass4itsure offers the latest Microsoft Dynamics AX MB6-893 practice test free of charge (22Q&As)

QUESTION 1
You are processing a customer payment and want to generate a payment line based on due date so that you can search the invoice lines that meet selected search criteria.
What should you do?
A. Use Settlement
B. Use payment transfer.
C. Use Manual Payment Journal
D. Use Payment proposal
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
In Microsoft Dynamics AX Financial, you generate a fixed assets acquisition transaction directly from a purchase order invoice. Where will the associated General Ledger postings be made?
A. To only the Fixed asset issue account.
B. To only the Fixed asset receipt account.
C. To only the Fixed asset suspense account.
D. To the Fixed asset issue and Fixed asset receipt accounts.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Your company creates a policy that requires invoice matching information on documents.
Which three types of documents are used for invoice matching? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. purchase order
B. vendor invoice
C. receipts list
D. purchase order confirmation
E. product receipt
Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 4
A controller wants to run a Trial Balance report by main account and department
What does that controller need to set up so that Microsoft Dynamics AX Financial will allow this selection during the generation of the Trial Balance report?
A. derived financial hierarchies
B. advanced rule structures
C. financial dimension sets
D. account structures
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Your company needs to reuse a check number in case a check was printed incorrectly or the check stock was not used. You need to allow reuse of the check number. Where do you define this action?
A. in the Vendors area of the Accounts payable parameters setup form
B. in the Customers area of Accounts receivable parameters setup form
C. in the Cash and bank management parameters form of the Cash and bank management parameters setup form
D. in the Posting area of the General ledger parameters setup form
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
You are implementing fixed assets for your company. Your company buys a machine for 100.000 USD and recognizes 10,000 USD of depreciation per year over the following ten years. At that time, the machine is not only fully depreciated,
but the company is eliminating the machine without receiving any payment in return.
What are two available methods to eliminate a fixed asset? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Revaluation
B. Provision for reserve
C. Disposal scrap
D. Disposal sale
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 7
You are setting up an allocation rule and distributing amounts based on revenue dollars.
You need to share the cost of corporate advertising expenses across all departments and base each department’s sales in proportion to the total sales of all departments.
Which allocation should you choose?
A. Fixed Percentage
B. Equally
C. Fixed Weight
D. Basis
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
You need to consolidate multiple subsidiary company transactions into the consolidation company in Microsoft Dynamics AX Financial.
You need to modify the financial dimensions at the time of consolidation, such as including the originating company code on each transaction.
When performing a consolidation in Dynamics AX, which three specifications can be selected for each dimension? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. group dimension
B. main accounts
C. dimension
D. operating units
E. company accounts
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 9
You are an accounts receivable manager.
You have an agreement with a customer that they will pay installments on the 25th day of the month every three months.
On the customer terms of payment, which three settings do you need to specify? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. cash payment
B. payment method
C. payment type
D. payment day
E. payment schedule
Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 10
You are the controller in a foreign subsidiary of your company.
You are creating a sales order with no sales tax for a foreign customer. You need to report this sales by creating a tax code.
What should you set up in this situation?
A. conditional sales tax
B. withholding sales tax
C. standard sales tax
D. sales tax exemption
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Your company has decided to add five new vendors for purchasing and you are responsible for confi-guring the vendors in the new system.
You want to group vendors by some specific values that are shared across multiple vendors and you have indentified vender groups on the vendor group from, which two specific values can be defined? Each correct answer presents a
complete solution.
A. Terms of payment
B. aging periods
C. matching policy
D. default tax group
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 12
You decide that department managers must submit budget plans to you each quarter.
You need to use the budget planning template wizard to generate a budget planning template that each department submit to you.
What are three prerequisites for creating a template for budget plan worksheets? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Create a budget plan and review its information by using a worksheet template.
B. Decide which matrix fields to creat.
C. Select the worksheet template to use for the budget planning process.
D. Decide which fields to use for the header.
E Decide which columns to include on the worksheet.
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 13
You are implementing consolidations for your company. You want to use the consolidation conversion principles to convert subsidiary data in foreign currencies.
What are three requirements for starting the consolidation process? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Consolidation accounts
B. Balance control account
C. Consolidation account group
D. Legal Entity
E. Ledger elimination rule
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 14
You are an accounts receivable manager.
You need to generate a document that you can send to for a period.
What should you do?
A. Generate an internal accounts statement.
B. Generate a report for customer transactions.
C. Generate a collection letter note.
D. Generate a customer accounts statement.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
Your customer needs to set up Fixed assets and treat them as though they were purchased and placed in service at the mid-point of the first year, no matter when during that year the purchase was actually made.
Which depreciation convention should you use when creating the depreciation profile?
A. full month
B. half year
C. mid quarter
D. mid month
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Your company creates a bank account for U.S. payroll disbursements.
You need to configure the new bank account in Microsoft Dynamics AX Financial and configure the check layout. You notice the date is printing in DD-MM-YYYY format, and you are not able to change the date format on the check layout
form.
What determines the format of the date?
A. bank group on the bank groups form
B. check form setting on the check layout form
C. bank on the bank account form
D. vendor on the vendor form
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
You are creating a budget register entry. You notice that a manual budget reservation will exceed the budget.
What should you do within the budget register entry to satisfy the over-budget condition?
A. enter recurrence
B. transfer balances
C. allocate across periods
D. allocate across dimensions
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
You are setting up taxes on customer invoices. You need to report a sales tax on the invoice, as and when it is settled, to the tax authorities
pass4itsure MB6-893 question
When the customer settles the invoice with the second payment of 625 USD, you report the remaining sales tax. What should you set up in this situation?
A. Withholding sales tax
B. Sales tax exemption
C. Standard sales tax
D. Conditional sales taxes
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 19
You are creating a new budget and realize that you need to allocate a certain percentage of the total budget amount across defined periods.
In order to do this on the budget register entry, you need to define the percentage that will be allocated in each period.
What should you set up in order to achieve this goal?
A. budget transfer
B. period allocation key
C. budget allocation term
D. budget cycle
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20
An accountant needs to define which main accounts and financial dimensions can t>e used together when entering journals and transactions.
The accountant sets up the chart of accounts and creates the financial dimensions.
What are two possible actions the accountant can perform next to achieve the goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Configure Account Structure.
B. Create Derived Financial Hierarchies.
C. Set up Advanced Rules.
D. Set up Financial Dimension Sets.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 21
Because of an agreement that your company has with a customer about when a payment can be posted, you need to prevent users from posting payments until a specified date.
Which field should you update on the customer payment journal to achieve this goal?
A. Due date
B. Approval date
C. Release date
D. Payment date
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
You are a credit and collections manager.
You need to group all customers who are based in a single city and have balances greater than 10,000 USD so that the collections process is streamlined for the collections agent.
What should you do?
A. Set up collection agents.
B. Set up collections case category.
C. Set up customer pools.
D. Create a collections team.
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following application security testing techniques is implemented when an automated system generates random input data?
A. Fuzzing
B. XSRF
C. Hardening
D. Input validation
JK0-018 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which of the following can be used by a security administrator to successfully recover a user’s forgotten password on a password protected file?
A. Cognitive password
B. Password sniffing
C. Brute force
D. Social engineering
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
A security administrator wants to check user password complexity. Which of the following is the BEST tool to use?
A. Password history
B. Password logging
C. Password cracker
D. Password hashing
JK0-018 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Certificates are used for: (Select TWO).
A. Client authentication.
B. WEP encryption.
C. Access control lists.
D. Code signing.
E. Password hashing.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 5
Which of the following is a hardware based encryption device?
A. EFS
B. TrueCrypt
C. TPM
D. SLE
JK0-018 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which of the following BEST describes a protective countermeasure for SQL injection?
A. Eliminating cross-site scripting vulnerabilities
B. Installing an IDS to monitor network traffic
C. Validating user input in web applications
D. Placing a firewall between the Internet and database servers
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which of the following MOST interferes with network-based detection techniques?
A. Mime-encoding
B. SSL
C. FTP
D. Anonymous email accounts
JK0-018 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
A certificate authority takes which of the following actions in PKI?
A. Signs and verifies all infrastructure messages
B. Issues and signs all private keys
C. Publishes key escrow lists to CRLs
D. Issues and signs all root certificates
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Use of a smart card to authenticate remote servers remains MOST susceptible to which of the following attacks?
A. Malicious code on the local system
B. Shoulder surfing
C. Brute force certificate cracking
D. Distributed dictionary attacks
JK0-018 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Separation of duties is often implemented between developers and administrators in order to separate which of the following?
A. More experienced employees from less experienced employees
B. Changes to program code and the ability to deploy to production
C. Upper level management users from standard development employees
D. The network access layer from the application access layer
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
A security administrator needs to update the OS on all the switches in the company. Which of the following MUST be done before any actual switch configuration is performed?
A. The request needs to be sent to the incident management team.
B. The request needs to be approved through the incident management process.
C. The request needs to be approved through the change management process.
D. The request needs to be sent to the change management team.
JK0-018 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Jane, an individual, has recently been calling various financial offices pretending to be another person to gain financial information. Which of the following attacks is being described?
A. Phishing
B. Tailgating
C. Pharming
D. Vishing
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
A user in the company is in charge of various financial roles but needs to prepare for an upcoming audit. They use the same account to access each financial system. Which of the following security controls will MOST likely be implemented within the company?
A. Account lockout policy
B. Account password enforcement
C. Password complexity enabled
D. Separation of duties
JK0-018 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
A CRL is comprised oF.
A. Malicious IP addresses.
B. Trusted CA’s.
C. Untrusted private keys.
D. Public keys.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
Sara, a user, downloads a keygen to install pirated software. After running the keygen, system performance is extremely slow and numerous antivirus alerts are displayed. Which of the following BEST describes this type of malware?
A. Logic bomb
B. Worm
C. Trojan
D. Adware
JK0-018 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Which of the following may significantly reduce data loss if multiple drives fail at the same time?
A. Virtualization
B. RAID
C. Load balancing
D. Server clustering
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
Which of the following should be considered to mitigate data theft when using CAT5 wiring?
A. CCTV
B. Environmental monitoring
C. Multimode fiber
D. EMI shielding
JK0-018 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
To help prevent unauthorized access to PCs, a security administrator implements screen savers that lock the PC after five minutes of inactivity. Which of the following controls is being described in this situation?
A. Management
B. Administrative
C. Technical
D. Operational
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Pete, a network administrator, is capturing packets on the network and notices that a large amount of the traffic on the LAN is SIP and RTP protocols. Which of the following should he do to segment that traffic from the other traffic?
A. Connect the WAP to a different switch.
B. Create a voice VLAN.
C. Create a DMZ.
D. Set the switch ports to 802.1q mode.
JK0-018 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
Which of the following IP addresses would be hosts on the same subnet given the subnet mask 255.255.255.224? (Select TWO).
A. 10.4.4.125
B. 10.4.4.158
C. 10.4.4.165
D. 10.4.4.189
E. 10.4.4.199
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 21
Which of the following algorithms has well documented collisions? (Select TWO).
A. AES
B. MD5
C. SHA
D. SHA-256
E. RSA
JK0-018 pdf Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 22
Which of the following is BEST used as a secure replacement for TELNET?
A. HTTPS
B. HMAC
C. GPG
D. SSH
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 23
An email client says a digital signature is invalid and the sender cannot be verified. The recipient is concerned with which of the following concepts?
A. Integrity
B. Availability
C. Confidentiality
D. Remediation
JK0-018 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
Which of the following is an effective way to ensure the BEST temperature for all equipment within a datacenter?
A. Fire suppression
B. Raised floor implementation
C. EMI shielding
D. Hot or cool aisle containment
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 25
Which of the following transportation encryption protocols should be used to ensure maximum security between a web browser and a web server?
A. SSLv2
B. SSHv1
C. RSA
D. TLS
JK0-018 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26
Developers currently have access to update production servers without going through an approval process. Which of the following strategies would BEST mitigate this risk?
A. Incident management
B. Clean desk policy
C. Routine audits
D. Change management
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 27
Which of the following is a difference between TFTP and FTP?
A. TFTP is slower than FTP.
B. TFTP is more secure than FTP.
C. TFTP utilizes TCP and FTP uses UDP.
D. TFTP utilizes UDP and FTP uses TCP.
JK0-018 dumps Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
Matt, an administrator, notices a flood fragmented packet and retransmits from an email server. After disabling the TCP offload setting on the NIC, Matt sees normal traffic with packets flowing in sequence again. Which of the following utilities was he MOST likely using to view this issue?
A. Spam filter
B. Protocol analyzer
C. Web application firewall
D. Load balancer
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 29
Which of the following is characterized by an attacker attempting to map out an organization’s staff hierarchy in order to send targeted emails?
A. Whaling
B. Impersonation
C. Privilege escalation
D. Spear phishing
JK0-018 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
Which of the following would a security administrator implement in order to discover comprehensive security threats on a network?
A. Design reviews
B. Baseline reporting
C. Vulnerability scan
D. Code review
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 31
Which of the following is an example of a false positive?
A. Anti-virus identifies a benign application as malware.
B. A biometric iris scanner rejects an authorized user wearing a new contact lens.
C. A user account is locked out after the user mistypes the password too many times.
D. The IDS does not identify a buffer overflow.
JK0-018 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 32
Data execution prevention is a feature in most operating systems intended to protect against which type of attack?
A. Cross-site scripting
B. Buffer overflow
C. Header manipulation
D. SQL injection
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 33
Use of group accounts should be minimized to ensure which of the following?
A. Password security
B. Regular auditing
C. Baseline management
D. Individual accountability
JK0-018 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 34
Privilege creep among long-term employees can be mitigated by which of the following procedures?
A. User permission reviews
B. Mandatory vacations
C. Separation of duties
D. Job function rotation
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 35
In which of the following scenarios is PKI LEAST hardened?
A. The CRL is posted to a publicly accessible location.
B. The recorded time offsets are developed with symmetric keys.
C. A malicious CA certificate is loaded on all the clients.
D. All public keys are accessed by an unauthorized user.
JK0-018 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 36
Configuring the mode, encryption methods, and security associations are part of which of the following?
A. IPSec
B. Full disk encryption
C. 802.1x
D. PKI
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 37
Which of the following assessments would Pete, the security administrator, use to actively test that an application’s security controls are in place?
A. Code review
B. Penetration test
C. Protocol analyzer
D. Vulnerability scan
JK0-018 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 38
A security administrator has just finished creating a hot site for the company. This implementation relates to which of the following concepts?
A. Confidentiality
B. Availability
C. Succession planning
D. Integrity
Correct Answer: B

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[May.-2018-New] Most Reliable And Trustworthy Study Material for Best Cisco 300-170 Dumps CCNP Data Center Exam Video Covers All Key Points 60Q&As 1-30

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2018 Cisco 300-170 Dumps (All 60Q&As) From Pass4itsure 1-30

QUESTION 1
A system administrator checks the endpoint database and discovers MAC addresses that belong to inactive local nodes. Which description of the retention of the MAC addresses for the local nodes is true?
A. After five minutes, the inactive nodes are removed from the local endpoint database of the leaf
B. The local database is cleared only when the leaf reboots
C. The leaf sends three ARP requests after an aging period. The MAC addresses are stored to the local endpoint database aft long as the devices respond to the requests
D. After 15 minutes, the inactive nodes are removed from the local endpoint database of the leaf
300-170 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which two features are supported for configuration synchronization? (Choose two )
A. port profile
B. GEM pre-provisioning
C. configurations rollbacks
D. feature sets
E. FCoE
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 3
Which configuration is needed to extend the EPG out of the Cisco ACI fabric?
A. Create external bridged networks
B. Statically assign a port to EPG
C Apply a policy between the internal and the external EPG
C. Extend the tenant subnet of the bridge domain out of the fabric
300-170 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
What occurs when the Cisco ACI fabric receives multi destination traffic?
A. The traffic is forwarded as broadcast traffic
B. The traffic is forwarded as multicast traffic
C. The traffic is suppressed
D. The traffic is forwarded as unicast traffic
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
You are configuration a group of web servers and you create a contract that uses TCP port 80. Which action allows an external Layer 3 cloud to initiate communication with the EPG that contains the web servers?
A. Configure the EPG as a consumer and L3Out as provider of the contract
B. Configure OSPF to exchange routes between the L3Out and EPG
C. Create a taboo contract and apply it to the EPG
D. Configure the EPG as a provider and L3Out as consumer of the contract.
300-170 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
A unicast packet enters into the front panel port of a leaf switch. The leaf switch performs a forwarding lookup for the packet destination IP address and has a miss result Assuming default configuration, which statement about what happens next is true’?
A. The packet is sent to the forwarding proxy in the spine switch
B. The packet is dropped on the leaf switch
C. The packet is sent to another leaf switch within the same bridge domain
D. The packet is flooded across the entire fabric because it is an unknown unicast.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
You have a VSM that experiences a failure. Which two options are results of the failure? (Choose two )
A. CLI access to the virtual switch continues to work without any interruption
B. VEM stops working
C. Traffic forwarding stops for a short period of time and then continues to work normally
D. Traffic forwarding continues to work without any interruption
E. VMware vMotion stops working
300-170 vce Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 8
What is the retention period for remotely attached endpoint?
A. 3 minutes
B. 15 minutes
C. 5 minutes
D. 10 minutes
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which feature of a Cisco Nexus 1000V Servers Switch allows you to deploy traffic steering for a virtual infrastructure?
A. SOT
B. PVLAN
C. ACL
D. vPath
300-170 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
300-170 dumps
Refer to the exhibit:
For which option is the L3OUT-1 connection used?
A. bridge domain BD2
B. private network CIX1
C. private network Network-2
D. bridge domain BD1
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
You deploy AVS for Virtual Manager integration and you add a host that has five VMNICs. You must use VXLAN to maximize the load balancing of the traffic inside the fabric. How many VMKNICs must you add?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 8
300-170 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
You have a contract between in-band and out-of-band EPGs. Which two descriptions of this contention are true? (Choose two )
A. Filters apply m the incoming direction only
B. Both EPGs must be m one VRF
C. Management statistics are available
D. Shared services for CPU-bound traffic are supported
E. The configuration supports Layer 2
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 13
Which type of server is needed to provide POAP with a configuration script?
A. DHCP
B. SCP
C. FTP
D. TFTP
300-170 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Which action occurs first when a device that has the POAP feature boots and cannot find the startup configuration?
A. The device locates a DHCP server
B. The device enters POAP mode
C. The device obtains the IP address of a TFTP server
D. The device installs software image and a configuration file
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
Which two options are advantages of VMware AVS instead of a VMware vDS? (Choose two )
A. AVS supports vPath
B. AVS supports VLAN
C. AVS provides a single point of management for networking
D. AVS supports VXLAN
E. AVS supports micro segmentation
300-170 vce Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 16
Which protocol is used as the link-state routing protocol for a DFA fabric?
A. VXLAN
B. EIGRP
C. Fabric Path IS-IS
D. OSPF
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
You are trouble shooting node discovery issues by using the acidiag fnvread command. Which description of the node status when the CLI output shows a status of Discovering is true?
A. The node is decommissioned
B. The node ID is configured, but not discovered yet
C. The node is discovered, but an IP address is not assigned yet
D. The node is discovered, but the node ID policy is not configured yet
300-170 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
Why should you configure DHCP relay for Virtual Machine Manager integration?
A. to create VTEP VMK interfaces on each host for the OpFlex control channel
B. to provide IP addresses to ESXi hosts
C. to provide IP addresses to virtual hosts through the VXLAN infrastructure
D. to ensure that virtual hosts have the same address when they are moved by using VMware vMotion
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
The behavior of which packet type can be controlled by selecting unicast mode or flood mode in a bridge domain?
A. ARP
B. unknown unicast
C. LLDP
D. CDP
300-170 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
Which statement about POAP licensing correctly describes temporary licensing?
A. Temporary licensing is invoked by using the license grace-period command
B. Temporary licensing is enabled automatically and is valid for 60 days
C. Temporary licensing is invoked by using the license Install command
D. Temporary licensing is enabled automatically and is valid for 30 days
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
300-170 dumps
Refer to the exhibit :
You define the port profiles as shown in the exhibit, and then you assign the P10GIG port profile to interface el” Which option is the result of this configuration?
A. The speed of the interface is 10 Gbps
B. The speed of the interface is 1 Gbps
C. The interface uses the maximum speed available for the physical interface.
D. The speed of the interface is 100 GbpS
300-170 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
Which two options are benefits of using the configuration synchronization feature? (Choose two )
A. Supports the feature command
B. Supports existing session and port profile functionality
C. can be used by any Cisco Nexus switch
D. merges configurations when connectivity is established between peers O supports FCoE in vPC topologies
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 23
Which Cisco technology addresses management and performance concerns in a data center by unifying physical and virtual switch management?
A. VSO
B. SVM
C. VM-FEX
D. AVS
300-170 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
You are deploying L4-L7 services within Cisco Application Centric Infrastructure You need to modify an existing service graph. Where do you configure this?
A. under the provider EPG
B. on a connector within a service graph
C. on a function profile within a service graph
D. on a terminal node within a service graph
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
Which two parameters are part of the Cisco APIC first time setup and must be configured? (Choose two )
A. the fabric node vector configuration
B. the LLDP adjacency configuration
C. the out of-band management configuration
D. the cluster configuration
E. the APIC LLDP configuration
300-170 exam Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 26
Which component is excluded from a device package ZIP file?
A. debug logs
B. device-level configuration parameters
C. function profile
D. device scripts
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
Which type of discovery is used in the Cisco ACI fabric for automatic discovery?
A. ACI
B. Cisco APIC
C. DHCP
D. LLDR
300-170 dumps Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
When connecting to an external Layer 3 network, which two dynamic routing protocols can be used? (Choose two )
A. RIPv2
B. EIGRP
C. VXLAN
D. lS-IS
E. OSPF
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 29
Which option are L4-L7 devices registered as on a Cisco APIC?
A. one virtual device
B. a cluster
C. one physical device
D. more virtual devices
300-170 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 30
A host connected to a leaf switch sends an ARP request By default, what does the ingress switch do with the ARP requests?
A. Suppress the ARP
B. Send the ARP by using unicast.
C. Send the ARP by using a broadcast
D. Send the ARP by using multicast
Correct Answer: C

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[Apr.-2018-New] Latest Release Microsoft 70-346 Dumps Microsoft Office 365 Exam Test Video Training 268Q&As 15-35

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2018 Microsoft 70-346 Dumps (All 268 Q&As) From Pass4itsure 15-35

QUESTION 15
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. You prepare to install Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS). You need to open the correct port between the AD FS proxy server and the AD FS federation server. Which port should you open?
A. TCP 80
B. TCP 135
C. TCP 389
D. TCP 443
E. TCP 636
F. TCP 1723
70-346 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
Contoso uses Office 365 for collaboration services. You implement single sign-on (SSO) with Office 365 by using Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS). You need to implement Windows Azure multi-factor authentication. Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. On the AD FS federation server, run PhoneFactorAgentSetup.exe.
B. On the AD FS Federation server, run WindowsAzureSDK-x64.exe.
C. On the AD FS Federation server, run the Windows PowerShell cmdlet Register- AdfsAuthenticationProvider.
D. On the AD FS Federation server, run FsConfigWizard.exe.
E. Run the Active Directory Domains and Trusts MMC snap-in. Register Windows Azure Multi-Factor Authentication Server as an additional authentication provider.
F. Run the Windows Azure Multi-Factor Authentication Server Authentication Configuration Wizard.
Correct Answer: BCF

QUESTION 17
An organization with an Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain migrates to Office 365. You need to manage Office 365 from a domain-joined Windows Server 2012 Core server. Which three components should you install? Each answer presents part of the solution.
A. Azure Active Directory module for Windows PowerShell
B. Microsoft .NET Framework 3.5
C. Microsoft Office 365 Integration Module for Windows Small Business Server 2011 Essentials
D. Microsoft .NET Framework 4.0
E. Microsoft Online Services Sign-in Assistant
F. Rights Management module for Windows PowerShell
70-346 dumps Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 18
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. You must use Windows PowerShell to manage cloud identities in Office 365. You must use a computer that runs Windows 8 to perform the management tasks. You need to ensure that the Windows 8 computer has the necessary software installed. What should you install first?
A. Microsoft Office 365 Best Practices Analyzer for Windows PowerShell
B. Windows PowerShell 4.0
C. Remote Server Administration Tools for Windows
D. Microsoft Online Services Sign-in Assistant
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 19
Your company has an Office 365 subscription. The network contains an Active Directory domain. You configure single sign-on for all users. You need to verify that single sign-on functions for the users who access Office 365 from the Internet. What should you run?
A. the Get-MSOLFederationProperty cmdlet
B. the Test-OrganizationRelationship cmdlet
C. the Microsoft Remote Connectivity Analyzer
D. the Microsoft Exchange Server Deployment Assistant
70-346 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details provided in the question apply only to that question. A company has an Office 365 tenant that has an Enterprise E1 subscription. You synchronize disabled user accounts from an Active Directory Domain Services environment. You need to enable the user accounts in Office 365. Which Windows PowerShell cmdlet should you run?
A. Set-MsolUser
B. Redo-MsolProvisionUser
C. Set-MsolUserLicense
D. Set-MsolUserPrincipalName
E. Convert-MsolFederatedUser
F. Set-MailUser
G. Set-LinkedUser
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. Employees do not have local administrative privileges on client computers. The company has the following client computer software: Windows 7 and Windows 8 32-bit and 64-bit Office 2007, Office 2010, and Office 2013. When accessing the corporate Microsoft SharePoint 2010 site, some users are unable to display SharePoint lists in the Datasheet view. You need to ensure that all users can display SharePoint lists in the Datasheet view. What should you do?
A. Upgrade to the latest version of Office 365 ProPlus.
B. Force a reinstallation of Office by using Group Policy and specifying a network location.
C. Uninstall the 64-bit version of Office and then install the 32-bit version of Office.
D. Upgrade all Office 2007 and Office 2010 versions to Office 2013.
70-346 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
You have an Office 365 subscription.
Several users report that they fail to connect to Microsoft Skype for Business Online by using the Skype for Business 2016 client. You verify that you can connect to Skype for Business Online successfully from your computer. You need to identify what prevents the users from connecting to Skype for Business Online. Solution: You use the Microsoft Remote Connectivity Analyzer. Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23
Your company uses Office 365. You need to prevent users from initiating remote wipes of mobile devices by using the Office 365 portal. What should you modify?
A. the Outlook Web App mailbox policy
B. the Exchange ActiveSync device policy
C. the default role assignment policy
D. the Exchange ActiveSync Access settings
70-346 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 24
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. You have a server that runs Windows Server 2012. You plan to install an Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) web app proxy server. You need to install and configure the required roles.
What role should you install and configure?
A. Web Server (IIS)
B. Network Policy and Access Service
C. Application Server
D. Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS)
E. Remote Access
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 25
A company deploys an Office 365 tenant. You need to enable multi-factor authentication for Office 365. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
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70-346 dumps Correct Answer:
70-346 dumps
QUESTION 26
An organization prepares to migrate to Office 365. The organization has one domain controller named NYC-DC1 and one server named NYC-DS that is designated as the directory synchronization computer. The organization has the following servers:
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You plan to upgrade the servers to support directory synchronization. You must upgrade each server to meet only the minimum requirements by using the least amount of administrative effort. You need to ensure that you can use the Windows Azure Active Directory Sync tool to synchronize the local Active Directory with Office 365. What should you do? Select the correct action from each list in the answer area.
Hot Area:
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QUESTION 27
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. User1 leaves the company. You must delete the account for User1. In the table below, identify when each type of data will be deleted. Make only one selection in each column. Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:
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QUESTION 28
A company is deploying an Office 365 tenant. You need to deploy a Windows Server 2012 R2 federation server farm. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
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70-346 pdf Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 29
You are the Office 365 administrator for Contoso, Ltd. User1 is unable to sign in. You need to change the password for User1 and ensure that the user is prompted to reset her password the next time she signs in.
How should you complete the relevant Windows PowerShell command? To answer, drag the appropriate Windows PowerShell segments to the correct location or locations. Each Windows PowerShell segment may be used once, more than
once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:
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QUESTION 30
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. You audit the Windows Azure Active Directory Rights Management configuration for the company. You need to view a log of the recent administrative commands performed against the Microsoft Rights Management Service. Which three Windows PowerShell cmdlets should you run in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate cmdlets from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
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70-346 vce Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 31
Fabrikam has the Office 365 Enterprise E3 plan. You must add the domain name fabrikam.com to the Office 365 tenant. You need to confirm ownership of the domain. Which DNS record types should you use? To answer, drag the appropriate DNS record type to the correct location or locations in the answer area. Each DNS record type may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 32
A company plans to use Office 365 to provide email services to employees. The company obtains a custom domain name to use with Office 365. You need to add the domain name to Office 365. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
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70-346 dumps

QUESTION 33
Fabrikam Inc. plans to use the domain fabrikam.com for Office 365 user identities, email addresses. Session Initiation Protocol (SIP) addresses, and a public-facing home page. Single sign-on (SSO) between Office 365 and the on-premises Active Directory is NOT required. You need to configure the Office 365 plan. Which four Windows PowerShell cmdlets should you run in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
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70-346 dumps

QUESTION 34
OverView
Fabrikam, inc is a financial services organization. Fabrikam recently purchased another financial services organization named Contoso, Ltd. Fabrikam has 2000 users. Contoso has 500 users. Windows 10 and office 2016 are deployed to all computers.
Physical Location:
Fabrikam has an office in the United States. Contoso has an office in the United Kingdom. The offices connect to each other by using a WAN link. Each office also connects directly to the internet.
Existing Environment:
Active Directory:
The network Fabrikam contains an Active Directory forest. The Active Directory environment of Contoso was migrated to the Active Directory forest of Fabrikam. The forest contains three domains named fabrikam.com,contractor.fabrikam.com, and contoso.com. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2008 R2. All contractors outsourced by fabrikam use the user principal name (UPN) suffix of contractor.fabrikam.com. If fabrikam hires the contractor as a permanenet employee, the UPN suffix changes to fabrikam.com. Network
The network has the following configurations:
* External IP address for the United States office: 192.168.1.100
* External IP address for the United Kingdom office: 192.168.2.100
* Internal IP address range for the United States office: 10.0.1.0/24
* Internal IP address range for the United Kingdom office : 10.0.2.0/24
Active Directory Federation Services (ADFS)
AD FS and web Application Proxies are deployed to support an app for the sales department. The app is accessed from the Microsoft Azure Portal.
Office 365 Tenant
You have an Office 365 subscription that has the following configurations:
* Organization name: Fabrikam Financial Services.
* Vanity domain: Fabrikamfinancialservices.onmicrosoft.com
* Microsoft SharePoint domain: Fabrikamfinancialservices .sharepoint.com
* Additional domain added to the subscription: Contoso.com and fabrikam.com
Requirements:
Planned Changes:
* Deploy Azure AD connect.
* Move mailboxes from Microsoft Exchange 2016 to Exchange Online.
* Deploy Azure multi-factor authentication for devices that connect from untrusted networks only.
* Customize the AD FS sign-in webpage to include the Fabrikam logo, a helpdesk phone number, and a sign=in description.
* Once all of the Fabrikam users are replicated to Azure Active Directory (Azure AD), assign an E3 license to all of the users in the United States office.
Technical Requirements:
Contoso identifies the following technical requirements:
* When a device connects from an untrusted network to, ensure that users must type a verification code generated from a mobile app.
* Ensure that all users can access office 365 services from a web browser by using either a UPN or their primary SMTP email address.
* After Azure AD connect is deployed, change the UPN suffix if all the users in the Contoso sales department to fabrikam.com.
* Ensure that administrator are notified when the health information of Exchange Online changes.
* User Office 365 reports to review previous tasks performed in Office 365.
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the sonic scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals. You need to configure the Office 365 subscription 1o ensure that Active Directory users on conned to Office 365 resources by using single sign-on (SSO). Solution: You run Convert-MsolFederatedUser for all users. Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 35
OverView
Fabrikam, inc is a financial services organization.
Fabrikam recently purchased another financial services organization named Contoso, Ltd. Fabrikam has 2000 users. Contoso has 500 users. Windows 10 and office 2016 are deployed to all computers.
Physical Location:
Fabrikam has an office in the United States. Contoso has an office in the United Kingdom. The offices connect to each other by using a WAN link. Each office also connects directly to the internet.
Existing Environment:
Active Directory:
The network Fabrikam contains an Active Directory forest. The Active Directory environment of Contoso was migrated to the Active Directory forest of Fabrikam. The forest contains three domains named fabrikam.com,contractor.fabrikam.com, and contoso.com. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2008 R2. All contractors outsourced by fabrikam use the user principal name (UPN) suffix of contractor.fabrikam.com. If fabrikam hires the contractor as a permanenet employee, the UPN suffix changes to fabrikam.com.
Network
The network has the following configurations:
* External IP address for the United States office: 192.168.1.100
* External IP address for the United Kingdom office: 192.168.2.100
* Internal IP address range for the United States office: 10.0.1.0/24
* Internal IP address range for the United Kingdom office : 10.0.2.0/24
Active Directory Federation Services (ADFS)
AD FS and web Application Proxies are deployed to support an app for the sales department. The app is accessed from the Microsoft Azure Portal. Office 365 Tenant
You have an Office 365 subscription that has the following configurations:
* Organization name: Fabrikam Financial Services.
* Vanity domain: Fabrikamfinancialservices.onmicrosoft.com
* Microsoft SharePoint domain: Fabrikamfinancialservices .sharepoint.com
* Additional domain added to the subscription: Contoso.com and fabrikam.com
70-346 dumps Requirements:
Planned Changes:
* Deploy Azure AD connect.
* Move mailboxes from Microsoft Exchange 2016 to Exchange Online.
* Deploy Azure multi-factor authentication for devices that connect from untrusted networks only.
* Customize the AD FS sign-in webpage to include the Fabrikam logo, a helpdesk phone number, and a sign=in description.
* Once all of the Fabrikam users are replicated to Azure Active Directory (Azure AD), assign an E3 license to all of the users in the United States office.
Technical Requirements:
Contoso identifies the following technical requirements:
* When a device connects from an untrusted network to https://outlook.office.com, ensure that users must type a verification code generated from a mobile app.
* Ensure that all users can access office 365 services from a web browser by using either a UPN or their primary SMTP email address.
* After Azure AD connect is deployed, change the UPN suffix if all the users in the Contoso sales department to fabrikam.com.
* Ensure that administrator are notified when the health information of Exchange Online changes.
* User Office 365 reports to review previous tasks performed in Office 365.
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
You need to identify which report must be used to view previous tasks performed in Office 365. Which type of report should you use for each task? To answer, drag the appropriate reports to the correct tasks. Each report may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view
content.
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[Mar.-2018-New] Where Can I Get IBM 000-004 Dumps?

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Pass4itsure provide latest IBM 000-004 dumps certification material are based on the real exam video training. The practical exam for IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.1 Administration assesses the candidate’s ability to lead a virtual classroom session with live participants using the techniques and best practices of skilled virtual instructors. Candidates submit a 90-minute IBM certifications I recording in which they demonstrate the skills listed in the practical exam topics. Pass4itsure has more than 10 years experience in IT certification 000-004 dumps exam training, including questions and answers. The recordings receive a Pass or Fail score. Candidates must pass both the 000-004 dumps exam and the 000-004 practical exam to obtain IBM certifications I certification. IBM 000-004 exam is a test of the level of knowledge of IT professionals. On the Internet, you can find a variety of training tools. Pass4itsure IBM https://www.pass4itsure.com/000-004.html dumps study guides is the best training materials.

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2018 IBM 000-004 Dumps (All 188 Q&As) From Pass4itsure 1-24

1. What is the first step that should be performed after setting up a new IBM Tivoli Storage Manager server?
A. prepare
B. storage manager database backup
C. process to return local scratch tapes to the library
D. cron job to back up the Tivoli Storage Manager file system
000-004 exam Answer:B

2. Using the administrative command line on the client machine, query the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (Tivoli Storage Manager) server and save the output to be used for a report later. What must a Tivoli Storage Manager administrator with Operator authority do in order for this output to be redirected for reports?
A. Add > filename to the command.
B. Set the Admin authority to System and create a file output.
C. Create a report in the ISC and direct it to outfile=”outputname”.
D. Issue Query Systeminfo and from the DOS prompt select file output.
Answer:A

3. Which type of device class is supported by random access storage?
A. Disk
B. Tape
C. Virtual
D. GenericTape
000-004 dumps Answer:A

4. Which command will add a new volume to the library, which is in the entry/exit ports of the library?
A. checkin libvolume libname volname search=no status=scratch
B. checkin libvolume libname volname search=no status=scratch waitt=0
C. checkin libvolume libname search=yes status=scratch checklabel=yes
D. checkin libvolume libname search=bulk status=scratch checklabel=barcode
Answer:D

5. What is the term for automatic data movement that frees up space on tape volumes by consolidating active data from fragmented tape volumes onto a single volume?
A. migration
B. collocation
C. reclamation
D. aggregation
000-004 pdf Answer:C

6. Which command must be used to define a schedule that archives specific files quarterly on the last Friday of the month?
A. DEFINE SCHEDULE command with SCHEDSTYLE=ENHANCED parameter
B. DEFINE SCHEDULE command with SCHEDSTYLE=ADVANCED parameter
C. DEFINE CLIENTACTION command with SCHEDSTYLE=ENHANCED parameter
D. DEFINE CLIENTACTION command with SCHEDSTYLE=ADVANCED parameter
Answer:A

7. A customer has a 3584 library with 1000 tape volumes. All of the tape volumes are in IBM Tivoli Storage Manager library inventory with private and scratch status. Now the customer wants to know the total number of ‘Private’ volumes by SQL command. What is the correct SQL statement for an automatic count?
A. SELECT * FROM volumes WHERE status=’Private’
B. SELECT * FROM libvolumes WHERE status=’Private’
C. SELECT COUNT(*) FROM volumes WHERE status=’Private’
D. SELECT COUNT(*) FROM libvolumes WHERE status=’Private’
000-004 vce Answer:D

8. A new server-to-server environment is being set up. One server is called Source and the other Target. With the define server command, the servers will be defined in one step to these two servers. But only one server is defined. On one side, there is no server definition for the issuing server to find. How can this problem be solved?
A. On the Source server, DEFINE SERVER SOURCE …
B. Set on Source and on Target server, SET CROSSDEFINE ON.
C. Set on both servers the IP address, IP port, and the server password.
D. On the Target server, DEFINE SERVER SOURCE … CROSSDEFINE=YES.
Answer:D

9. Additional LTO4 tape drives should be added to the LTO library that has LTO2 drives, what must be done to ensure that the LTO4 drives are used for off-site tapes?
A. Define additional tape drives and path to additional tape drives.
B. Define device class for LTO4, tape drive, and update copypool.
C. Remove LTO device class, and define new LTO4 device class, tape drives, and path.
D. Define the new library, the library path, device class for LTO4, new tape drives to library, path of new drives to IBM Tivoli Storage Manager server, and update storage pool to use new device class LTO4 for off-site copypool and/or primary pools that are sent off-site.
000-004 exam Answer: D

10. A customer wants to copy the file, my data/schedule.doc, retain it for 365 days, and maintain its default backup retention for 30 days. Which IBM Tivoli Storage Manager action should be performed?
A. archive
B. image backup
C. open file backup
D. incremental backup
Answer: A

11. Which statement is true about IBM Tivoli Storage Manager selective backup?
A. It causes the server to update the date and time of the last archive.
B. It expires backup versions of files that are deleted from the workstation.
C. It rebinds backup versions to a management class if the management class has not changed.
D. It backs up directory and file entries even if their size, modification timestamp, or permissions have not changed.
Answer: D

12. Which three operating systems support journal-based backups? (Choose three.)
A. AIX
B. Solaris
C. HP-UX
D. Linux Redhat
E. Windows 2003 Server
F. Windows 2008 Server
000-004 dumps Answer:AEF

13. Whenever using the backup-archive client interface to perform Network Data Management Protocol backups or restores, you are asked to authenticate yourself as an IBM Tivoli Storage Manager administrator before the operation begins. What is the minimal level of authority the administrator ID must have to complete this?
A. system authority
B. system authority for the NAS node
C. client owner authority for the NAS node
D. analyst authority for the backup-archive client server
Answer:C

14. The same backup operation can be performed with a server interface. For example, from the administrative command line client, back up the file system named /vol/vol1 on a NAS file server named NAS1, by entering the following command: backup node nas1 /vol/vol1 What is the minimal level of authority required to perform this operation?
A. storage authority
B. system authority for the NAS node
C. client owner authority for the NAS node
D. analyst authority for the backup-archive client server
000-004 pdf Answer: C

15. In order to back up a NAS device to an IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (Tivoli Storage Manager) native storage pool, set the destination storage pool in the copy group to point to the desired native storage pool. The destination storage pool provides the information about the library and drives used for backup and restore. When backing up a NAS file server to Tivoli Storage Manager native pools, the TOCDESTINATION may be the same as the destination of the NDMP data. What is required for this to
happen?
A. Define a new copygroup for the TOC.
B. Define a new device class for the TOC.
C. Define a copygroup with the TOCDestination parameter.
D. Define a device class, by using the TOCDestination parameter.
Answer: C

16. What is the latest and fastest backup method for a large customer to use Network Data Management Protocol (NDMP) for the large filer?
A. the NetAppSnapMirror to Tape
B. the traditional NDMP for full backup
C. a flash-copy with SnapMirror directly to Tape
D. a block-level copy with SnapMirror directly to Tape
000-004 vce Answer: D

17. A Network Data Management Protocol (NDMP) installation is growing fast with a large filer. For these large IBM Tivoli Storage Manager nodes, a faster backup method must be implemented. Which method should be considered?
A. NDMP full
B. SnapMirror to Tape
C. NDMP differential backup
D. Incremental backup with NDMP
Answer: B

18. The Network Data Management Protocol filers must be backed up. All definitions are complete and the access to the tape environment is working properly. The backup command is not performing optimally. To allow the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager client a backup from a NetApp filer, some additional options for the backup command are required to get optimal performance. Which option should be used?
A. TYPE = BACKUP | SNAPDisk
B. TYPE = BACKUPImage | SNAPMirror
C. TYPE = BACKUPFilespace | SNAPCopy
D. TYPE = BACKUPFiller | SNAPMultiple
Answer: B

19. Which command starts the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager administrative command line interface?
A. dsmc
B. dsmadmc
C. tsmadmin
D. dsm admin
000-004 exam Answer: B

20. What are two valid options when starting the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager administrative command line interface? (Choose two.)
A. -clientmode
B. -adminmode
C. – mountmode
D. – servermode
E. – consolemode
Answer:CE

21. The exhibit represents a simple routed network. Node 7 is a Windows 2000 Professional machine that establishes a TCP communication with Node 10, a Windows 2003 Server. The routers are Cisco 2500 series running IOS 11.2. While working at Node 10, you run a packet capture. Packets received by Node 10, and sent from Node 7 will reveal which of the following combination of source IP and source Physical addresses:
A. Source IP address 10.0.10.115, Source Physical address for Node 7
B. Source IP address 50.0.50.1, Source Physical address for Node 7
C. Source IP address for Router D’s Int E0, Source Physical address for Node 7
D. Source IP address 10.0.10.115, Source Physical address Router D’s Int E0
E. Source IP addresses for both Nodes 7 and Router D’s Int E0, Source Physical address for both Nodes 7 and Router D’s Int E0.
000-004 dumps Answer:D

22. You have implemented an IPSec policy, using only AH. You are analyzing your network traffic in Network Monitor, which of the following statements are true about your network traffic?
A. You will not be able to view the data in the packets, as it is encrypted.
B. You will not be able to identify the upper layer protocol.
C. You will be able to view the unencrypted data in the packets.
D. You will be able to identify the encryption algorithm in use.
E. You will not be able to view the packet header.
Answer: C

23. In order to perform promiscuous mode captures using the Wireshark capture tool on a Windows Server 2003 machine, what must first be installed?
A. IPv4 stack
B. IPv6 stack
C. WinPcap
D. Nothing, it will capture by default
E. At least two network adapters
000-004 pdf Answer: C

24. You are configuring the rules on your firewall, and need to take into consideration that some clients in
the network are using automatic addressing. What is the IP address range reserved for internal use for
APIPA in Microsoft networks?
A. 169.254.0.0 /4
B. 169.254.0.0 /16
C. 169.254.0.0 /8
D. 169.254.0.0 /0
E. 168.255.0.0 /16
Answer: B
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Pass4itsure has developed the best and the most accurate training materials about IBM 70-486 exam. The IBM 000-004 dumps IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.1 Administration exam allows students to understand and realize the benefits of IBM certifications I certification area. Students who complete IBM 000-004 dumps may get IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.1 Administration certification. Candidates can prepare for the exam by taking the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.1 Administration course. Now Pass4itsure can provide you the most comprehensive training materials about IBM 000-004 exam, including exam practice questions and answers.

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[Feb.-2018-New] Useful Cisco 642-883 Dumps SPROUTE Exam Deploying Cisco Service Provider Network Routing Video Study Will Be More Popular 130Q&As 1-14

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QUESTION 1
Refer to the OSPF command exhibit.
642-883 dumps
Which effect does the no-summary command option have?
A. It will cause area 1 to be able to receive non-summarized inter-area routes.
B. It will cause area 1 to not receive any inter-area routes and will use a default route to reach networks in other areas.
C. It will cause area 1 to not receive any external routes and will use a default route to reach the external networks.
D. It will convert the NSSA area into a NSSA totally stubby area.
E. It will convert the stubby area into a NSSA.
F. It will disable OSPF auto-summary.
642-883 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
642-883 dumps

QUESTION 2
When troubleshooting OSPF neighbor errors, which three verification steps should be considered? (Choose three.)
A. Verify if neighboring OSPF interfaces are configured in the same area.
B. Verify if neighboring OSPF interfaces are configured with the same OSPF process ID.
C. Verify if neighboring OSPF interfaces are configured with the same OSPF priority.
D. Verify if neighboring OSPF interfaces are configured with the same hello and dead intervals.
E. Verify if neighboring OSPF interfaces are configured with the same area type.
Correct Answer: ADE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 3
On Cisco IOS XR Software, which set of commands is used to enable the gi0/0/0/1 interface for OSPF in area 0?
A. interface gi0/0/0/0ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.0!router ospf 1network 10.1.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0
B. interface gi0/0/0/0ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.0!router ospf 1network 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.255 area 0
C. router ospf 1area 0interface GigabitEthernet0/0/0/1
D. interface gi0/0/0/0ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.0ip ospf 1 area 0
E. router ospf 1address-family ipv4 unicastinterface GigabitEthernet0/0/0/1 area 0
F. router ospf 1address-family ipv4 unicastinterface GigabitEthernet0/0/0/1area 0
642-883 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 4
Which three statements are true regarding the OSPF router ID? (Choose three.)
A. The OSPF routing process chooses a router ID for itself when it starts up.
B. The router-id command is the preferred procedure to set the router ID.
C. If a loopback interface is configured, its address will always be preferred as the router ID over any other methods.
D. After the router ID is set, it does not change, even if the interface that the router is using for the router ID goes down. The router ID changes only if the router reloads or if the OSPF routing process restarts.
E. In OSPF version 3, the OSPF router ID uses a 128-bit number.
Correct Answer: ABD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 5
Which two OSPF network scenarios require OSPF virtual link configuration? (Choose two.)
A. to connect an OSPF non-backbone area to area 0 through another non-backbone area
B. to connect an NSSA area to an external routing domain
C. to connect two parts of a partitioned backbone area through a non-backbone area
D. to enable route leaking from Level 2 into Level 1
E. to enable route leaking from Level 1 into Level 2
F. to enable OSPF traffic engineering
642-883 pdf Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 6
What is function of the RP/0/RSP0/CPU0:PE1(config-ospf)#distance Cisco IOS-XR command?
A. To modify the administrative distance of the OSPF routes
B. To modify the default seed metric of the OSPF external routes
C. To modify the OSPF default reference bandwidth
D. To modify the OSPF cost
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
642-883 dumps

QUESTION 7
Which four statements are correct regarding IS-IS operations? (Choose four.)
A. By default, Level 1 routers within an IS-IS area do not carry any routing information external to the area to which they belong. They use a default route to exit the area.
B. Summarization should be configured on the Level 2 routers, which injects the Level  2 routes into Level 1.
C. IS-IS supports “route leaking” in which selected Level 2 routes can be advertised by a Level 1/Level 2 router into Level 1.
D. The IS-IS backbone is a contiguous collection of Level 1 capable routers, each of which can be in a different area.
E. With IS-IS, an individual router is in only one area, and the border between areas is on the link that connects two routers that are in different areas.
F. Cisco IOS XR Software supports multitopology for IPv6 IS-IS unless single topology is explicitly configured in IPv6 address-family configuration mode.
642-883 vce Correct Answer: ACEF
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Single-Topology IPv6 Support
Single-topology IPv6 support on Cisco IOS XR software allows IS-IS for IPv6 to be configured on interfaces along with an IPv4 network protocol. All interfaces must be configured with the identical set of network protocols and all routers in the IS-IS area (for Level 1 routing) or the domain (for Level 2 routing) must support the identical set of network layer protocols on all interfaces. When single-topology support for IPv6 is used, only narrow link metrics, also known as old-style type, length, value (TLV) arguments, may be employed. During single-topology operation, one shortest path first (SPF) computation per level is used to compute both IPv4 and IPv6 routes. Using a single SPF is possible because both IPv4 IS-IS and IPv6 IS-IS routing protocols share a common link topology. Because multitopology is the default behavior in the software, you must explicitly configure IPv6 to use the same topology as IPv4 in order to enable single-topology IPv6. Configure the single-topology command in ipv6 address family
configuration submode of the IS-IS router stanza.
Multitopology IPv6 Support
Multitopology IPv6 support on Cisco IOS XR software differs from Cisco IOS software in that IS-IS assumes that multitopology support is required as soon as it detects interfaces configured for both IPv6 and IPv4 within the IS-IS stanza. You must use the metric-style wide command to configure IS-IS to wide link metrics as multitopology link advertisements.

QUESTION 8
The company uses a planning system that focuses first on the amount and timing of finished goods demanded and then determines the derived demand for raw
material, components, and subassemblies at each of the prior stages of production. This system is referred to as:
A. Economic order quantity.
B. Material requirements planning.
C. Linear programming.
D. Just-in-time purchasing.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Materialsrequirements planning CIRF) is usually a computer-based information systemdesigned to plan and control raw materials used in a production setting. It
assumes thatestimated demand for materials is reasonably accurate and that suppliers can deliver basedupon this accurate schedule. It is crucial that delivery
delays be avoided because, underCIRF, production delays are almost unavoidable if the materials are not on hand. An MRFsystem uses a parts list, often called a
bill of materials, and lead times for each type ofmaterial to obtain materials just as they are needed for planned production.

QUESTION 9
An inventory planning method that minimizes inventories by arranging to have raw materials and subcomponents arrive immediately preceding their use is called:
A. A. safety stock planning system.
B. An economic order quantity model.
C. A. just-in-time inventory system.
D. A master budgeting system.
642-883 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
JIT is a manufacturing philosophy popularized by the Japanese that combines purchasing,production, and inventory control. As with MFP, minimization of inventory is a goal;however, JIT also encompasses changes in the production process itself. An emphasis onquality and a “pull” of materials related to demand are key differences between JIT and MFP. The factory is organized so as to bring materials and tools close to the point of use rather thankeeping them in storage areas. A key element of the JIT system is reduction or elimination ofwaste of materials, labor, factory space, and machine usage. Minimizing inventory is the keyto reducing waste. V1lhen a part is needed on the production line, it arrives just in time, notbefore. Daily deliveries from suppliers are the ultimate objective, and some Japanese usershave been able to get twice-daily deliveries.

QUESTION 10
One of the elements included in the economic order quantity EOQ) formula is:
A. Safety stock.
B. Yearly demand.
C. Selling price of item.
D. Lead time for delivery.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The basic EOQ formula is used to minimize the total of inventory carrying and orderingcosts. The basic EOQ equals the square root of a fraction consisting of a
numerator equal tothe product of twice the unit periodic demand and the variable cost per order and adenominator equal to the unit periodic carrying cost. Using an EOQ analysis assuming aconstant demand), it is determined that the optimal order quantity is 2,500. The companydesires a safety stock of 500 units. A five day lead time is needed for delivery. Annualinventory holding costs equal 25% of the average inventory level. It costs the company U $4per unit to buy the product, which it sells for U $. It costs the company U $150 to place adetailed order, and the monthly demand for the product is 4,000 units.

QUESTION 11
Annual inventory holding costs equal:
A. US $750
B. US $1,250
C. US $1,750
D. US $2,250
642-883 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Given that demand is constant and the EOQ is 2,500 units, the average inventory level–1without regard to safety stock is 1,250 units 2,500 – 2). Adding safety stock results in anaverage level of 1,750 units 1,250 + 500). Given also that annual holding costs are 25% ofaverage inventory and that unit cost i s U $4, total annual holding cost i s U $1 ,750 [(1 ,750units : $4) 25%]. Using an EOQ analysis assuming a constant demand), it is determined thatthe optimal order quantity is 2,500. The company desires a safety stock of 500 units. A fivedaylead time is needed for delivery. Annual inventory holding costs equal 25°!a of theaverage inventory level. It costs the company US $4 per unit to buy the product, which itsells for US $8. It costs the company US $150 to place a detailed order, and the monthlydemand for the product is 4,000 units.

QUESTION 12
Total inventory ordering costs per year equal:
A. US $1,250
B. US $2,400
C. US $2,880
D. US $3,600
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Total annual demand is 48,000 units 4,000 per month x 12). Hence, total annual orderingcosts equal US $2,880 [$150 cost per order 48,000 units – 2,500 EOQ)].

QUESTION 13
An organization sells a product for which demand is uncertain. Management would like to ensure that there is sufficient inventory on hand during periods of high demand so that it does not lose sales and customers). To do so, the organization should:
A. Keep a safety stock.
B. Use a just-in-time inventory system.
C. Employ a materials requirements planning system.
D. Keep a master production schedule.
642-883 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Safety stock is inventory maintained to reduce the number of stockouts resulting fromhigher-than- expected demand during lead time. Maintaining a safety stock avoids the costs ofstockouts, e.g., lost sales and customer dissatisfaction.

QUESTION 14
The economic order quantity is the size of the order that minimizes total inventory costs which include ordering and holding carrying) costs. It can be calculated using the formula If Q = order size in units, D = annual demand in units, p = cost per purchase order, s = carrying cost per year for one unit of inventory. If the annual demand decreases by 369/o the optimal order size will:
A. Decrease by 20%.
B. Increase by 20°!a.
C. Increase by 6%.Decrease by 6%.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
D decreases by 36%, that is, from 100% to 64%. Because .64 is the square of .8, the EOQ for 64D Q~) equals 80°a of the EOQ for D(Q).
642-883 dumps

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300-101 dumps
2018 Cisco 300-101 Dumps (All 570 Q&As) From Pass4itsure:
QUESTION 5
You have been asked to evaluate how EIGRP is functioning in a customer network.
300-101 dumps
300-101 dumps
QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit
300-101 dumps
The DHCP client is unable to receive a DHCP address from the DHCP server. Consider the following output:
hostname RouterB
!
interface fastethernet 0/0
ip address 172.31.1.1 255.255.255.0
interface serial 0/0
ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.252
!
ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 10.1.1.2
Which configuration is required on the Router B fastethernet 0/0 port in order to allow the DHCP client to successfully receive an IP address from the DHCP server?
A. RouterB(config-if)# ip helper-address 172.16.1.2
B. RouterB(config-if)# ip helper-address 172.16.1.1
C. RouterB(config-if)# ip helper-address 172.31.1.1
D. RouterB(config-if)# ip helper-address 255.255.255.255
300-101 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
Which option is invalid when configuring Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding?
A. allow self ping to router
B. allow default route
C. allow based on ACL match
D. source reachable via both
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
Which traffic characteristic is the reason that UDP traffic that carries voice and video is assigned to the queue only on a link that is at least 768 kbps?
A. typically is not fragmented
B. typically is fragmented
C. causes windowing
D. causes excessive delays for video traffic
300-101 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
Refer to the following configuration command. router(config)# ip nat inside source static tcp 172.16.10.8 8080 172.16.10.8 80 Which statement about the command is true?
A. Any packet that is received in the inside interface with a source IP port address of 172.16.10.8:80 is translated to 172.16.10.8:8080.
B. Any packet that is received in the inside interface with a source IP port address of 172.16.10.8:8080 is translated to 172.16.10.8:80.
C. The router accepts only a TCP connection from port 8080 and port 80 on IP address 172.16.10.8
D. Any packet that is received in the inside interface with a source IP address of 172.16.10.8 is redirected to port 8080 or port 80.
Correct Answer: A
 QUESTION NO: 10
Given: Use Exhibit 1, 2, and 3 to answer the question. The azimuth and elevation charts for which type of antenna are shown in Exhibit 1?
A. Figure 1
B. Figure 2
C. Figure 3
D. Figure 4
E. Figure 5
F. Figure 6
300-101 pdf Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 11
Multicast video applications typically require special treatment on the Wi-Fi network due to the nature of multicast traffic. Many vendors implement proprietary multicast-to-unicast conversion for this reason. Which of the following is NOT a valid reason for special unicast conversion of downlink multicast traffic?
A. In QoS WLANs, multicast traffic is always assigned to the best effort (AC_BE) transmit queue.
B. Group addressed downlink frames are not acknowledged on the wireless medium.
C. Multicast traffic must always be transmitted via omnidirectional antennas.
D. Frames with a group receiver address must always be sent at a rate in the Basic Rate Set.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 12
Given: Assume that music on hold (MOH) features are unicast only. What VoWiFi implementations require multicast packet delivery support by the WLAN infrastructure?
A. All VoWiFi implementations
B. Push-to-Talk VoWiFi phones
C. VoWiFi soft phones
D. FMC phones
E. Flat (non-VLAN) VoWiFi implementations
300-101 vce Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 13
As you plan a WLAN upgrade, you have assessed the network requirements and data signatures of your applications. One of the popular applications used on your network requires high bandwidth and low to medium Wi-Fi loss, but can tolerate moderate latency and jitter. What application matches this description?
A. Voice
B. Email
C. Skype chat
D. Video-on-demand
E. Video conferencing
F. FTP
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 14
Given: The 802.11n APs you have selected for your public access deployment support many of the PHY and MAC enhancements offered by the 802.11n standard. The AP is single-band (2.4 GHz) and only allows 20 MHz channels. The WLAN radio in the AP is a 3×3 802.11n chip that supports two spatial streams. What is the maximum MCS rate that could be supported by this AP?
A. 54 Mbps
B. 65 Mbps
C. 108 Mbps
D. 144 Mbps
E. 150 Mbps
F. 300 Mbps
300-101 pdf Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 15
As an implementation engineer, you have just received initial design specs from a network designer for your dual-band 802.11n deployment. The network design documents prescribe the following data rate configuration for the 2.4 GHz radio:
Basic Rates — 5.5, 6, 11, 12 Mbps Supported Rates —9, 18, 24, 36, 48, and 54 Mbps as well as MCS 0-15 What will result from this design strategy?
A. By disabling support for 1 and 2 Mbps while allowing 5.5 and 11 Mbps, the network will force 802.11b clients to use these higher data rates.
B. Protection mechanisms will always be in use on this network to support 5.5 and 11 Mbps as basic rates.
C. HR/DSSS (802.11b) stations will not be able to associate to the service set.
D. This configuration violates the IEEE specification that defines 6, 12, and 24 Mbps as mandatory data rates for 802.11g/n.
E. MCS 0 will represent the lowest data rate that can be used in the service set.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 16
Given: As the wireless network administrator for XYZ Company, you are planning to upgrade your aging wireless network infrastructure, as well as some clients, to support 802.11n. In your research, you have discovered that your new wireless client devices and infrastructure are 802.11n, WMM, and WMM-PS certified by the Wi-Fi Alliance. Some of your existing client devices are 802.11a/b/g devices that do not support WMM.
Given this information, what scenario is possible when your company’s employees begin using both types of client devices on the new WLAN?
A. All WMM-PS certified client devices will be prevented from utilizing WMM-PS features until all stations in use on the wireless medium are WMM-PS certified.
B. The WLAN infrastructure will set the dozing times of the WMM-PS certified client devices based upon their WMM access category, while the non-WMM-PS client devices will continue to use PS Poll frames.
C. Performance and battery life will be inconsistent between WMM-PS and non-WMM-PS client devices when used with applications that support WMM-PS.
D. WMM-PS enabled APs will allow both WMM-PS and non-WMM-PS stations to use the trigger and-delivery mechanism, but WMM-PS stations will get priority.
E. When all STAs are using Power Save features, WMM-PS STAs will experience poor
performance due to PS protection mechanisms.
300-101 vce Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 17
To achieve a 450 Mbps MCS, what 802.11n features (from the numbered list below) are required?
1. Frame aggregation
2. Short GI
3. 40 MHz channels
4. 2 spatial streams
5. 3 spatial streams
6. Transmit beamforming (TxBF)
A. 1, 2, 3, 4
B. 1, 2, 3, 5
C. 1, 2, 3, 4, 6
D. 1, 2, 3, 5, 6
E. 2, 3, 4
F. 2, 3, 5
Answer: F
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 18
You are tasked with designing the WLAN to accommodate certain high density areas on your university campus where users are highly transient (frequently come and go). With a limited DHCP pool size (subnet mask = 255.255.252.0) for this WLAN subnet, you want to ensure that your DHCP addresses are used efficiently and are not exhausted, which would prevent new client associations. The DHCP server is a Windows Server 2008 machine. Your design task is to determine the best configuration to allow as many users as possible while avoiding WLAN service interruptions and also to use the available addresses as efficiently as possible. What setting would be most effective at achieving this design task?
A. Set the RTS threshold to 2346 bytes
B. Set the inactive wireless client timeout (client age-out) to 5 minutes
C. Set the maximum client limit per radio to 64
D. Set the DHCP lease for this pool to 20 minutes
E. Enable WLAN Controller DHCP relay
F. Enable mandatory admission control
G. Set the AES rekey interval to 5 minutes
H. Set the 802.1X re-authentication timer to 10 minutes
300-101 exam Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 19
What is the DSCP Per Hop Behavior equivalent classification of the 802.11e AC_VO priority level?
A. AF31
B. CS3
C. VO
D. EF
E. AF12
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 20
You are working on a VoWLAN design with your customer’s wired networking team. How many distinct priority levels do you expect for the voice applications?
A. 1 priority level, but 2 queues (one for uplink traffic, one for downlink traffic)
B. 1 priority level per client and AP pair, so the total number depends on the expected number of clients
C. 1 priority level for voice RTP, 1 priority level for voice control and RTCP
D. 1 priority level for VoWLAN client traffic, 1 priority level for wired VoIP client traffic
300-101 dumps Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 21
Given: Use the exhibit as a reference. ABC Company has a WLAN controller with 10 controller based APs; the Voice SSID is configured for centralized data forwarding. Each AP is connected to an access port on a layer-2 Ethernet switch. Each layer-2 switch is uplinked to a single layer-3 core Ethernet switch. The WLAN controller is connected directly to the layer-3 core Ethernet switch. Layer-3 tunnels are created between all controller-based APs and the WLAN controller. A voice server is connected to the layer-3 Ethernet switch.  When a voice-enabled QoS STA sends an IP data packet to a voice server in this scenario, the DSCP value carried in the STA’s IP data packet gets mapped to what and by which device?
A. The DSCP value is mapped to an IEEE 802.1Q priority tag value by the WLAN controller.
B. The DSCP value is mapped to the DSCP value in the encapsulating IP header by the layer-3 switch.
C. The DSCP value is mapped to an IEEE 802.1p (802.1D-2004) UP value by the access point.
D. The DSCP value is mapped to an IEEE 802.1Q VLAN tag by the access point.
E. The DSCP value is mapped to the VLAN ID by the layer-2 Ethernet switch.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 22
Given: For this fill-in the blank question, each answer option contains an answer for the first and second blanks, separated by a dash “—”. Choose the answer option that correctly fills in both blanks in the following sentence. A WLAN may use 802.11 admission control to , and admission control requirements are configured separately for each .
A. Block stations with inadequate security parameters — SSID
B. Identify voice-enabled wireless devices — AP radio (that is, 2.4 GHz or 5 GHz)
C. Regulate the available bandwidth resources — Access Category
D. Mark ingress and egress frames with priority values — TCP/IP port
E. Administer VoWiFi use policy — VLAN
300-101 pdf Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 23
In a large enterprise (5000+ wireless users), by what recommended methods are IP addresses and VLANs assigned to different clients associated to the same AP? (Choose 3)
A. Each SSID is mapped to a static VLAN assignment
B. Upstream AAA servers dynamically assign VLANs to each user or group profile
C. Radio signal metrics (RSSI, SNR, etc.) of WLAN clients are triangulated for location based VLAN assignment during association
D. Each BSSID is assigned a unique VLAN to help manage the size of broadcast domains on the wired network
E. Multiple VLAN pools are designated for an SSID and user IP addresses are selected in a round-robin fashion from the associated pools.
F. In a centralized data forwarding model, clients automatically receive an IP address on the native VLAN of the AP’s Ethernet access port.
G. The configuration profile of the client supplicant is hard-coded with a VLAN ID.
Answer: A,B,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 24
In a multiple channel architecture (MCA) network supporting 802.1X authentication, what aspects of WLAN design affect client roaming efficiency and effectiveness? (Choose 3)
A. Channels supported by infrastructure
B. Key caching protocols
C. Cipher suite
D. PHY standard used by client
E. Supported uplink and downlink MCS rates
F. The infrastructure’s roaming algorithm
G. Channels supported and scanned by client
300-101 vce Answer: A,B,G
Explanation:
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